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  • Why does the JSF action tag handler in JSP invoke rendering immediately after creation?

    - by Pentius
    Dear fellows, I read the article "Improving JSF by Dumping JSP" from Hans Bergsten. There I read the following: The JSP container processes the page and invokes the JSF action tag handlers as they are encountered. A JSF tag handler looks for the JSF component it represents in the component tree. If it can't find the component, it creates it and adds it to the component tree. It then asks the component to render itself. and furthermore On the first request, the action creates its component and asks it to render itself. I understand that the immediate rendering after the creation of the component is the problem here (The reference to the input component can't be resolved in the example). That's one point, why JSF doesn't fit with JSP. But it reads as if the action tag handler itself would ask the component to render. Or is it JSP that triggers the rendering directly after the action tag handler created the component. If it is the action tag handler, I don't understand, why this is the fault of JSP. What is different here than from JSF intended? Thanks for your help, I need this for my thesis.

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  • exit /B 0 does not work

    - by murxx
    I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat -> in there I call: start startServer.bat -> wait 30 seconds -> check is server is started -> exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat -> call scriptA.bat -----> in there I call: start startServer.bat -----> wait 30 seconds -----> check if server is started -----> exit /B 0 -> scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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  • Setting hidden input value in Javascript, then accessing it in codebehind

    - by Siegesmith
    I have been trying to set the value of a hidden input by using Javascript and then access the value from within my C# codebehind. When I run the code that is copied below, the value that is assigned to assignedIDs is "", which I assume is the default value for a hidden input. If I manually set the value in the html tag, then assignedIDs is set to that value. This behavior suggests to me that the value of the input is being reset (re-rendered?) between the onClientClick and onClick events firing. I would appreciate any help with the matter. I have spent hours trying to solve what seems like a very simple problem. html/javascript: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Admin Page - Manage Tasks</title> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function PopulateAssignedIDHiddenInput() { var source = document.getElementById('assignedLinguistListBox'); var s = ""; var count = source.length; for (var i = count - 1; i >= 0; i--) { var item = source.options[i]; if (s == "") { s = source.options[i].value; } else { s = s.concat(",",source.options[i].value); } } document.getElementById('assignedIDHiddenInput').Value = s; // I have confirmed that, at this point, the value of // the hidden input is set properly } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Panel id="EditMode" runat="server"> <table style="border: none;"> <tr> <td> <asp:Label ID="availableLinguistLabel" runat="server" Text="Available"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:ListBox ID="availableLinguistListBox" runat="server" Rows="10" SelectionMode="Multiple"></asp:ListBox> </td> <td> <input type="button" name="right" value="&gt;&gt;" onclick="Javascript:MoveItem('availableLinguistListBox', 'assignedLinguistListBox');" /><br /><br /> <input type="button" name="left" value="&lt;&lt;" onclick="Javascript:MoveItem('assignedLinguistListBox', 'availableLinguistListBox');" /> </td> <td> <asp:Label ID="assignedLinguistLabel" runat="server" Text="Assigned To"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:ListBox ID="assignedLinguistListBox" runat="server" Rows="10" SelectionMode="Multiple"></asp:ListBox> </td> </tr> </table> //-snip- <asp:Button ID="save_task_changes_button" runat="server" ToolTip="Click to save changes to task" Text="Save Changes" OnClick="save_task_changes_button_click" OnClientClick="Javascript:PopulateAssignedIDHiddenInput()" /> </asp:Panel> <!-- Hidden Inputs --> <!-- Note that I have also tried setting runat="server" with no change --> <input id="assignedIDHiddenInput" name="assignedIDHiddenInput" type="hidden" /> </div> </form> </body> c# protected void save_task_changes_button_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string assignedIDs = Request.Form["assignedIDHiddenInput"]; // Here, assignedIDs == ""; also, Request.Params["assignedIDHiddenInput"] == "" // -snip- }

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  • Is there a way to validate the presence of Javadoc and/or inline code comments?

    - by Chris Aldrich
    We are trying to put quality code processes in place for a large project I am working on. Right now a lot of developers are not putting in Javadoc or in-line code comments into their code. Ok right now. But it will severely hurt us in the very near future. We are using Maven 2.0.9 as our build tool, as well as Hudson for Continuous Integration. We are using Subversion as our source versioning tool/code repository, Rational Application Developer and Rational Softare Architect (essentially Eclipse) 7.5.1 as our IDE's, and then Subclipse as our Eclipse plug-in to connect to SVN. Is there a plug-in or a way to validate that a developer put in Javadoc and/or in-line code comments in order to allow a commit to SVN? This isn't intended to be a substitute for good code reviews, but merely a help to make sure that developers are reminded to add this documentation before committing. We are still intending on conducting code reviews that would also review documentation. Has anyone found any plug-ins for something like this? Any links? Any ideas?

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  • Limit CPU usage of a process

    - by jb
    I have a service running which periodically checks a folder for a file and then processes it. (Reads it, extracts the data, stores it in sql) So I ran it on a test box and it took a little longer thaan expected. The file had 1.6 million rows, and it was still running after 6 hours (then I went home). The problem is the box it is running on is now absolutely crippled - remote desktop was timing out so I cant even get on it to stop the process, or attach a debugger to see how far through etc. It's solidly using 90%+ CPU, and all other running services or apps are suffering. The code is (from memory, may not compile): List<ItemDTO> items = new List<ItemDTO>(); using (StreamReader sr = fileInfo.OpenText()) { while (!sr.EndOfFile) { string line = sr.ReadLine() try { string s = line.Substring(0,8); double y = Double.Parse(line.Substring(8,7)); //If the item isnt already in the collection, add it. if (items.Find(delegate(ItemDTO i) { return (i.Item == s); }) == null) items.Add(new ItemDTO(s,y)); } catch { /*Crash*/ } } return items; } - So I am working on improving the code (any tips appreciated). But it still could be a slow affair, which is fine, I've no problems with it taking a long time as long as its not killing my server. So what I want from you fine people is: 1) Is my code hideously un-optimized? 2) Can I limit the amount of CPU my code block may use? Cheers all

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  • Custom UIButton Memory Management in dealloc

    - by ddawber
    I am hoping to clarify the processes going on here. I have created a subclass of UIButton whose init method looks like this: - (id)initWithTitle:(NSString *)title frame:(CGRect)btnFrame { self = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setTitle:title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; self.frame = btnFrame; return self; } In my view controller I am creating one of these buttons and adding it as a subview: myButton = [[CustomButton alloc] initWithTitle:@"Title" frame:someFrame]; [self.view addSubview:myButton]; In the view controller's dealloc method I log the retain count of my button: - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 2 [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 1 } The way I understand it, myButton is not actually retained, even though I invoked it using alloc, because in my subclass I created an autorelease button (using buttonWithType:). In dealloc, does this mean that, when dealloc is called the superview releases the button and its retain count goes down to 1? The button has not yet been autoreleased? Or do I need to get that retain count down to zero after calling [super dealloc]? Cheers.

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  • Phonegap Android application exiting - but not really - when home button is pressed

    - by Lucas T
    I have created an Phonegap 1.5/Android application. My client reports that, when he leaves the app using the Home button, and then relaunches it using the app icon, the app relaunches from the start instead of resuming. However, when he holds the home button, the app appears in the running apps, and when he accesses the app through this menu, the app resumes in the expected way. I thought this could be linked to the app being automatically closed by the OS due to a lack of memory, but if that was the case the app shouldn't appear in the running apps. I could not reproduce the bug on my Sony Ericsson XPERIA with Android 2.3.4, the client has experienced this behaviour on a Motorola Defy and on another phone (i'll add the reference of the other phone and the OS versions as soon as I get them). The initialization process of the app is declared this way : window.addEventListener('load', function(){ document.addEventListener('deviceready', _onDeviceReady, false); }, false); Could this be fixed by attaching the processes to other events (although I doubt it, the app really seems to be relaunched from the start) ? Is there a declaration to make in the Android Manifest to prevent this behavior ? Is that a known bug in some Android phones/versions ?

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  • Function Returning Negative Value

    - by Geowil
    I still have not run it through enough tests however for some reason, using certain non-negative values, this function will sometimes pass back a negative value. I have done a lot of manual testing in calculator with different values but I have yet to have it display this same behavior. I was wondering if someone would take a look at see if I am missing something. float calcPop(int popRand1, int popRand2, int popRand3, float pERand, float pSRand) { return ((((((23000 * popRand1) * popRand2) * pERand) * pSRand) * popRand3) / 8); } The variables are all contain randomly generated values: popRand1: between 1 and 30 popRand2: between 10 and 30 popRand3: between 50 and 100 pSRand: between 1 and 1000 pERand: between 1.0f and 5500.0f which is then multiplied by 0.001f before being passed to the function above Edit: Alright so after following the execution a bit more closely it is not the fault of this function directly. It produces an infinitely positive float which then flips negative when I use this code later on: pPMax = (int)pPStore; pPStore is a float that holds popCalc's return. So the question now is, how do I stop the formula from doing this? Testing even with very high values in Calculator has never displayed this behavior. Is there something in how the compiler processes the order of operations that is causing this or are my values simply just going too high? If the later I could just increase the division to 16 I think.

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  • reporting tool/viewer for large datasets

    - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner
    I have a data processing system that generates very large reports on the data it processes. By "large" I mean that a "small" execution of this system produces about 30 MB of reporting data when dumped into a CSV file and a large dataset is about 130-150 MB (I'm sure someone out there has a bigger idea of "large" but that's not the point... ;) Excel has the ideal interface for the report consumers in the form of its Data Lists: users can filter and segment the data on-the-fly to see the specific details that they are interested in - they can also add notes and markup to the reports, create charts, graphs, etc... They know how to do all this and it's much easier to let them do it if we just give them the data. Excel was great for the small test datasets, but it cannot handle these large ones. Does anyone know of a tool that can provide a similar interface as Excel data lists, but that can handle much larger files? The next tool I tried was MS Access, and found that the Access file bloats hugely (30 MB input file leads to about 70 MB Access file, and when I open the file, run a report and close it the file's at 120-150 MB!), the import process is slow and very manual (currently, the CSV files are created by the same plsql script that runs the main process so there's next to no intervention on my part). I also tried an Access database with linked tables to the database tables that store the report data and that was many times slower (for some reason, sqlplus could query and generate the report file in a minute or soe while Access would take anywhere from 2-5 minutes for the same data) (If it helps, the data processing system is written in PL/SQL and runs on Oracle 10g.)

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  • MapView EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) and KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS

    - by user768113
    I'm having some 'issues' with my application... well, it crashes in an UIViewController that is presented modally, there the user enters information through UITextFields and his location is tracked by a MapView. Lets call this view controller "MapViewController" When the user submits the form, I call a different ViewController - modally again - that processes this info and a third one answers accordingly, then go back to a MenuVC using unwinding segues, which then calls MapViewController and so on. This sequence is repeated many times, but it always crashes in MapViewController. Looking at the crash log, I think that the MapView can be the problem of this or some element in the UI (because of the UIKit framework). I tried to use NSZombie in order to track a memory issue but it doesn't give me a clue about whats happening. Here is the crash log Hardware Model: iPad3,4 Process: MyApp [2253] OS Version: iOS 6.1.3 (10B329) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000044 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9be0 0x328ac000 + 56288 1 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9b8e 0x328ac000 + 56206deallocated instance 2 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328bc2f2 0x328ac000 + 66290 3 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328baf44 0x328ac000 + 61252 4 libGPUSupportMercury.dylib 0x370f86be 0x370f6000 + 9918 5 GLEngine 0x34ce8bd2 0x34c4f000 + 629714 6 GLEngine 0x34cea30e 0x34c4f000 + 635662 7 GLEngine 0x34c8498e 0x34c4f000 + 219534 8 GLEngine 0x34c81394 0x34c4f000 + 205716 9 VectorKit 0x3957f4de 0x394c7000 + 754910 10 VectorKit 0x3955552e 0x394c7000 + 582958 11 VectorKit 0x394d056e 0x394c7000 + 38254 12 VectorKit 0x394d0416 0x394c7000 + 37910 13 VectorKit 0x394cb7ca 0x394c7000 + 18378 14 VectorKit 0x394c9804 0x394c7000 + 10244 15 VectorKit 0x394c86a2 0x394c7000 + 5794 16 QuartzCore 0x354a07a4 0x35466000 + 239524 17 QuartzCore 0x354a06fc 0x35466000 + 239356 18 IOMobileFramebuffer 0x376f8fd4 0x376f4000 + 20436 19 IOKit 0x344935aa 0x34490000 + 13738 20 CoreFoundation 0x33875888 0x337e9000 + 575624 21 CoreFoundation 0x338803e4 0x337e9000 + 619492 22 CoreFoundation 0x33880386 0x337e9000 + 619398 23 CoreFoundation 0x3387f20a 0x337e9000 + 614922 24 CoreFoundation 0x337f2238 0x337e9000 + 37432 25 CoreFoundation 0x337f20c4 0x337e9000 + 37060 26 GraphicsServices 0x373ad336 0x373a8000 + 21302 27 UIKit 0x3570e2b4 0x356b7000 + 357044 28 MyApp 0x000ea12e 0xe9000 + 4398 29 MyApp 0x000ea0e4 0xe9000 + 4324 I think thats all, additionally, I would like to ask you: if you are using unwind segues then you are releasing view controllers from the memory heap, right? Meanwhile, performing segues let you instantiate those controllers. Technically, MenuVC should be the only VC alive in the heap during the app life cycle if you understand me.

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  • Capturing wildcards in java generics

    - by Rollerball
    From this orcale java tutorial: The WildcardError example produces a capture error when compiled: import java.util.List; public class WildcardError { void foo(List<?> i) { i.set(0, i.get(0)); } } After this error demonstration, they fix the problem by using a helper method: public class WildcardFixed { void foo(List<?> i) { fooHelper(i); } // Helper method created so that the wildcard can be captured // through type inference. private <T> void fooHelper(List<T> l) { l.set(0, l.get(0)); } } First, they say that the list input parameter (i) is seen as an Object: In this example, the compiler processes the i input parameter as being of type Object. Why then i.get(0) does not return an Object? if it was already passed in as such? Furthermore what is the point of using a <?> when then you have to use an helper method using <T>. Would not be better using directly which can be inferred?

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  • LINQ extention SelectMany in 3.5 vs 4.0?

    - by Moberg
    Hi When I saw Darins suggestion here .. IEnumerable<Process> processes = new[] { "process1", "process2" } .SelectMany(Process.GetProcessesByName); ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3059667/process-getprocessesbyname/3059733#3059733 ) .. I was a bit intrigued and I tried it in VS2008 with .NET 3.5 - and it did not compiling unless I changed it to .. IEnumerable<Process> res = new string[] { "notepad", "firefox", "outlook" } .SelectMany(s => Process.GetProcessesByName(s)); Having read some Darins answers before I suspected that it was me that were the problem, and when I later got my hands on a VS2010 with.NET 4.0 - as expected - the original suggestion worked beautifully. My question is : What have happend from 3.5 to 4.0 that makes this (new syntax) possible? Is it the extentionmethods that have been extended(hmm) or new rules for lambda syntax or? I've tried to search but my google-fu was not strong enough. Please forgive if the question is a bit naive and note that I've taged it as beginner :)

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  • can this problem be solved with a single SQL query?

    - by PierrOz
    I have the two following tables (with some sample datas) LOGS: ID | SETID | DATE ======================== 1 | 1 | 2010-02-25 2 | 2 | 2010-02-25 3 | 1 | 2010-02-26 4 | 2 | 2010-02-26 5 | 1 | 2010-02-27 6 | 2 | 2010-02-27 7 | 1 | 2010-02-28 8 | 2 | 2010-02-28 9 | 1 | 2010-03-01 STATS: ID | OBJECTID | FREQUENCY | STARTID | ENDID ============================================= 1 | 1 | 0.5 | 1 | 5 2 | 2 | 0.6 | 1 | 5 3 | 3 | 0.02 | 1 | 5 4 | 4 | 0.6 | 2 | 6 5 | 5 | 0.6 | 2 | 6 6 | 6 | 0.4 | 2 | 6 7 | 1 | 0.35 | 3 | 7 8 | 2 | 0.6 | 3 | 7 9 | 3 | 0.03 | 3 | 7 10 | 4 | 0.6 | 4 | 8 11 | 5 | 0.6 | 4 | 8 7 | 1 | 0.45 | 5 | 9 8 | 2 | 0.6 | 5 | 9 9 | 3 | 0.02 | 5 | 9 Every day new logs are analyzed on different sets of objects and stored in table LOGS. Among other processes, some statistics are computed on the objects contained into these sets and the result are stored in table STATS. These statistic are computed through several logs (identified by the STARTID and ENDID columns). So, what could be the SQL query that would give me the latest computed stats for all the objects with the corresponding log dates. In the given example, the result rows would be: OBJECTID | SETID | FREQUENCY | STARTDATE | ENDDATE ====================================================== 1 | 1 | 0.45 | 2010-02-27 | 2010-03-01 2 | 1 | 0.6 | 2010-02-27 | 2010-03-01 3 | 1 | 0.02 | 2010-02-27 | 2010-03-01 4 | 2 | 0.6 | 2010-02-26 | 2010-02-28 5 | 2 | 0.6 | 2010-02-26 | 2010-02-28 So, the most recent stats for set 1 are computed with logs from feb 27 to march 1 whereas stats for set 2 are computed from feb 26 to feb 28. object 6 is not in the results rows as there is no stat on it within the last period of time. Last thing, I use MySQL. Any Idea ?

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  • Scalability 101: How can I design a scalable web application using PHP?

    - by Legend
    I am building a web-application and have a couple of quick questions. From what I learnt, one should not worry about scalability when initially building the app and should only start worrying when the traffic increases. However, this being my first web-application, I am not quite sure if I should take an approach where I design things in an ad-hoc manner and later "fix" them. I have been reading stories about how people start off with an app that gets millions of users in a week or two. Not that I will face the same situation but I can't help but wonder, how do these people do it? Currently, I bought a shared hosting account on Lunarpages and that got me started in building and testing the application. However, I am interested in learning how to build the same application in a scalable-manner using the cloud, for instance, Amazon's EC2. From my understanding, I can see a couple of components: There is a load balancer that first receives requests and then decides where to route each request This request is then handled by a server replica that then processes the request and updates (if required) the database and sends back the response to the client If a similar request comes in, then a caching mechanism like memcached kicks into picture and returns objects from the cache A blackbox that handles database replication Specifically, I am trying to do the following: Setting up a load balancer (my homework revealed that HAProxy is one such load balancer) Setting up replication so that databases can be synchronized Using memcached Configuring Apache to work with multiple web servers Partitioning application to use Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3 (my application is something that will need great deal of storage) Finally, how can I avoid burning myself when using Amazon services? Because this is just a learning phase, I can probably do with 2-3 servers with a simple load balancer and replication but until I want to avoid paying loads of money accidentally. I am able to find resources on individual topics but am unable to find something that starts off from the big picture. Can someone please help me get started?

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  • How can I efficiently manipulate 500k records in SQL Server 2005?

    - by cdeszaq
    I am getting a large text file of updated information from a customer that contains updates for 500,000 users. However, as I am processing this file, I often am running into SQL Server timeout errors. Here's the process I follow in my VB application that processes the data (in general): Delete all records from temporary table (to remove last month's data) (eg. DELETE * FROM tempTable) Rip text file into the temp table Fill in extra information into the temp table, such as their organization_id, their user_id, group_code, etc. Update the data in the real tables based on the data computed in the temp table The problem is that I often run commands like UPDATE tempTable SET user_id = (SELECT user_id FROM myUsers WHERE external_id = tempTable.external_id) and these commands frequently time out. I have tried bumping the timeouts up to as far as 10 minutes, but they still fail. Now, I realize that 500k rows is no small number of rows to manipulate, but I would think that a database purported to be able to handle millions and millions of rows should be able to cope with 500k pretty easily. Am I doing something wrong with how I am going about processing this data? Please help. Any and all suggestions welcome.

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  • Yeoman 'grunt test' fails on clean project with 'port already in use'

    - by XMLilley
    With: Mac OS 10.8.4 Node 0.10.12 npm 1.3.1 grunt-cli 0.1.9 yo 1.0.0-rc.1 bower 0.9.2 [email protected] I encounter the following error with a clean yo angular project, followed by grunt server then grunt test: Running "connect:test" (connect) task Fatal error: Port 9000 is already in use by another process. I'm new to Yeoman and am stumped. I've deleted my original project and created a new one in a fresh folder just to make sure I wasn't overlooking any invisible configs. I restarted the machine to make sure I wasn't running any temporary server processes I had forgotten about. After all attempts, the basic server starts fine, attaches to Chrome, and the watcher updates the browser on any changes. (Notably, the server is running on 9000, which seems odd for the test-runner to also be trying to use 9000.) But I get that same error on attempting to start the test runner. Is this something I can fix, or an issue I should report to the Yeoman team? Thanks.

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  • Performing measures within the execution of a c++ code every t milliseconds

    - by user506901
    Given a while loop and the function ordering as follows: int k=0; int total=100; while(k<total){ doSomething(); if(approx. t milliseconds elapsed) { measure(); } ++k; } I want to perform 'measure' every t-th milliseconds. However, since 'doSomething' can be close to the t-th millisecond from the last execution, it is acceptable to perform the measure after approximately t milliseconds elapsed from the last measure. My question is: how could this be achieved? One solution would be to set timer to zero, and measure it after every 'doSomething'. When it is withing the acceptable range, I perform measures, and reset. However, I'm not which c++ function I should use for such a task. As I can see, there are certain functions, but the debate on which one is the most appropriate is outside of my understanding. Note that some of the functions actually take into account the time taken by some other processes, but I want my timer to only measure the time of the execution of my c++ code (I hope that is clear). Another thing is the resolution of the measurements, as pointed out below. Suppose the medium option of those suggested.

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  • Passing an address inside a WordPress post to a Google Map elsewhere on the Page

    - by ael_ecurai
    Background: My client is building their own WordPress site (using a purchased feature-rich theme), and I'm modifying a child theme as necessary to achieve customizations she wants. The theme comes with a Page template that includes a full-width Google Map across the top, which pulls its marker from a single address set within the Theme Options. It's meant to be used for one main "Contact Us" page. The client's business has several locations, and she wants each location's page to include such a map. (Example linked below.) It seems that the ideal solution would be the ability to specify an address within a shortcode in the Post, and have that set the map marker. Here's how the theme makes the map (where $mapAddress is the address from the Theme Options): <?php $mapAddress = ot_get_option( 'map_address' ); $mapHeight = ot_get_option( 'map_height' ); $mapContent = ot_get_option( 'map_content' ); ?> <section id="block-map-wrapper"> <div id="block-map" class="clearfix"> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ // Map Options var mapOptions = { zoom: 15, scrollwheel: false, zoomControl: true, zoomControlOptions: { style: google.maps.ZoomControlStyle.SMALL, position: google.maps.ControlPosition.TOP_LEFT }, mapTypeControl: true, scaleControl: false, panControl: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; // The Map Object var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map"), mapOptions); var address = ""; var geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); geocoder.geocode({ "address" : "<?php echo $mapAddress; ?>" }, function (results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { address = results[0].geometry.location; map.setCenter(results[0].geometry.location); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: address, map: map, clickable: true, animation: google.maps.Animation.DROP }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: "<?php echo $mapContent; ?>" }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, "click", function() { infowindow.open(map, marker); }); } }); }); </script> <div id="map" class = "map" style = "width: 100%; height: <?php echo $mapHeight; ?>px"></div> </div><!-- #block-map --> <div class="shadow-bottom"></div> </section><!-- #block-map-wrapper --> Here's a test page using a custom Page template I've created. Right now it's using the same map code as above. I've tried creating a shortcode that takes an address attribute and sets it as $mapAddress, but that didn't work. I believe it's because the map is already loaded by the time the Loop gets parsed. How can I tell Maps to "come back" to the post to get the proper address? My specialty lies in HTML & CSS, but Javascript befuddles me fairly easily, so please be explicit when explaining implementation. Bonus: A further goal is to have the locations' parent Page also include such a map, but have multiple markers representing the multiple locations. When taking more than one location, Google Maps only accepts latitude/longitude. I don't want my client to be concerned with coordinates, so I know there's got to be something I can do with the geocoding service so she can just input a list of addresses instead (into the same, or similar, shortcode solution developed for my main question). But I am extra-clueless about how to do that.

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  • How to limit TCP writes to particular size and then block untlil the data is read

    - by ustulation
    {Qt 4.7.0 , VS 2010} I have a Server written in Qt and a 3rd party client executable. Qt based server uses QTcpServer and QTcpSocket facilities (non-blocking). Going through the articles on TCP I understand the following: the original implementation of TCP mentioned the negotiable window size to be a 16-bit value, thus maximum being 65535 bytes. But implementations often used the RFC window-scale-extension that allows the sliding window size to be scalable by bit-shifting to yield a maximum of 1 gigabyte. This is implementation defined. This could have resulted in majorly different window sizes on receiver and sender end as the server uses Qt facilities without hardcoding any window size limit. Client 1st asks for all information it can based on the previous messages from the server before handling the new (accumulating) incoming messages. So at some point Server receives a lot of messages each asking for data of several MB's. This the server processes and puts it into the sender buffer. Client however is unable to handle the messages at the same pace and it seems that client’s receiver buffer is far smaller (65535 bytes maybe) than sender’s transmit window size. The messages thus get accumulated at sender’s end until the sender’s buffer is full too after which the TCP writes on sender would block. This however does not happen as sender buffer is much larger. Hence this manifests as increase in memory consumption on the sender’s end. To prevent this from happening, I used Qt’s socket’s waitForBytesWritten() with timeout set to -1 for infinite waiting period. This as I see from the behaviour blocks the thread writing TCP data until the data has actually been sensed by the receiver’s window (which will happen when earlier messages have been processed by the client at application level). This has caused memory consumption at Server end to be almost negligible. is there a better alternative to this (in Qt) if i want to restrict the memory consumption at server end to say x MB's? Also please point out if any of my understandings is incorrect.

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  • C# threading solution for long queries

    - by Eddie
    Senerio We have an application that records incidents. An external database needs to be queried when an incident is approved by a supervisor. The queries to this external database are sometimes taking a while to run. This lag is experienced through the browser. Possible Solution I want to use threading to eliminate the simulated hang to the browser. I have used the Thread class before and heard about ThreadPool. But, I just found BackgroundWorker in this post. MSDN states: The BackgroundWorker class allows you to run an operation on a separate, dedicated thread. Time-consuming operations like downloads and database transactions can cause your user interface (UI) to seem as though it has stopped responding while they are running. When you want a responsive UI and you are faced with long delays associated with such operations, the BackgroundWorker class provides a convenient solution. Is BackgroundWorker the way to go when handling long running queries? What happens when 2 or more BackgroundWorker processes are ran simultaneously? Is it handled like a pool?

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  • What can cause a spontaneous EPIPE error without either end calling close() or crashing?

    - by Hongli
    I have an application that consists of two processes (let's call them A and B), connected to each other through Unix domain sockets. Most of the time it works fine, but some users report the following behavior: A sends a request to B. This works. A now starts reading the reply from B. B sends a reply to A. The corresponding write() call returns an EPIPE error, and as a result B close() the socket. However, A did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. A's read() call returns 0, indicating end-of-file. A thinks that B prematurely closed the connection. Users have also reported variations of this behavior, e.g.: A sends a request to B. This works partially, but before the entire request is sent A's write() call returns EPIPE, and as a result A close() the socket. However B did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. B reads a partial request and then suddenly gets an EOF. The problem is I cannot reproduce this behavior locally at all. I've tried OS X and Linux. The users are on a variety of systems, mostly OS X and Linux. Things that I've already tried and considered: Double close() bugs (close() is called twice on the same file descriptor): probably not as that would result in EBADF errors, but I haven't seen them. Increasing the maximum file descriptor limit. One user reported that this worked for him, the rest reported that it did not. What else can possibly cause behavior like this? I know for certain that neither A nor B close() the socket prematurely, and I know for certain that neither of them have crashed because both A and B were able to report the error. It is as if the kernel suddenly decided to pull the plug from the socket for some reason.

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  • Update transaction in SQL Server 2008 R2 from ASP.Net not working

    - by Amarus
    Hello! Even though I've been a stalker here for ages, this is the first post I'm making. Hopefully, it won't end here and more optimistically future posts might actually be me trying to give a hand to someone else, I do owe this community that much and more. Now, what I'm trying to do is simple and most probably the reason behind it not working is my own stupidity. However, I'm stumped here. I'm working on an ASP.Net website that interacts with an SQL Server 2008 R2 database. So far everything has been going okay but updating a row (or more) just won't work. I even tried copying and pasting code from this site and others but it's always the same thing. In short: No exception or errors are shown when the update command executes (it even gives the correct count of affected rows) but no changes are actually made on the database. Here's a simplified version of my code (the original had more commands and tons of parameters each, but even when it's like this it doesn't work): protected void btSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ApplicationServices"].ConnectionString)) { string commandString = "UPDATE [impoundLotAlpha].[dbo].[Vehicle]" + "SET [VehicleMake] = @VehicleMake" + " WHERE [ComplaintID] = @ComplaintID"; using (SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(commandString, connection)) { SqlTransaction transaction = null; try { command.Connection.Open(); transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); command.Transaction = transaction; SqlParameter complaintID = new SqlParameter("@complaintID", SqlDbType.Int); complaintID.Value = HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString["complaintID"]; command.Parameters.Add(complaintID); SqlParameter VehicleMake = new SqlParameter("@VehicleMake", SqlDbType.VarChar, 20); VehicleMake.Value = tbVehicleMake.Text; command.Parameters.Add(VehicleMake); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); transaction.Commit(); } catch { transaction.Rollback(); throw; } finally { connection.Close(); } } } } I've tried this with the "SqlTransaction" stuff and without it and nothing changes. Also, since I'm doing multiple updates at once, I want to have them act as a single transaction. I've found that it can be either done like this or by use of the classes included in the System.Transactions namespace (CommittableTransaction, TransactionScope...). I tried all I could find but didn't get any different results. The connection string in web.config is as follows: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=ImpoundLotAlpha;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> So, tldr; version: What is the mistake that I did with that record update attempt? (Figured it out, check below if you're having a similar issue.) What is the best method to gather multiple update commands as a single transaction? Thanks in advance for any kind of help and/or suggestions! Edit: It seems that I was lacking some sleep yesterday cause this time it only took me 5 minutes to figure out my mistake. Apparently the update was working properly but I failed to notice that the textbox values were being overwritten in Page_Load. For some reason I had this part commented: if (IsPostBack) return; The second part of the question still stands. But should I post this as an answer to my own question or keep it like this?

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  • referencing part of the composite primary key

    - by Zavael
    I have problems with setting the reference on database table. I have following structure: CREATE TABLE club( id INTEGER NOT NULL, name_short VARCHAR(30), name_full VARCHAR(70) NOT NULL ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX club_uix ON club(id); ALTER TABLE club ADD CONSTRAINT club_pk PRIMARY KEY (id); CREATE TABLE team( id INTEGER NOT NULL, club_id INTEGER NOT NULL, team_name VARCHAR(30) ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX team_uix ON team(id, club_id); ALTER TABLE team ADD CONSTRAINT team_pk PRIMARY KEY (id, club_id); ALTER TABLE team ADD FOREIGN KEY (club_id) REFERENCES club(id); CREATE TABLE person( id INTEGER NOT NULL, first_name VARCHAR(20), last_name VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX person_uix ON person(id); ALTER TABLE person ADD PRIMARY KEY (id); CREATE TABLE contract( person_id INTEGER NOT NULL, club_id INTEGER NOT NULL, wage INTEGER ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX contract_uix on contract(person_id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD CONSTRAINT contract_pk PRIMARY KEY (person_id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD FOREIGN KEY (club_id) REFERENCES club(id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD FOREIGN KEY (person_id) REFERENCES person(id); CREATE TABLE player( person_id INTEGER NOT NULL, team_id INTEGER, height SMALLINT, weight SMALLINT ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX player_uix on player(person_id); ALTER TABLE player ADD CONSTRAINT player_pk PRIMARY KEY (person_id); ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (person_id) REFERENCES person(id); -- ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (team_id) REFERENCES team(id); --this is not working It gives me this error: Error code -5529, SQL state 42529: a UNIQUE constraint does not exist on referenced columns: TEAM in statement [ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (team_id) REFERENCES team(id)] As you can see, team table has composite primary key (club_id + id), the person references club through contract. Person has some common attributes for player and other staff types. One club can have multiple teams. Employed person has to have a contract with a club. Player (is the specification of person) - if emplyed - can be assigned to one of the club's teams. Is there better way to design my structure? I thought about excluding the club_id from team's primary key, but I would like to know if this is the only way. Thanks. UPDATE 1 I would like to have the id as team identification only within the club, so multiple teams can have equal id as long as they belong to different clubs. Is it possible? UPDATE 2 updated the naming convention as adviced by philip Some business rules to better understand the structure: One club can have 1..n teams (Main squad, Reserve squad, Youth squad or Team A, Team B... only team can play match, not club) One team belongs to one club only A player is type of person (other types (staff) are scouts, coaches etc so they do not need to belong to specific team, just to the club, if employed) Person can have 0..1 contract with 1 club (that means he is employed or unemployed) Player (if employed) belongs to one team of the club Now thinking about it - moving team_id from player to contract would solve my problem, and it could hold the condition "Player (if employed) belongs to one team of the club", but it would be redundant for other staff types. What do you think?

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  • exit /B 0 does not work...

    - by murxx
    Hi, I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat - in there I call: start startServer.bat - wait 30 seconds - check is server is started - exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat - call scriptA.bat ----- in there I call: start startServer.bat ----- wait 30 seconds ----- check is server is started ----- exit /B 0 - scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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  • PHP class to C# class?

    - by LordSauron
    I work for a company that makes application's in C#. recently we got a customer asking us to look in to rebuilding an application written in PHP. This application receives GPS data from car mounted boxes and processes that into workable information. The manufacturer for the GPS device has a PHP class that parses the received information and extracts coordinates. We were looking in to rewriting the PHP class to a C# class so we can use it and adapt it. And here it comes, on the manufacturers website there is a singel line of text that got my skin krawling: "The encoding format and contents of the transmitted data are subject to constant changes. This is caused by implementations of additional features by new module firmware versions which makes it virtually impossible to document it and for you to properly decode it yourself." So i am now looking for a option to use the "constantly changing" PHP class and access it in C#. Some thing link a shell only exposing some function's i need. Except i have no idea how i can do this. Can any one help me find a solution for this.

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