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  • Django tests failing on invalid keyword argument

    - by Darwin Tech
    I have a models.py like so: from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from datetime import datetime class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User) def __unicode__(self): return self.user.username class Project(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) product = models.ForeignKey('tool.product') module = models.ForeignKey('tool.module') model = models.ForeignKey('tool.model') zipcode = models.IntegerField(max_length=5) def __unicode__(self): return unicode(self.id) And my tests.py: from django.test import TestCase, Client # --- import app models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from tool.models import Module, Model, Product from user_profile.models import Project, UserProfile # --- unit tests --- # class UserProjectTests(TestCase): fixtures = ['admin_user.json'] def setUp(self): self.product1 = Product.objects.create( name='bar', ) self.module1 = Module.objects.create( name='foo', enable=True ) self.model1 = Model.objects.create( module=self.module1, name='baz', enable=True ) self.user1 = User.objects.get(pk=1) ... def test_can_create_project(self): self.project1 = Model.objects.create( user=self.user1, product=self.product1, module=self.module1, model=self.model1, zipcode=90210 ) self.assertEquals(self.project1.zipcode, 90210) But I get a TypeError: 'product' is an invalid keyword argument for this function error. I'm not sure what is failing but I'm guessing something to do with the FK relationships... Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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  • Why do people say that Ruby is slow?

    - by stephen murdoch
    I like Ruby on Rails and I use it for all my web development projects. A few years ago there was a lot of talk about Rails being a memory hog and about how it didn't scale very well but these suggestions were put to bed by Gregg Pollack here. Lately though, I've been hearing people saying that Ruby itself is slow. Why is Ruby considered slow? I do not find Ruby to be slow but then again, I'm just using it to make simple CRUD apps and company blogs. What sort of projects would I need to be doing before I find Ruby becoming slow? Or is this slowness just something that affects all programming languages? What are your options as a Ruby programmer if you want to deal with this "slowness"? Which version of Ruby would best suit an application like Stack Overflow where speed is critical and traffic is intense? The questions are subjective, and I realise that architectural setup (EC2 vs standalone servers etc) makes a big difference but I'd like to hear what people think about Ruby being slow. Finally, I can't find much news on Ruby 2.0 - I take it we're a good few years away from that then?

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  • Problem with RVM and gem that has an executable

    - by djhworld
    Hi there, I've recently made the plunge to use RVM on Ubuntu. Everything seems to have gone swimmingly...except for one thing. I'm in the process of developing a gem of mine that has a script placed within its own bin/ directory, all of the gemspec and things were generated by Jeweler. The bin/mygem file contains the following code: - #!/usr/bin/env ruby begin require 'mygem' rescue LoadError require 'rubygems' require 'mygem' end app = MyGem::Application.new app.run That was working fine on the system version of Ruby. Now...recently I've moved to RVM to manage my ruby versions a bit better, except now my gem doesn't appear to be working. Firstly I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 Then I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 gem install mygem Which installs fine, except...when I try to run the command for mygem mygem I just get the following exception: - daniel@daniel-VirtualBox:~$ mygem <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- mygem (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/mygem-0.1.4/bin/mygem:2:in `<top (required)>' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `load' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `<main>'mygem NOTE: I have a similar RVM setup on MAC OSX and my gem works fine there so I think this might be something to do with Ubuntu?

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  • Programmatically open an email from a POP3 and extract an attachment

    - by Josh
    We have a vendor that sends CSV files as email attachments. These CSV files contain statuses that are imported into our application. I'm trying to automate the process end-to-end, but it currently depends on someone opening an email, saving the attachment to a server share, so the application can use the file. Since I cannot convince the vendor to change their process, such as offering an FTP location or a Web Service, I'm stuck with trying to automate the existing process. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically open an email from a POP3 account and extract an attachment? The preferred solution would reside on a Windows 2003 server, be written VB.NET and secure. The application can reside on the same server as the POP3 server, for example, we could setup the free POP3 server that comes with Windows Server and pull against the mail file stored on the file system. BTW, we are willing to pay for an off-the-shelf solution, if one exists. Note: I did look at this question but the answer points to a CodeProject solution that doesn't deal with attachments.

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  • How to mock the Request.ServerVariables using MOQ for ASP.NET MVC?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm just learning to put in unit testing for my asp.net mvc when i came to learn about the mock and the different frameworks there is out there now. after checking SO, i found that MOQ seems to be the easiest to pick up. as of now i'm stuck trying to mock the Request.ServerVariables, as after reading this post, i've learned that it's better to abstract them into property. as such: /// <summary> /// Return the server port /// </summary> protected string ServerPort { get { return Request.ServerVariables.Get("SERVER_PORT"); } } But i'm having a hard time learning how to properly mock this. I have a home controller ActionResult function which grabs the user server information and proceed to create a form to grab the user's information. i tried to use hanselman's mvcmockhelpers class but i'm not sure how to use it. this is what i have so far... [Test] public void Create_Redirects_To_ProductAdded_On_Success() { FakeViewEngine engine = new FakeViewEngine(); HomeController controller = new HomeController(); controller.ViewEngine = engine; MvcMockHelpers.SetFakeControllerContext(controller); controller.Create(); var results = controller.Create(); var typedResults = results as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["action"], "Wrong action"); Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["controller"], "Wrong controller"); } Questions: As of now i'm still getting null exception error when i'm running the test. So what am i missing here? And if i use the mvcmockhelpers class, how can i still call the request.verifyall function to ensure all the mocking are properly setup?

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  • Mercurial Hg Clone fails on C# project with GUID

    - by AnneTheAgile
    UPDATE: In trying to replicate this problem one more time to answer your questions I could not! I can only conclude that my initial setup of Mercurial was problematic and/or possibly I was trying to checkin a build that failed compilation before the checkin. Sigh! Thank you so very much for your help. I gave credit for the help on how to do a script. I need to try that for general purposes. hi all, I hope you can help me :). I am trying to see if Mercurial would be a good DCVS for my project at work, and I'm surely a newbie to many things. We have a fairly large codebase in C# (Dotnet3.0 not 3.5 , WindowsXP) and it utilizes the GUID feature. I confess to know little about how or why we use the GUID, but I do know that I cannot touch it. So, when I try hg clone, it fails unless I change the GUID in the cloned directory (ie create new GUID in Visual Studio and then paste that new GUID to replace the old one). To me, this completely defeats the purpose and utility of quick easy clones. It also makes difficult all the many workflows that require multiple clones. Is there a workaround, or is there something I'm doing wrong? How can I simplify and/or remove this problem? Would Bazaar make this easier? Thank you!

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  • Moq a function with 5+ parameters and access invocation arguments.

    - by beerncircus
    I have a function I want to Moq. The problem is that it takes 5 parameters. The framework only contains Action<T1,T2,T3,T4> and Moq's generic CallBack() only overloads Action and the four generic versions. Is there an elegant workaround for this? This is what I want to do: public class Filter : IFilter { public int Filter(int i1, int i2, int i3, int i4, int i5){return 0;} } //Moq code: var mocker = new Mock<IFilter>(); mocker.Setup(x => x.Filter( It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>()) .Callback ( (int i1, int i2, int i3, int i4, int i5) => i1 * 2 ); Moq doesn't allow this because there is no generic Action that takes 5+ parameters. I've resorted to making my own stub. Obviously, it would be better to use Moq with all of its verifications, etc.

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  • Properly using Log4r in Ruby Application

    - by Spencer
    I must really be missing something obvious, but I'm having trouble with general use of Log4r in my Ruby application. I am able to log without issue, but the overhead seems clunky the way I have it setup. I'm basically passing the full path to a filename to log in each class in my application. The ruby script that is called pulls the log file from one of the arguments in ARGV which is then passed around and set in each class that I call in ruby. In each class I use the patternFormatter to insert the class/file name into the log statement. Is there a better way to make this work? It feels like no matter what I think of will require something to be passed to each class in my ruby application. I could set the log file in a yaml configuration file instead, but then I would be passing around the configuration file to each class as well. Any advice? If this doesn't make sense I could try and post some more specific code samples to further explain what I mean. Thanks!

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  • Convert ADO.Net EF Connection String To Be SQL Azure Cloud Connection String Compatible!?

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I have written a Silverlight 3 Application that uses an SQL Server database. I'm moving the application onto the Cloud (Azure Platform). In order to do this I have had to setup my database on SQL Azure. I am using the ADO.Net Entity Framework to model my database. I have got the application running on the cloud, but I cannot get it to connect to the database. Below is the original localhost connection string, followed by the SQL Azure connection string that isn't working. The application itself runs fine, but fails when trying to retrieve data. The Original Localhost Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Data Source=localhost; Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith; Integrated Security=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Converted SQL Azure Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Server=tcp:MYSERVER.ctp.database.windows.net; Database=InmarsatZenith; UserID=MYUSERID;Password=MYPASSWORD; Trusted_Connection=False; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Question Anyone know if this connection string for SQL Azure is correct? Help greatly appreciated.

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  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

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  • Table borders don't display properly when converted from HTML page into MS Word 2003

    - by Daria
    Hello everyone, I've got a bit of a complicated set up. I specialise in XSLT which I write for 3rd party system. All CSS looks fine in the browser. Now that system provides a button that converts my generated HTML into MS Word 2003. However, table borders don't convert as they appear in a Browser. There are lots of tables and they have different borders setup. For example there is one that uses only outside border and no borders inside it. When converting to MS Word, a table appears with ALL the borders in between cells. Which I don't want. I've tried search the Internet, but didn't come across anything useful. Maybe there are tips or tricks on how to set up tables borders so it's understood properly by MS Word. The third party said the following: "The system just passes the HTML created through the converter it finds in the installed version of Word". I would really appreciate any tips and help! Dasha

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  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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  • MySQL-python 1.2.3 and OS X 10.5: 64- or 32-bit?

    - by Dave Everitt
    I've been happily using Django and MySQL in development on an existing machine running OS X 10.4 Tiger, and have set up a similar environment in 10.5 Leopard on a new 64-bit MacBook, with a working MySQL and Python 2.6.4. However, now I want them to communicate, easy_install MySQL-python gave ld warnings that the file is not of the required architecture, which led me to test my Python 2.4.6 install (from the Mac OS X disc image): >>> import sys >>> sys.maxint 2147483647 Ah. So my Python install appears to be 32-bit and (I think?) won't install MySQL-python for my 64-bit MySQL. There are lots of hacks out there for MySQL-python on OS X (mostly 1.2.2), but - after hours of reading - I'm pretty sure they won't fix this architecture mismatch. So I'm stuck because I can't decide whether to: give up, remove the 64-bit MySQL install (thorough methods, please?) and use the 32-bit MySQL disc image instead; re-install Python in 64-bit mode from the tarball, --with-universal archs-64-bit and --enable-universalsdk= as detailed in Python.org's 2.6 news. So my questions for anyone who has encountered this issue are: Is installing 64-bit Python on OS X 10.5 worth bothering with? If so, (naive, lazy question!) how are the two required arguments combined? If I just skip along in 32-bit (as on my working setup) what am I missing? I'm after a hassle-free install that's easy to reproduce on other machines (possible student use) so I'd really welcome your opinions, please!

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  • virtualenv macosX --no-site-package ignored

    - by Tristram Gräbener
    Hello, I'm having problems with macOSX and virtualenv. It seems to ignore --no-site-package. Using exactly the same commands with linux (archlinux) it works. It it macOSX 10.5 with python 2.5 curl -o virtualenv.py 'http://bitbucket.org/ianb/virtualenv/raw/tip/virtualenv.py Create a new environment python virtualenv.py --no-site-packages foo New python executable in foo/bin/python Installing setuptools...........................done. Activate it source foo/bin/activate Try to install something in it. Despite virtualenv it looks for the system-wide install easy_install cherrypy Searching for cherrypy Best match: CherryPy 3.1.2 Adding CherryPy 3.1.2 to easy-install.pth file Using /Library/Python/2.5/site-packages Processing dependencies for cherrypy Finished processing dependencies for cherrypy Yet it doesn't find the module (foo)guidage-multimodal:~ tristram$ python Python 2.5.1 (r251:54863, Feb 6 2009, 19:02:12) [GCC 4.0.1 (Apple Inc. build 5465)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import cherrypy Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named cherrypy I tried PIP after looking at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1382925/virtualenv-no-site-packages-and-pip-still-finding-global-packages However it fails installing psycopg2 (some problems with gcc). Also I would like to be able to have a setup.py (from distribute) that does the whole woork

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  • Display an Android Sensors List

    - by Skatephone
    I'm trying to display a list of available sensors but it's like there are not! I was thinking that it was because of the emulator, but i tried it on the phone and the result is the same. private SensorManager mSensorManager; TextView mSensorsTot,mSensorAvailables; ...... public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // Get the texts fields of the layout and setup to invisible mSensorsTot = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.sensoritot); mSensorAvailables = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.sensoridisponibili); // Get the SensorManager mSensorManager= (SensorManager) getSystemService(SENSOR_SERVICE); // List of Sensors Available List<Sensor> msensorList = mSensorManager.getSensorList(SensorManager.SENSOR_ALL); // Print how may Sensors are there mSensorsTot.setText(msensorList.size()+" "+this.getString(R.string.sensors)+"!"); // Print each Sensor available using sSensList as the String to be printed String sSensList = new String(""); Sensor tmp; int x,i; for (i=0;i<msensorList.size();i++){ tmp = msensorList.get(i); sSensList = " "+sSensList+tmp.getName(); // Add the sensor name to the string of sensors available } // if there are sensors available show the list if (i>0){ sSensList = getString(R.string.sensors)+":"+sSensList; mSensorAvailables.setText(sSensList); } } Thank's Valerio From Italy :)

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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • OpenGL behaving strangely

    - by Mk12
    OpenGL is acting very strangely for some reason. In my subclass of NSOpenGLView, I have the following code in -prepareOpenGL: - (void)prepareOpenGL { GLfloat lightAmbient[] = { 0.5f, 0.5f, 0.5f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightDiffuse[] = { 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightPosition[] = { 0.0f, 0.0f, 2.0f }; quality = 0; zCoord = -6; [self loadTextures]; glEnable(GL_LIGHTING); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glShadeModel(GL_SMOOTH); glClearColor(0.2f, 0.2f, 0.2f, 0.0f); glClearDepth(1.0f); glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glDepthFunc(GL_LEQUAL); glHint(GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL_NICEST); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_AMBIENT, lightAmbient); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_DIFFUSE, lightDiffuse); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_POSITION, lightPosition); glEnable(GL_LIGHT1); gameState = kGameStateRunning; int i = 0; // HERE ******** [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.03f target:self selector:@selector(processKeys) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; // Synchronize buffer swaps with vertical refresh rate GLint swapInt = 1; [[self openGLContext] setValues:&swapInt forParameter:NSOpenGLCPSwapInterval]; // Setup and start displayLink [self setupDisplayLink]; } I wanted to assign the timer that processes key input to an ivar so that I could invalidate it when the game is paused (and reinstantiate it on resume), however when I did that (as apposed to leaving it at [NSTimer scheduledTimer…), OpenGL doesn't display the cube I draw. When I take it away, it's fine. So i tried just adding a harmless statement, int i = 0; (maked // HERE *******), and that makes the lighting not work! When I take it away, everything is fine, but when I put it back, everything is dark. Can someone come up with a rational explanation for this? Thanks.

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • Replace in place, parsing & string manipulation.

    - by Mark Tomlin
    I'm trying to replace a set of characters within a string. The string may or may not have any data to change. The string is marked up in a way that allows for it to change it's color from a set of characters. The string can reset it's it's formatting to default by using a defined set of characters. This setup is very much like the ECMA-48 standard used on LINUX consoles for colors and other special effects. Where one string could be ^0Black^1Red^2Green^3Yellow^4Blue^5Purple^6Cyan^7White Producing the following HTML: <span style="color: #000">Black</span><span style="color: #F00">Red</span><span style="color: #0F0">Green</span><span style="color: #FF0">Yellow</span><span style="color: #00F">Blue</span><span style="color: #F0F">Purple</span><span style="color: #0FF">Cyan</span><span style="color: #FFF">White</span> Another string (^1Error^8: ^3User Error) could also produce: <span style="color: #F00">Error</span>: <span style="color: #FF0">User Error</span> You might of noticed the ^8 part of that string resets the color for that part of the string. What's the best way to go about parsing these kinds of strings?

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  • How to avoid serializing zero values with Simple Xml

    - by Bram Vandenbussche
    I'm trying to serialise an object using simple xml (http://simple.sourceforge.net/). The object setup is pretty simple: @Root(name = "order_history") public class OrderHistory { @Element(name = "id", required = false) public int ID; @Element(name = "id_order_state") public int StateID; @Element(name = "id_order") public int OrderID; } The problem is when I create a new instance of this class without an ID: OrderHistory newhistory = new OrderHistory(); newhistory.OrderID = _orderid; newhistory.StateID = _stateid; and I serialize it via simple xml: StringWriter xml = new StringWriter(); Serializer serializer = new Persister(); serializer.write(newhistory, xml); it still reads 0 in the resulting xml: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <order_history> <id>0</id> <id_order>2</id_order> <id_order_state>8</id_order_state> </order_history> I'm guessing the reason for this is that the ID property is not null, since integers can't be null. But I really need to get rid of this node, and I'd rather not remove it manually. Any clues anyone?

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  • Android animation's first frame is applied too early on ImageView

    - by Robert
    I have the following View setup in one of my Activities: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/photoLayout" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/photoImageView" android:src="@drawable/backyardPhoto" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:scaleType="centerInside" android:padding="45dip" > </ImageView> </LinearLayout> Without an animation set, this displays just fine. However I want to display a very simple animation. So in my Activity's onStart override, I have the following: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); mPhotoImageView = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.photoImageView); float offset = -25; int top = mPhotoImageView.getTop(); TranslateAnimation anim1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset); anim1.setInterpolator(new AnticipateInterpolator()); anim1.setDuration(1500); anim1.setStartOffset(5000); TranslateAnimation anim2 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top); anim2.setInterpolator(new BounceInterpolator()); anim2.setDuration(3500); anim2.setStartOffset(6500); mBouncingAnimation = new AnimationSet(false); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim1); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim2); mPhotoImageView.setAnimation(mBouncingAnimation); } The problem is that when the Activity displays for the first time, the initial position of the photo is not in the center of the screen with padding around. It seems like the first frame of the animation is loaded already. Only after the animation is completed, does the photoImageView "snap" back to the intended location. I've looked and looked and could not find how to avoid this problem. I want the photoImageView to start in the center of the screen, and then the animation to happen, and return it to the center of the screen. The animation should happen by itself without interaction from the user.

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  • [Google Maps] Trouble with invalid argument when switching jQueryUI based tabs

    - by Chad
    Here's a page with the issue To reproduce the error, using IE - click the directions tab, then any of the others. What I'm trying to do is this: On page load, do nothing really. However, when the directions tab loads - setup the map. Like so: $('#tabs').bind('tabsshow', function(event, ui) { if (ui.panel.id == "tabs-5") { // get map for directions var dirMap = new GMap2($("div#dirMap").get(0)); dirMap.setCenter(new GLatLng(35.79648921414565,139.40663874149323), 12); dirMap.enableScrollWheelZoom(); dirMap.addControl(new PanoMapTypeControl()); geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); $("#dirMap").resizable({ stop: function() { dirMap.checkResize(); } }); // clear dirText $("div#dirMapText").html(""); dirMap.clearOverlays(); var polygon = new GPolygon([new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297),new GLatLng(35.74748750802863,139.3363380432129),new GLatLng(35.75765724051559,139.34303283691406),new GLatLng(35.76545779822543,139.3418312072754),new GLatLng(35.767547103447725,139.3476676940918),new GLatLng(35.75835374997911,139.34955596923828),new GLatLng(35.755149755962755,139.3567657470703),new GLatLng(35.74679090345495,139.35796737670898),new GLatLng(35.74762682821177,139.36294555664062),new GLatLng(35.744422402303826,139.36346054077148),new GLatLng(35.74860206266584,139.36946868896484),new GLatLng(35.735644401200986,139.36843872070312),new GLatLng(35.73843117306677,139.36174392700195),new GLatLng(35.73592308277646,139.3531608581543),new GLatLng(35.72686543236113,139.35298919677734),new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297)], "#f33f00", 5, 1, "#ff0000", 0.2);dirMap.addOverlay(polygon); // load directions directions = new GDirections(dirMap, $("div#dirMapText").get(0)); directions.load("from: [email protected],139.37083393335342 to: Ruby [email protected],139.40663874149323"); } }); What the heck is causing the error? The IE javascript debugger claims the error lies in main.js, line 139 character 28. (the google maps api file). Which is this line: function zf(a,b){a=a.style;a.width=b.getWidthString();a.height=b.getHeightString()} Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to move the Windows 7 bootloader to the Windows 7 partition?

    - by pauldoo
    I recently installed Windows 7 in a triple boot setup alongside XP and Linux. When I was finished and was in the process of restoring the bootloader for Linux I discovered something strange about what Windows 7 had done. I discovered that Windows 7 had not installed a bootloader to it's own partition, and instead had instead set up a bootloader on the pre-existing XP partition that offers a choice between 7 and XP. This behaviour has been noticed by others. Now my booting is slightly odd. I have GRUB on the MBR which lets me choose between Linux and Windows. When I select Windows I have Grub boot to the XP partition where I get the 2nd choice between 7 and XP. Why doesn't the Windows 7 installer put the Windows 7 bootloader on the Windows 7 partition like all previous MS OSs? This is now going to be a real problem for me, as I now want to wipe the XP partition and install something else there (probably another non-MS OS). How can I move the bootloader for Windows 7 onto the Windows 7 partition, thus making it bootable and allowing me to safely wipe the XP partition?

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  • Office Automation: What does destroy my encoding?

    - by Filburt
    I'm facing a problem with a Word Mail Merge Automation controlled by our CRM system. The setup Base for the Mail Merge is a Word .dot template which fires a macro on Document.New. Inside this macro I create a .Net component registered for COM. Set myCOMObject = CreateObject("MyCOMObject") The component pulls some data from a database and hands string values which are assigned to Word DocumentVariables. Set someClass = myCOMObject.GetSomeClass(123) ActiveDocument.Variables("docaddress") = someClass.GetSenderAddress(456) All string values returned from the component are encoded in UTF-8 (codepage 1200). What happens The problem arises when the CRM system calls Word to perform the Mail Merge: The string values from the component are turned into UTF-8 encoded strings. All the static text inside the template and the data pulled for the Mail Merge stay nicely encoded in UTF-16 - example the umlaut ü inside my DocumentVariables is turned into c3 b0 while it stays fc for the rest of the document (checked file in hex editor). If I'm creating a document from a template with the same macro functionallity but without performing a Mail Merge all strings are fine; i.e. are encoded in UTF-16. What changed According to the CRM software vendor the encoding of the Mail Merge data export was changed to UTF-16 with the new version we're currently testing. I found out that MS states that you'll expirience issues when the document and the Mail Merge data file encoding don't match. What I tried Since I'm assuming to merge with UTF-16 encoded data I added the following lines to my macro: ActiveDocument.TextEncoding = msoEncodingWestern ActiveDocument.SaveEncoding = msoEncodingUnicodeLittleEndian This is what the Mail Merge data document specifies in its document properties.

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