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  • SWT - Table Row - Changing font color

    - by jkteater
    Is it possible to change the font color for a row based on a value in one of the columns? My table has a column that displays a status. The value of the column is going to either be Failed or Success. If it is Success I would like for that rows font be green. If the status equals Failed, I want that rows font be red. Is this possible, if so where would I put the logic. EDIT Here is my Table Viewer code, I am not going to show all the columns, just a couple private void createColumns() { String[] titles = { "ItemId", "RevId", "PRL", "Dataset Name", "Printer/Profile" , "Success/Fail" }; int[] bounds = { 100, 75, 75, 150, 200, 100 }; TableViewerColumn col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[0], bounds[0], 0); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getItemId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[1], bounds[1], 1); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getRevId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); --ETC

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  • .net user control event handler lost on postback

    - by user154008
    I have a menu usercontrol called LeftMenu that has a bulletedlist of linkitems. It's on the ascx page as such: <asp:BulletedList ID="PublisherList" DisplayMode="LinkButton" OnClick="PublisherList_Click" cssClass="Menu" runat="server"></asp:BulletedList> I databind the list in the page_load under if(!isPostBack) I'm having an issue on a page that loads the control. When the page first loads, the event handler fires. However, when the page posts back it no longer fires and in IE8, when I'm debugging, I get "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" in Visual Studio pointing at "doPostBack('LeftMenu$PublisherList','0')." In FF I don't get the error, but nothing happens. I'm **not loading the control dynamically, it's loaded on the aspx page using: <%@ Register TagPrefix="Standards" TagName="LeftMenu" Src="LeftMenu.ascx" %> <Standards:LeftMenu ID="LeftMenu" runat="server"/> Any ideas of where I'm losing the event handler? I just realized this is happening on another user control I have as well. A text box and a button and I'm using the default button to make sure pressing the enter key uses that button. .Net converts that in the html to: <div id="SearchBarInclude_SearchBar" onkeypress="javascript:return WebForm_FireDefaultButton(event, 'SearchBarInclude_QuickSearchButton')"> so as soon as i enter a key in the box I get a javascript error at the line saying "object expected." It seems like the two issues are related. Edit Again: I think I need to clarify. It's not that I'm clicking on the menu item and it can't find the selected item on postback. I have this search page with the left navigation on it and then the main content of the page is something that causes a postback. Everything is fine with this postback. Once that page has been posted back, now if I click on the bulleted list in the left navigation I get a javascript error and it fails. The page_init for the LeftMenu control is never called.

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  • stuck with enable session state

    - by Shrewd Demon
    hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

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  • How to use symbols/punctuation characters in discriminated unions

    - by user343550
    I'm trying to create a discriminated union for part of speech tags and other labels returned by a natural language parser. It's common to use either strings or enums for these in C#/Java, but discriminated unions seem more appropriate in F# because these are distinct, read-only values. In the language reference, I found that this symbol ``...`` can be used to delimit keywords/reserved words. This works for type ArgumentType = | A0 // subject | A1 // indirect object | A2 // direct object | A3 // | A4 // | A5 // | AA // | ``AM-ADV`` However, the tags contain symbols like $, e.g. type PosTag = | CC // Coordinating conjunction | CD // Cardinal Number | DT // Determiner | EX // Existential there | FW // Foreign Word | IN // Preposision or subordinating conjunction | JJ // Adjective | JJR // Adjective, comparative | JJS // Adjective, superlative | LS // List Item Marker | MD // Modal | NN // Noun, singular or mass | NNP // Proper Noun, singular | NNPS // Proper Noun, plural | NNS // Noun, plural | PDT // Predeterminer | POS // Possessive Ending | PRP // Personal Pronoun | PRP$ //$ Possessive Pronoun | RB // Adverb | RBR // Adverb, comparative | RBS // Adverb, superlative | RP // Particle | SYM // Symbol | TO // to | UH // Interjection | VB // Verb, base form | VBD // Verb, past tense | VBG // Verb, gerund or persent participle | VBN // Verb, past participle | VBP // Verb, non-3rd person singular present | VBZ // Verb, 3rd person singular present | WDT // Wh-determiner | WP // Wh-pronoun | WP$ //$ Possessive wh-pronoun | WRB // Wh-adverb | ``#`` | ``$`` | ``''`` | ``(`` | ``)`` | ``,`` | ``.`` | ``:`` | `` //not sure how to escape/delimit this ``...`` isn't working for WP$ or symbols like ( Also, I have the interesting problem that the parser returns `` as a meaningful symbol, so I need to escape it as well. Is there some other way to do this, or is this just not possible with a discriminated union? Right now I'm getting errors like Invalid namespace, module, type or union case name Discriminated union cases and exception labels must be uppercase identifiers I suppose I could somehow override toString for these goofy cases and replace the symbols with some alphanumeric equivalent?

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  • When to Store Temporary Values in Hidden Field vs. Session vs. Database?

    - by viatropos
    I am trying to build a simple OpenID login panel similar to how Stack Overflow's works. The goal is: User clicks OpenID/Oauth provider OpenID/Oauth stuff happens, we end up with the result (already made that) Then we want to confirm that the user wants to actually create a new account (vs. associating account with another OpenID account). In StackOverflow, they keep a hidden field on a form that looks like this: <form action="/users/openidconfirm" method="post"> <p>This is an OpenID we haven't seen on Stack Overflow before:</p> <p class="openid-identifier">https://me.yahoo.com/a/some-hash</p> <p>Do you want to associate this OpenID with your Stack Overflow account?</p> <div> <input type="hidden" name="fkey" value="9792ab2zza1q2a4ac414casdfa137eafba7"> <input type="hidden" name="s" value="c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218"> <input type="submit" value="Associate OpenID"> <input type="button" value="Cancel" onclick="window.location.href = 'http://stackoverflow.com/users/169992/viatropos?s=c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218'"> </div> </form> Initial question is, what are those hashes fkey and s? Not that I really care what these specific hashes are, but what it seems like is happening is they have processed the openid response and saved it to the DB in a temporary object or something, and from there they generate these keys, because they don't look like Oauth keys to me. Main situation is: after I have processed OpenID/Oauth responses, I don't yet want to create a new user/account until the user submits the "confirm" form. Should I store the keys and tokens temporarily in a "Confirm" form like this? Or is there a better way? It seems that using a temp database object would be a lot of work to manage properly. Thanks for the help. Lance

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  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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  • vector::erase with pointer member

    - by matt
    I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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  • Swimlane Diagram Softwares with Expand/Collapse Features

    - by louis xie
    I've been searching real hard for a software which can fulfill my needs, but to no avail. I have a swimlane diagram which is extremely huge, and almost impossible to model using Visio or any traditional swimlane software. I would need to model both the operational process, as well as the interactions within an application and between different applications. Therefore, without wasting additional effort modelling these separately, I am looking for a solution which I can combine both views together. That is, possibly one which I can expand/collapse/group/ungroup processes/subprocesses together. Take a typical credit card process for instance, a hypothetical description of the swimlane could be as such: Customer submits application form to the bank Bank Officer A receives the application form and validates that it was correctly filled Bank Officer A submits application form to Bank Officer B for processing. Bank Officer B checks credit quality of the customer through Application X. Application X submits query to Application Y to retrieve Credit Report. Application X retrieves credit report and submits to Application Z for computation of credit scores Bank Officer B validates that customer is credit worthy, and submits application to Bank Officer C for processing. The above is an over-simplified credit card request process, and a purely hypothetical one. What I'm trying to drive at is, each of the above processes have sub-processes, and I want to be able to switch between a "detailed" view and "aggregated" view. If possible, add in time dependency of the different tasks, as well. I haven't been able to find one such software which could do this.

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  • Display subclass data in XCode Expression window

    - by Nick VanderPyle
    I'm debugging an iPhone application I've written using XCode 3.2 and I cannot view the relevant public properties of an object I pull from Core Data. When I watch the object in the Expressions window it only displays the data from the base NSManagedObject. I'd like to see the properties that are on the subclass, not the superclass. If it helps, here's some of the code I'm using. Settings is a subclass of NSManagedObject. I created it using XCode's built-in modeler. Declared like: @interface Settings : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasNews; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * logoUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasPaymentGateway; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * customerCode; ... In the interface of my controller I have: Settings *settings; I populate settings with: settings = (Settings *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Settings" inManagedObjectContext:UIAppManagedObjectContext()]; I then set the properties like: settings.hasNews = [NSNumber numberWithBool:TRUE]; I've tried casting settings as (Settings *) in the Expression window but that doesn't help. All I see are the properties to NSManagedObject. I'm using NSLog but would rather not.

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  • How to loop a video in Flash

    - by james
    So i had a video that was in quicktime format, threw it into flash, encoded it without a problem and here is the result i got: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html I would like the video to "loop" or "autorewind" as soon as it ends but i am having the hardest time trying to figure how to do this. Here is my code, any help would be greatly appreciated... if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true&autorewind=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object>

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  • Raising C# events with an extension method - is it bad?

    - by Kyralessa
    We're all familiar with the horror that is C# event declaration. To ensure thread-safety, the standard is to write something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; protected virtual void OnSomethingHappened(EventArgs e) { var handler = SomethingHappened; if (handler != null) handler(this, e); } Recently in some other question on this board (which I can't find now), someone pointed out that extension methods could be used nicely in this scenario. Here's one way to do it: static public class EventExtensions { static public void RaiseEvent(this EventHandler @event, object sender, EventArgs e) { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } static public void RaiseEvent<T>(this EventHandler<T> @event, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } } With these extension methods in place, all you need to declare and raise an event is something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; void SomeMethod() { this.SomethingHappened.RaiseEvent(this, EventArgs.Empty); } My question: Is this a good idea? Are we missing anything by not having the standard On method? (One thing I notice is that it doesn't work with events that have explicit add/remove code.)

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  • Java: Implement own message queue (threadsafe)

    - by derMax
    The task is to implement my own messagequeue that is thread safe. My approach: public class MessageQueue { /** * Number of strings (messages) that can be stored in the queue. */ private int capacity; /** * The queue itself, all incoming messages are stored in here. */ private Vector<String> queue = new Vector<String>(capacity); /** * Constructor, initializes the queue. * * @param capacity The number of messages allowed in the queue. */ public MessageQueue(int capacity) { this.capacity = capacity; } /** * Adds a new message to the queue. If the queue is full, it waits until a message is released. * * @param message */ public synchronized void send(String message) { //TODO check } /** * Receives a new message and removes it from the queue. * * @return */ public synchronized String receive() { //TODO check return "0"; } } If the queue is empty and I call remove(), I want to call wait() so that another thread can use the send() method. Respectively, I have to call notifyAll() after every iteration. Question: Is that possible? I mean does it work that when I say wait() in one method of an object, that I can then execute another method of the same object? And another question: Does that seem to be clever?

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  • Advice on a DB that can be uploaded to a website by a smart client for collecting survey feedback

    - by absfabs
    Hello, I'm hoping you can help. I'm looking for a zero config multi-user datbase that my winforms application can easily upload to a webserver folder (together with 1 or 2 classic asp pages) and am looking for some suggestions/recommendations. The idea is that the database will be used to collect feedback entered by people filling in the asp pages. The pages will write to the database using javascript. The database will subsequently be downloaded again for processing once the responses are in. In Summary: It will mostly run in MS Windows environments. I have a modest budget for this and do not mind paying for such a database. No runtime licensing costs. Should be xcopy - Once uploaded to a website folder it should be operational. It should not have a dotnet CLR dependency. It should support a resonable level of concurrent access. Average respondent count would be around 20-30 but one never knows. Should be a reasonable size so that uploads/downloads to and from the site will be reasonably fast. Would appreciate your suggestions/comments Many thanks Abz To clarify - this is a desktop commercial application for feedback management in a vertical market. It uses SQL Server as the backing store. The application currently provides feedback management from email and paper feedback. I now want to add web feedback capability. Getting users to to make their SQL servers accessible to a website is not at option at this time as I am want to make getting up and running as painless as possible. I intend to release a web based implementation of the software in the near future but for now am looking at the above as a pragmatic way to provide web based feedback collection.

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  • .NET Speech recognition plugin Runtime Error: Unhandled Exception. What could possibly cause it?

    - by manuel
    I'm writing a plugin (dll file) for speech recognition, and I'm creating a WinForm as its interface/dialog. When I run the plugin and click the 'Speak' to start the initialization, I get an unhandled exception. Here is a piece of the code: public ref class Dialog : public System::Windows::Forms::Form { public: SpeechRecognitionEngine^ sre; private: System::Void btnSpeak_Click(System::Object^ sender, System::EventArgs^ e) { Initialize(); } protected: void Initialize() { if (System::Threading::Thread::CurrentThread->GetApartmentState() != System::Threading::ApartmentState::STA) { throw gcnew InvalidOperationException("UI thread required"); } //create the recognition engine sre = gcnew SpeechRecognitionEngine(); //set our recognition engine to use the default audio device sre->SetInputToDefaultAudioDevice(); //create a new GrammarBuilder to specify which commands we want to use GrammarBuilder^ grammarBuilder = gcnew GrammarBuilder(); //append all the choices we want for commands. //we want to be able to move, stop, quit the game, and check for the cake. grammarBuilder->Append(gcnew Choices("play", "stop")); //create the Grammar from th GrammarBuilder Grammar^ customGrammar = gcnew Grammar(grammarBuilder); //unload any grammars from the recognition engine sre->UnloadAllGrammars(); //load our new Grammar sre->LoadGrammar(customGrammar); //add an event handler so we get events whenever the engine recognizes spoken commands sre->SpeechRecognized += gcnew EventHandler<SpeechRecognizedEventArgs^> (this, &Dialog::sre_SpeechRecognized); //set the recognition engine to keep running after recognizing a command. //if we had used RecognizeMode.Single, the engine would quite listening after //the first recognized command. sre->RecognizeAsync(RecognizeMode::Multiple); //this->init(); } void sre_SpeechRecognized(Object^ sender, SpeechRecognizedEventArgs^ e) { //simple check to see what the result of the recognition was if (e->Result->Text == "play") { MessageBox(plugin.hwndParent, L"play", 0, 0); } if (e->Result->Text == "stop") { MessageBox(plugin.hwndParent, L"stop", 0, 0); } } };

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  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

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  • How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

    - by Nils-Petter Nilsen
    I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

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  • Send HTTPService Request in flex 3 with '-' in the URl Paramerters to get Google Feeds

    - by Goysar
    I am developing application in flex 3 which interacts with the Google feeds to produce my results. The URL to which i want to send request is something like this http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes?q=football+-soccer&start-index=11&max-results=10 Now i can send and receive results with q parameter, but in the next two parameters has a '-' (start-index and max-results). I am using HTTPService to send the requeset like this. SearchService.url = "http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes"; SearchService.method = "GET"; SearchService.contentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Here SearchService is the HTTPService var params:Object = new Object(); params.q = searchText; params.start-index = 11; params.max-results = 100; service.SearchService.send(params); Now my flex IDE throws me a error stating 'Cannot assign a non-reference value'. Only if i send the request with this parameters, i could put pagination in my application. So how can i send HTTPService request with '-' in the URL parameters?

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  • Qt and variadic functions

    - by Noah Roberts
    OK, before lecturing me on the use of C-style variadic functions in C++...everything else has turned out to require nothing short of rewriting the Qt MOC. What I'd like to know is whether or not you can have a "slot" in a Qt object that takes an arbitrary amount/type of arguments. The thing is that I really want to be able to generate Qt objects that have slots of an arbitrary signature. Since the MOC is incompatible with standard preprocessing and with templates, it's not possible to do so with either direct approach. I just came up with another idea: struct funky_base : QObject { Q_OBJECT funky_base(QObject * o = 0); public slots: virtual void the_slot(...) = 0; }; If this is possible then, because you can make a template that is a subclass of a QObject derived object so long as you don't declare new Qt stuff in it, I should be able to implement a derived templated type that takes the ... stuff and turns it into the appropriate, expected types. If it is, how would I connect to it? Would this work? connect(x, SIGNAL(someSignal(int)), y, SLOT(the_slot(...))); If nobody's tried anything this insane and doesn't know off hand, yes I'll eventually try it myself...but I am hoping someone already has existing knowledge I can tap before possibly wasting my time on it.

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  • iPhone Core Data does not refresh table

    - by Brian515
    Hi all, I'm trying to write an application with Core Data, and I have been able to successfully read and write to the core data database. However, if I write to the database in one view controller, my other view controllers will not see the change until the app is closed then reopened again. This is really frustrating. I'm not entirely sure how to get the refresh - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag method to work. How do I get a reference to my managed object? Anyways, here's the code I'm using to read the data back. This is in the viewDidLoad method. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Website" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"siteName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if(mutableFetchResults == nil) { //Handle the error } [self setNewsTitlesArray:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; [newsSourcesTableView reloadData]; Thanks for help in advance!

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  • how to reapply knockout binding

    - by MikeW
    Currently I have a knockout binding that stripes rows in a list which works fine ko.bindingHandlers.stripe = { update: function (element, valueAccessor, allBindingsAccessor) { var value = ko.utils.unwrapObservable(valueAccessor()); //creates the dependency var allBindings = allBindingsAccessor(); var even = allBindings.evenClass; var odd = allBindings.oddClass; //update odd rows $(element).children(":nth-child(odd)").addClass(odd).removeClass(even); //update even rows $(element).children(":nth-child(even)").addClass(even).removeClass(odd); ; } } Triggered from <button data-bind="click: addWidget" style="display:none">Add Item</button> The problem I have is when reloading data from the server , I call addWidget() manually in the view model the stripe binding handler is not applied - all rows appear as same color, if I click the html button then the binding happens and stripes appear var ViewModel = function() { self.addWidget(); }); Is it possible to reapply this custom binding manually in js? Thanks Edit: The stripe binding gets applied like so <div data-bind="foreach: widgets, stripe: widgets, evenClass: 'light', oddClass: 'dark'">

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  • Thread safe lazy contruction of a singleton in C++

    - by pauldoo
    Is there a way to implement a singleton object in C++ that is: Lazily constructed in a thread safe manner (two threads might simultaneously be the first user of the singleton - it should still only be constructed once). Doesn't rely on static variables being constructed beforehand (so the singleton object is itself safe to use during the construction of static variables). (I don't know my C++ well enough, but is it the case that integral and constant static variables are initialized before any code is executed (ie, even before static constructors are executed - their values may already be "initialized" in the program image)? If so - perhaps this can be exploited to implement a singleton mutex - which can in turn be used to guard the creation of the real singleton..) Excellent, it seems that I have a couple of good answers now (shame I can't mark 2 or 3 as being the answer). There appears to be two broad solutions: Use static initialisation (as opposed to dynamic initialisation) of a POD static varible, and implementing my own mutex with that using the builtin atomic instructions. This was the type of solution I was hinting at in my question, and I believe I knew already. Use some other library function like pthread_once or boost::call_once. These I certainly didn't know about - and am very grateful for the answers posted.

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