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  • Jquery Ajax json Serializable

    - by willsonchan
    I am learing using jquery ajax to hander the JSON..i writre a demo code. HTMLCODE $(function () { $("#add").click(function () { var json = '{ "str":[{"Role_ID":"2","Customer_ID":"155","Brands":"Chloe;","Country_ID":"96;"}]}'; $.ajax({ url: "func.aspx/GetJson", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json", dataType: 'json', data: json, success: function (result) { alert(result); }, error: function () { alert("error"); } }); }); }); <div> <input type="button" value="add" id="add" /> </div> i got a input and bind a script function to it, now the proble is comeing.. my C# functiong like that. [WebMethod] public static string GetJson(object str) { return str.ToString();//good for work } [Serializable] public class TestClass { public TestClass() { } public TestClass(string role_id, string customer_id, string brands, string countryid) { this.Role_ID = role_id; this.Customer_ID = customer_id; this.Brands = brands; this.Country_ID = countryid; } public string Role_ID { get; set; } public string Customer_ID { get; set; } public string Brands { get; set; } public string Country_ID { get; set; } } when i user public static string GetJson(object str) everything is so good.~~ no error at all but . when i try to use my own class TestClass. firebug tell me that "Type 'TestClass' is not supported for deserialization of an array." .any body can give me help:XD

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  • Algorithm(s) for rearranging simple symbolic algebraic expressions

    - by Gabe Johnson
    Hi, I would like to know if there is a straightforward algorithm for rearranging simple symbolic algebraic expressions. Ideally I would like to be able to rewrite any such expression with one variable alone on the left hand side. For example, given the input: m = (x + y) / 2 ... I would like to be able to ask about x in terms of m and y, or y in terms of x and m, and get these: x = 2*m - y y = 2*m - x Of course we've all done this algorithm on paper for years. But I was wondering if there was a name for it. It seems simple enough but if somebody has already cataloged the various "gotchas" it would make life easier. For my purposes I won't need it to handle quadratics. (And yes, CAS systems do this, and yes I know I could just use them as a library. I would like to avoid such a dependency in my application. I really would just like to know if there are named algorithms for approaching this problem.)

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  • Assign delegate event handler from dynamically added child control

    - by mickyjtwin
    I have a control that handles commenting. In this control, I have set a delegate event handler for sending an email. I then have various types of controls, e.g. blog, articles etc, each of which may or may not have the commenting control added (which is done dynamically with me not knowing the id's), i.e. the commenting control is added outside this control. Each of these controls handles it's emailing differently(hence the event). What I'm trying to determine, is how to assign the event in the parent control. At the moment, I'm having to recursively search through all the controls on the page until I find the comment control, and set it that way. Example below explains: COMMENTING CONTROL public delegate void Commenting_OnSendEmail(); public partial class Commenting : UserControl { public Commenting_OnSendEmail OnComment_SendEmail(); private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(OnComment_SendEmail != null) { OnComment_SendEmail(); } } } PARENT CONTROL public partial class Blog : UserControl { private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Commenting comControl = (Commenting)this.FindControl<Commenting>(this); if(comControl != null) { comCtrol.OnComment_SendEmail += new Commenting_OnSendMail(Blog_Comment_OnSendEmail); } } } Is there an easier way?

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  • vector::erase with pointer member

    - by matt
    I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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  • GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

    - by Ian Kelly
    I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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  • Multiple table relationships in Zend Help

    - by Zogi
    Hi Guys I have been doing some DB mapping to link two tables to no avail. Everytime I run the code I get the following error: Message: File "Role.php" does not exist or class "Role" was not found in the file Stack trace: #0 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Db\Table\Row\Abstract.php(867): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->_getTableFromString('Role') #1 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\models\admin\User.php(56): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->findDependentRowset('Role') #2 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\controllers\AdminController.php(110): Application_Model_Admin_User->getUsers() #3 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): AdminController->usersAction() #4 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('usersAction') #5 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #6 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #7 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #8 C:\wamp\www\uwi\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #9 {main} Code & DB below: application/models/admin/User.php class Application_Model_Admin_User extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'user'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Role'); public function getUsers() { $rows = $this->fetchAll($this->select()->where('active = ?', 1)); $rows1 = $rows->current(); $rows2 = $rows1->findDependentRowset('Role'); return $rows2; } } application/models/admin/Role.php class Application_Model_Admin_Role extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'role'; protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'Role' => array( 'columns' => array('id'), 'refTableClass' => 'User', 'refColumns' => array('role_id') ); } DB tables CREATE TABLE role ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, name varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id) ); CREATE TABLE user ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, username varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id), FOREIGN KEY(role_id) REFERENCES role(id) );

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  • Change flash src with jquery?

    - by Elliott
    Hi I have a flash menu showing a few links, but when the user is logged in I want to change the menu from menu1 to menu2 ... so that it will display "My Account" rather than "Signup" The code below is for my flash: <div id="menu"> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="825" height="69" id="menu1" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="movie" value="menu1.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="menu1.swf" quality="high" wmode="transparent" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="825" height="69" name="menu1" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> </div> Php: if (loggedin()) { echo '<script type="text/javascript"> CHANGE FLASH LINK HERE </script>'; } Could this be done without having to write all the above code out again? Thanks :)

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  • Weird .net 4.0 exception when running unit tests

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I am receiving the following exception when trying to run my unit tests using .net 4.0 under VS2010 with moq 3.1. Attempt by security transparent method 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test.Specs_for_Core.When_using_base.Can_create_mapper()' to access security critical method 'Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting.Assert.IsNotNull(System.Object)' failed. Assembly 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is marked with the AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, and uses the level 2 security transparency model. Level 2 transparency causes all methods in AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assemblies to become security transparent by default, which may be the cause of this exception. The test I am running is really straight forward and looks something like the following: [TestMethod] public void Can_create_mapper() { this.SetupTest(); var mockMapper = new Moq.Mock<IMapper>().Object; this._Resolver.Setup(x => x.Resolve<IMapper>()).Returns(mockMapper).Verifiable(); var testBaseDa = new TestBaseDa(); var result = testBaseDa.TestCreateMapper<IMapper>(); Assert.IsNotNull(result); //<<< THROWS EXCEPTION HERE Assert.AreSame(mockMapper, result); this._Resolver.Verify(); } I have no idea what this means and I have been looking around and have found very little on the topic. The closest reference I have found is this http://dotnetzip.codeplex.com/Thread/View.aspx?ThreadId=80274 but its not very clear on what they did to fix it... Anyone got any ideas?

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  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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  • Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

    - by ahsteele
    I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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  • iPhone Core Data does not refresh table

    - by Brian515
    Hi all, I'm trying to write an application with Core Data, and I have been able to successfully read and write to the core data database. However, if I write to the database in one view controller, my other view controllers will not see the change until the app is closed then reopened again. This is really frustrating. I'm not entirely sure how to get the refresh - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag method to work. How do I get a reference to my managed object? Anyways, here's the code I'm using to read the data back. This is in the viewDidLoad method. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Website" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"siteName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if(mutableFetchResults == nil) { //Handle the error } [self setNewsTitlesArray:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; [newsSourcesTableView reloadData]; Thanks for help in advance!

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  • Why can't I wrap the ServletRequest when trying to capture JSP Output

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to dispatch in a servlet request handler to the JSP processor and capture the content of it. I am providing wrapper instances for the ServletRequest and ServletResponse, they implement the corresponding HTTPServletRequest/-Response interfaces, so they should be drop-in replacements. All methods are currently passed to the original Servlet Request object (I am planning to modify some of them soon). Additionally I have introduced some new methods. (If you want to see the code: http://code.google.com/p/gloudy/source/browse/trunk/gloudyPortal/src/java/org/gloudy/gloudlet/impl/RenderResponseImpl.java) The HttpServletResponse uses it's own output streams to capture the output. When I try to call request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request, response); With my request and response wrappers the method returns and no content has been captured. When I tried to pass the original request object it worked! But that's not what I need in the long run... request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request.getServletRequest(), response); This works. getservletRequest() returns the original Request, given by the servlet container. Does anyone know why this is not working with my wrappers?

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  • Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

    - by Kyle Zaragoza
    I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

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  • Did the Unity Team fix that "generics handling" bug back in 2008?

    - by rasx
    At my level of experience with Unity it might be faster to ask whether the "generics handling" bug acknowledged by ctavares back in 2008 was fixed in a public release. Here was the problem (which might be my problem today): Hi, I get an exception when using .... container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,), typeof(Dictionary<,)); The exception is... "Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"IDictionary2\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The type Dictionary2 has multiple constructors of length 2. Unable to disambiguate. When I attempt... IDictionary myExampleDictionary = container.Resolve(); Here was the moderated response: There are no books that'll help, Unity is a little too new for publishers to have caught up yet. Unfortunately, you've run into a bug in our generics handling. This is currently fixed in our internal version, but it'll be a little while before we can get the bits out. In the meantime, as a workaround you could do something like this instead: public class WorkaroundDictionary : Dictionary { public WorkaroundDictionary() { } } container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,),typeof(WorkaroundDictionary<,)); The WorkaroundDictionary only has the default constructor so it'll inject no problem. Since the rest of your app is written in terms of IDictionary, when we get the fixed version done you can just replace the registration with the real Dictionary class, throw out the workaround, and everything will still just work. Sorry about the bug, it'll be fixed soon!

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  • Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

    - by Ophidian
    I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

    - by Nils-Petter Nilsen
    I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

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  • Access cost of dynamically created objects with dynamically allocated members

    - by user343547
    I'm building an application which will have dynamic allocated objects of type A each with a dynamically allocated member (v) similar to the below class class A { int a; int b; int* v; }; where: The memory for v will be allocated in the constructor. v will be allocated once when an object of type A is created and will never need to be resized. The size of v will vary across all instances of A. The application will potentially have a huge number of such objects and mostly need to stream a large number of these objects through the CPU but only need to perform very simple computations on the members variables. Could having v dynamically allocated could mean that an instance of A and its member v are not located together in memory? What tools and techniques can be used to test if this fragmentation is a performance bottleneck? If such fragmentation is a performance issue, are there any techniques that could allow A and v to allocated in a continuous region of memory? Or are there any techniques to aid memory access such as pre-fetching scheme? for example get an object of type A operate on the other member variables whilst pre-fetching v. If the size of v or an acceptable maximum size could be known at compile time would replacing v with a fixed sized array like int v[max_length] lead to better performance? The target platforms are standard desktop machines with x86/AMD64 processors, Windows or Linux OSes and compiled using either GCC or MSVC compilers.

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  • How do I assert that two arbitrary type objects are equivalent, without requiring them to be equal?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    To accomplish this (but failing to do so) I'm reflecting over properties of an expected and actual object and making sure their values are equal. This works as expected as long as their properties are single objects, i.e. not lists, arrays, IEnumerable... If the property is a list of some sort, the test fails (on the Assert.AreEqual(...) inside the for loop). public void WithCorrectModel<TModelType>(TModelType expected, string error = "") where TModelType : class { var actual = _result.ViewData.Model as TModelType; Assert.IsNotNull(actual, error); Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actual, typeof(TModelType), error); foreach (var prop in typeof(TModelType).GetProperties()) { Assert.AreEqual(prop.GetValue(expected, null), prop.GetValue(actual, null), error); } } If dealing with a list property, I would get the expected results if I instead used CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...) but that requires me to cast to ICollection, which in turn requries me to know the type listed, which I don't (want to). It also requires me to know which properties are list types, which I don't know how to. So, how should I assert that two objects of an arbitrary type are equivalent? Note: I specifically don't want to require them to be equal, since one comes from my tested object and one is built in my test class to have something to compare with.

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  • Subscribe to the Button's events into a custom control

    - by ThitoO
    Do you know how can I subscribe to an event of the base of my customControl ? I've a custom control with some dependency properties : public class MyCustomControl : Button { static MyCustomControl () { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ) ) ); } public ICommand KeyDownCommand { get { return (ICommand)GetValue( KeyDownCommandProperty ); } set { SetValue( KeyDownCommandProperty, value ); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty KeyDownCommandProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "KeyDownCommand", typeof( ICommand ), typeof( MyCustomControl ) ); public ICommand KeyUpCommand { get { return (ICommand)GetValue( KeyUpCommandProperty ); } set { SetValue( KeyUpCommandProperty, value ); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty KeyUpCommandProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "KeyUpCommand", typeof( ICommand ), typeof( MyCustomControl ) ); public ICommand KeyPressedCommand { get { return (ICommand)GetValue( KeyPressedCommandProperty ); } set { SetValue( KeyPressedCommandProperty, value ); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty KeyPressedCommandProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "KeyPressedCommand", typeof( ICommand ), typeof( MyCustomControl ) ); } And I whant to subscribe to Button's events (like MouseLeftButtonDown) to run some code in my customControl. Do you know how can I do something like this in the constructor ? static MyCustomControl() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ) ) ); MouseLeftButtonDownEvent += (object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) => "something"; } Thanks for you help

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  • transfer database from local machine to hosting server

    - by c11ada
    hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • Java: Implement own message queue (threadsafe)

    - by derMax
    The task is to implement my own messagequeue that is thread safe. My approach: public class MessageQueue { /** * Number of strings (messages) that can be stored in the queue. */ private int capacity; /** * The queue itself, all incoming messages are stored in here. */ private Vector<String> queue = new Vector<String>(capacity); /** * Constructor, initializes the queue. * * @param capacity The number of messages allowed in the queue. */ public MessageQueue(int capacity) { this.capacity = capacity; } /** * Adds a new message to the queue. If the queue is full, it waits until a message is released. * * @param message */ public synchronized void send(String message) { //TODO check } /** * Receives a new message and removes it from the queue. * * @return */ public synchronized String receive() { //TODO check return "0"; } } If the queue is empty and I call remove(), I want to call wait() so that another thread can use the send() method. Respectively, I have to call notifyAll() after every iteration. Question: Is that possible? I mean does it work that when I say wait() in one method of an object, that I can then execute another method of the same object? And another question: Does that seem to be clever?

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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