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• Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

  - by Ophidian

  I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

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• transfer database from local machine to hosting server

  - by c11ada

  hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

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• Why overload true and false instead of defining bool operator?

  - by Joe Enos

  I've been reading about overloading true and false in C#, and I think I understand the basic difference between this and defining a bool operator. The example I see around is something like: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA <= 0); } To me, this is the same as saying: public static implicit operator bool(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } The difference, as far as I can tell, is that by defining true and false separately, you can have an object that is both true and false, or neither true nor false: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return true; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return true; } //or public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return false; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return false; } I'm sure there's a reason this is allowed, but I just can't think of what it is. To me, if you want an object to be able to be converted to true or false, a single bool operator makes the most sense. Can anyone give me a scenario where it makes sense to do it the other way? Thanks

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• Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

  - by Arvind Singh

  Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

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• How do I assert that two arbitrary type objects are equivalent, without requiring them to be equal?

  - by Tomas Lycken

  To accomplish this (but failing to do so) I'm reflecting over properties of an expected and actual object and making sure their values are equal. This works as expected as long as their properties are single objects, i.e. not lists, arrays, IEnumerable... If the property is a list of some sort, the test fails (on the Assert.AreEqual(...) inside the for loop). public void WithCorrectModel<TModelType>(TModelType expected, string error = "") where TModelType : class { var actual = _result.ViewData.Model as TModelType; Assert.IsNotNull(actual, error); Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actual, typeof(TModelType), error); foreach (var prop in typeof(TModelType).GetProperties()) { Assert.AreEqual(prop.GetValue(expected, null), prop.GetValue(actual, null), error); } } If dealing with a list property, I would get the expected results if I instead used CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...) but that requires me to cast to ICollection, which in turn requries me to know the type listed, which I don't (want to). It also requires me to know which properties are list types, which I don't know how to. So, how should I assert that two objects of an arbitrary type are equivalent? Note: I specifically don't want to require them to be equal, since one comes from my tested object and one is built in my test class to have something to compare with.

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• Java: Implement own message queue (threadsafe)

  - by derMax

  The task is to implement my own messagequeue that is thread safe. My approach: public class MessageQueue { /** * Number of strings (messages) that can be stored in the queue. */ private int capacity; /** * The queue itself, all incoming messages are stored in here. */ private Vector<String> queue = new Vector<String>(capacity); /** * Constructor, initializes the queue. * * @param capacity The number of messages allowed in the queue. */ public MessageQueue(int capacity) { this.capacity = capacity; } /** * Adds a new message to the queue. If the queue is full, it waits until a message is released. * * @param message */ public synchronized void send(String message) { //TODO check } /** * Receives a new message and removes it from the queue. * * @return */ public synchronized String receive() { //TODO check return "0"; } } If the queue is empty and I call remove(), I want to call wait() so that another thread can use the send() method. Respectively, I have to call notifyAll() after every iteration. Question: Is that possible? I mean does it work that when I say wait() in one method of an object, that I can then execute another method of the same object? And another question: Does that seem to be clever?

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• How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

  - by Gnee

  I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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• NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

  - by Joe

  The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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• Send HTTPService Request in flex 3 with '-' in the URl Paramerters to get Google Feeds

  - by Goysar

  I am developing application in flex 3 which interacts with the Google feeds to produce my results. The URL to which i want to send request is something like this http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes?q=football+-soccer&start-index=11&max-results=10 Now i can send and receive results with q parameter, but in the next two parameters has a '-' (start-index and max-results). I am using HTTPService to send the requeset like this. SearchService.url = "http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes"; SearchService.method = "GET"; SearchService.contentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Here SearchService is the HTTPService var params:Object = new Object(); params.q = searchText; params.start-index = 11; params.max-results = 100; service.SearchService.send(params); Now my flex IDE throws me a error stating 'Cannot assign a non-reference value'. Only if i send the request with this parameters, i could put pagination in my application. So how can i send HTTPService request with '-' in the URL parameters?

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• How to manage multiple python versions ?

  - by Gyom

  short version: how can I get rid of the multiple-versions-of-python nightmare ? long version: over the years, I've used several versions of python, and what is worse, several extensions to python (e.g. pygame, pylab, wxPython...). Each time it was on a different setup, with different OSes, sometimes different architectures (like my old PowerPC mac). Nowadays I'm using a mac (OSX 10.6 on x86-64) and it's a dependency nightmare each time I want to revive script older than a few months. Python itself already comes in three different flavours in /usr/bin (2.5, 2.6, 3.1), but I had to install 2.4 from macports for pygame, something else (cannot remember what) forced me to install all three others from macports as well, so at the end of the day I'm the happy owner of seven (!) instances of python on my system. But that's not the problem, the problem is, none of them has the right (i.e. same set of) libraries installed, some of them are 32bits, some 64bits, and now I'm pretty much lost. For example right now I'm trying to run a three-year-old script (not written by me) which used to use matplotlib/numpy to draw a real-time plot within a rectangle of a wxwidgets window. But I'm failing miserably: py26-wxpython from macports won't install, stock python has wxwidgets included but also has some conflict between 32 bits and 64 bits, and it doesn't have numpy... what a mess ! Obviously, I'm doing things the wrong way. How do you usally cope with all that chaos ?e

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• What is the best way in assigning foreign key when using entity framework & LINQ to Entities?

  - by Abdel Olakara

  Hi all, I need to know the best practice of creating an entity object and assigning the foreign key. Here is my scenario. I have a Product table with pid,name,unit_price etc.. I also have a Rating table with pid (foregin key),rate,votes etc... Currently i am doing the following to create the rating object: var prod = entities.Product.First(p => p.product_id == pid); prod.Rating.Load(); if (prod.Rating != null) { log.Info("Rating already exists!"); // set values and Calcuate the score } else { log.Info("New Rating!!!"); Rating rating = new Rating(); // set values and do inital calculation prod.Rating = rating; } entities.SaveChanges(); Even though this works fine, i would like to know the best practice in doing these kind of assignment. Thanks for your suggestions and info. Best Regards, Abdel Olakara

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• SWT - Table Row - Changing font color

  - by jkteater

  Is it possible to change the font color for a row based on a value in one of the columns? My table has a column that displays a status. The value of the column is going to either be Failed or Success. If it is Success I would like for that rows font be green. If the status equals Failed, I want that rows font be red. Is this possible, if so where would I put the logic. EDIT Here is my Table Viewer code, I am not going to show all the columns, just a couple private void createColumns() { String[] titles = { "ItemId", "RevId", "PRL", "Dataset Name", "Printer/Profile" , "Success/Fail" }; int[] bounds = { 100, 75, 75, 150, 200, 100 }; TableViewerColumn col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[0], bounds[0], 0); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getItemId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[1], bounds[1], 1); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getRevId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); --ETC

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• Display subclass data in XCode Expression window

  - by Nick VanderPyle

  I'm debugging an iPhone application I've written using XCode 3.2 and I cannot view the relevant public properties of an object I pull from Core Data. When I watch the object in the Expressions window it only displays the data from the base NSManagedObject. I'd like to see the properties that are on the subclass, not the superclass. If it helps, here's some of the code I'm using. Settings is a subclass of NSManagedObject. I created it using XCode's built-in modeler. Declared like: @interface Settings : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasNews; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * logoUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasPaymentGateway; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * customerCode; ... In the interface of my controller I have: Settings *settings; I populate settings with: settings = (Settings *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Settings" inManagedObjectContext:UIAppManagedObjectContext()]; I then set the properties like: settings.hasNews = [NSNumber numberWithBool:TRUE]; I've tried casting settings as (Settings *) in the Expression window but that doesn't help. All I see are the properties to NSManagedObject. I'm using NSLog but would rather not.

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• How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

  - by Etienne

  In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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• wpf dispatcher/threading issue

  - by phm

  Hello I have a problem in my code and I am not able to fix it at all. private static void SetupImages(object o) { int i = (int)o; BitmapImage bi = GetBitmapObject(i); img = new System.Windows.Controls.Image();//declared as static outside img.Source = bi;//crash here img.Stretch = Stretch.Uniform; img.Margin = new Thickness(5, 5, 5, 5); } which is called like this: for (int i = 0; i < parameters.ListBitmaps.Count; i++) { ParameterizedThreadStart ts = new ParameterizedThreadStart(SetupImages); Thread t = new Thread(ts); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Start(i); t.Join(); //SetupImages(i); parameters.ListImageControls.Add(img); } It always crashes on this line: img.Source = bi; The error is: "An unhandled exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in WindowsBase.dll Additional information: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." Thanks

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• What are the options for overriding Django's cascading delete behaviour?

  - by Tom

  Django models generally handle the ON DELETE CASCADE behaviour quite adequately (in a way that works on databases that don't support it natively.) However, I'm struggling to discover what is the best way to override this behaviour where it is not appropriate, in the following scenarios for example: ON DELETE RESTRICT (i.e. prevent deleting an object if it has child records) ON DELETE SET NULL (i.e. don't delete a child record, but set it's parent key to NULL instead to break the relationship) Update other related data when a record is deleted (e.g. deleting an uploaded image file) The following are the potential ways to achieve these that I am aware of: Override the model's delete() method. While this sort of works, it is sidestepped when the records are deleted via a QuerySet. Also, every model's delete() must be overridden to make sure Django's code is never called and super() can't be called as it may use a QuerySet to delete child objects. Use signals. This seems to be ideal as they are called when directly deleting the model or deleting via a QuerySet. However, there is no possibility to prevent a child object from being deleted so it is not usable to implement ON CASCADE RESTRICT or SET NULL. Use a database engine that handles this properly (what does Django do in this case?) Wait until Django supports it (and live with bugs until then...) It seems like the first option is the only viable one, but it's ugly, throws the baby out with the bath water, and risks missing something when a new model/relation is added. Am I missing something? Any recommendations?

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• .net user control event handler lost on postback

  - by user154008

  I have a menu usercontrol called LeftMenu that has a bulletedlist of linkitems. It's on the ascx page as such: <asp:BulletedList ID="PublisherList" DisplayMode="LinkButton" OnClick="PublisherList_Click" cssClass="Menu" runat="server"></asp:BulletedList> I databind the list in the page_load under if(!isPostBack) I'm having an issue on a page that loads the control. When the page first loads, the event handler fires. However, when the page posts back it no longer fires and in IE8, when I'm debugging, I get "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" in Visual Studio pointing at "doPostBack('LeftMenu$PublisherList','0')." In FF I don't get the error, but nothing happens. I'm **not loading the control dynamically, it's loaded on the aspx page using: <%@ Register TagPrefix="Standards" TagName="LeftMenu" Src="LeftMenu.ascx" %> <Standards:LeftMenu ID="LeftMenu" runat="server"/> Any ideas of where I'm losing the event handler? I just realized this is happening on another user control I have as well. A text box and a button and I'm using the default button to make sure pressing the enter key uses that button. .Net converts that in the html to: <div id="SearchBarInclude_SearchBar" onkeypress="javascript:return WebForm_FireDefaultButton(event, 'SearchBarInclude_QuickSearchButton')"> so as soon as i enter a key in the box I get a javascript error at the line saying "object expected." It seems like the two issues are related. Edit Again: I think I need to clarify. It's not that I'm clicking on the menu item and it can't find the selected item on postback. I have this search page with the left navigation on it and then the main content of the page is something that causes a postback. Everything is fine with this postback. Once that page has been posted back, now if I click on the bulleted list in the left navigation I get a javascript error and it fails. The page_init for the LeftMenu control is never called.

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• When to Store Temporary Values in Hidden Field vs. Session vs. Database?

  - by viatropos

  I am trying to build a simple OpenID login panel similar to how Stack Overflow's works. The goal is: User clicks OpenID/Oauth provider OpenID/Oauth stuff happens, we end up with the result (already made that) Then we want to confirm that the user wants to actually create a new account (vs. associating account with another OpenID account). In StackOverflow, they keep a hidden field on a form that looks like this: <form action="/users/openidconfirm" method="post"> <p>This is an OpenID we haven't seen on Stack Overflow before:</p> <p class="openid-identifier">https://me.yahoo.com/a/some-hash</p> <p>Do you want to associate this OpenID with your Stack Overflow account?</p> <div> <input type="hidden" name="fkey" value="9792ab2zza1q2a4ac414casdfa137eafba7"> <input type="hidden" name="s" value="c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218"> <input type="submit" value="Associate OpenID"> <input type="button" value="Cancel" onclick="window.location.href = 'http://stackoverflow.com/users/169992/viatropos?s=c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218'"> </div> </form> Initial question is, what are those hashes fkey and s? Not that I really care what these specific hashes are, but what it seems like is happening is they have processed the openid response and saved it to the DB in a temporary object or something, and from there they generate these keys, because they don't look like Oauth keys to me. Main situation is: after I have processed OpenID/Oauth responses, I don't yet want to create a new user/account until the user submits the "confirm" form. Should I store the keys and tokens temporarily in a "Confirm" form like this? Or is there a better way? It seems that using a temp database object would be a lot of work to manage properly. Thanks for the help. Lance

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• asp.net ajax + http module fails

  - by Sri Kumar

  Hi, I am trying my hands on asp.net+ajax+httpmodule. My Form <form id="LoginForm" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="LoginScriptMgr" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="LoginPanel" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginHeader" Text="Login" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtUserName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPassword" runat="server" TextMode="Password"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnLogin" Text="Login" runat="server" OnClick="Login" /> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginStatus" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> C# Code protected void Login(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblLoginStatus.Text = "Login Successful"; } Web.config <httpModules> <add name="TimeModule" type="MyWebPortal.App_Code.TimeModule,App_Code"/> </httpModules> HTTP Module public class TimeModule : IHttpModule { private HttpApplication oApps = null; public void Dispose() { } public void Init(System.Web.HttpApplication context) { oApps = context; context.PreSendRequestContent += new EventHandler (context_PreSendRequestContent); } void context_PreSendRequestContent(object sender, EventArgs e) { string message = "&lt;!-- This page is being processed at " + System.DateTime.Now.ToString() + " -->"; oApps.Context.Response.Output.Write(message); } } When i remove the TimeModule from Web.config my ajax works. If add the TimeModule then the label doesn't show the message "Login Successful". Removing the ajax panel and with httpmodule available the label shows the message. So, how ajax panel was related to httpmodules?

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• What is the best way to use Guice and JMock together?

  - by Yishai

  I have started using Guice to do some dependency injection on a project, primarily because I need to inject mocks (using JMock currently) a layer away from the unit test, which makes manual injection very awkward. My question is what is the best approach for introducing a mock? What I currently have is to make a new module in the unit test that satisfies the dependencies and bind them with a provider that looks like this: public class JMockProvider<T> implements Provider<T> { private T mock; public JMockProvider(T mock) { this.mock = mock; } public T get() { return mock; } } Passing the mock in the constructor, so a JMock setup might look like this: final CommunicationQueue queue = context.mock(CommunicationQueue.class); final TransactionRollBack trans = context.mock(TransactionRollBack.class); Injector injector = Guice.createInjector(new AbstractModule() { @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommunicationQueue.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<QuickBooksCommunicationQueue>(queue)); bind(TransactionRollBack.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<TransactionRollBack>(trans)); } }); context.checking(new Expectations() {{ oneOf(queue).retrieve(with(any(int.class))); will(returnValue(null)); never(trans); }}); injector.getInstance(RunResponse.class).processResponseImpl(-1); Is there a better way? I know that AtUnit attempts to address this problem, although I'm missing how it auto-magically injects a mock that was created locally like the above, but I'm looking for either a compelling reason why AtUnit is the right answer here (other than its ability to change DI and mocking frameworks around without changing tests) or if there is a better solution to doing it by hand.

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• Unable to upgrade PEAR from 1.9.2 to 1.9.4

  - by user940768

  I am on a Ubuntu 11.10 and trying to upgrade from 1.9.2 to 1.9.4, but it simply don't work. Here are the commands I am following in sequence $ sudo apt-get install php-pear Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done php-pear is already the newest version. The following packages were automatically installed and are no longer required: linux-headers-3.0.0-14-generic-pae libaccess-bridge-java-jni libaccess-bridge-java Use 'apt-get autoremove' to remove them. 0 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 6 not upgraded. $ sudo pear channel-update pear.php.net Updating channel "pear.php.net" Channel "pear.php.net" is up to date $ sudo pear upgrade-all Nothing to upgrade-all $ sudo pear install –alldeps pear.phpunit.de/PHPUnit parsePackageName(): invalid package name "–alldeps" in "–alldeps" invalid package name/package file "–alldeps" Did not download optional dependencies: phpunit/PHP_Invoker, use --alldeps to download automatically phpunit/PHPUnit requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHPUnit can optionally use package "phpunit/PHP_Invoker" (version >= 1.1.0) phpunit/Text_Template requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHP_CodeCoverage requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHP_CodeCoverage requires package "phpunit/Text_Template" (version >= 1.1.1) phpunit/PHP_CodeCoverage can optionally use PHP extension "xdebug" (version >= 2.0.5) phpunit/PHPUnit_MockObject requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHPUnit_MockObject requires package "phpunit/Text_Template" (version >= 1.1.1) phpunit/PHP_TokenStream requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 No valid packages found install failed Any thoughts?

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• Loading Native library to external Package in Eclipse not working. is it a Bug?

  - by TacB0sS

  I was about to report a but to Eclipse, but I was thinking to give this a chance here first: If I add an external package, the application cannot find the referenced native library, except in the case specified at the below: If my workspace consists of a single project, and I import an external package 'EX_package.jar' from a folder outside of the project folder, I can assign a folder to the native library location via: mouse over package - right click - properties - Native Library - Enter your folder. This does not work. In runtime the application does not load the library, System.mapLibraryName(Path) also does not work. Further more, if I create a User Library, and add the package to it and define a folder for the native library it still does not. If it works for you then I have a major bug since it does not work on my computer I test this in any combination I could think of, including adding the path to the windows PATH parameter, and so many other ways I can't even start to remember, nothing worked, I played with this for hours and had a colleague try to assist me, but we both came up empty. Further more, if I have a main project that is dependent on few other projects in my workspace, and they all need to use the same 'EX_package.jar' I MUST supply a HARD COPY INTO EACH OF THEM, it will ONLY (I can't stress the ONLYNESS, I got freaked out by this) work if I have a hard copy of the package in ALL of the project folders that the main project has a dependency on, and ONLY if I configure the Native path in each of them!! This also didn't do the trick. please tell me there is a solution to this, this drives me nuts... Thanks, Adam Zehavi.

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• Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

  - by Thomas Herrmann

  I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

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• sort outer array based on values in inner array, javascript

  - by ptrn

  I have an array with arrays in it, where I want to sort the outer arrays based on values in a specific column in the inner. I bet that sounded more than a bit confusing, so I'll skip straight to an example. Initial data: var data = [ [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 1 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(1); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 2 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(2); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ] ]; The big Q Is there an existing solution to this that you know of, or would I have to write one myself? If so, which would be the easiest sort algorithm to use? QuickSort? _L

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• Struts 2 how to display messages saved in a Interceptor which would redirec to another action?

  - by mui13

  in my interceptor, if user doesn't have enough right, there would be a warn message: public String intercept(ActionInvocation invocation) throws Exception { ActionContext actionContext = invocation.getInvocationContext(); Map<String, Object> sessionMap = actionContext.getSession(); User loginUser = (User) sessionMap.get("user"); Object action = invocation.getAction(); if (loginUser != null && loginUser.getRole().getId() != Constant.AUTHORITY_ADMIN) { ((ValidationAware) action).addFieldError("user.authority", ((DefaultAction) action).getText("user.action.authority.not.enough")); return DefaultAction.HOME_PAGE; } return invocation.invoke(); } then, it would redirect to "HOME_PAGE" action, if success, display information in the jsp. So how to display the warn message? i have used two interceptors configed in strust.xml, for admin right requirment: <interceptor-stack name="authorityStack"> <interceptor-ref name="authority" /> <interceptor-ref name="defaultStack" /> <interceptor-ref name="store"> <param name="operationMode">STORE</param> </interceptor-ref> </interceptor-stack> default is: <interceptor-stack name="default"> <interceptor-ref name="login" /> <interceptor-ref name="defaultStack" /> <interceptor-ref name="store"> <param name="operationMode">AUTOMATIC</param> </interceptor-ref> </interceptor-stack>

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