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  • Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

    - by Shabbyrobe
    I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

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  • jQuery tablesorter - loss of functionality after AJAX call

    - by Nick
    I have recently been experimenting with the tablesorter plugin for jQuery. I have successfully got it up and running in once instance, and am very impressed. However, I have tried to apply the tablesorter to a different table, only to encounter some difficulties... Basically the table causing a problem has a <ul> above it which acts as a set of tabs for the table. so if you click one of these tabs, an AJAX call is made and the table is repopulated with the rows relevant to the specific tab clicked. When the page initially loads (i.e. before a tab has been clicked) the tablesorter functionality works exactly as expected. But when a tab is clicked and the table repopulated, the functionality disappears, rendering it without the sortable feature. Even if you go back to the original tab, after clicking another, the functionality does not return - the only way to do so is a physical refresh of the page in the browser. I have seen a solution which seems similar to my problem on this site, and someone recommends using the jQuery plugin, livequery. I have tried this but to no avail :-( If someone has any suggestions I would be most appreciative. I can post code snippets if it would help (though I know the instantiation code for tablesorter is fine as it works on tables with no tabs - so it's definitely not that!) EDIT: As requested, here are some code snippets: The table being sorted is <table id="#sortableTable#">..</table>, the instantiation code for tablesorter I am using is: $(document).ready(function() { $("#sortableTable").tablesorter( { headers: //disable any headers not worthy of sorting! { 0: { sorter: false }, 5: { sorter: false } }, sortMultiSortKey: 'ctrlKey', debug:true, widgets: ['zebra'] }); }); And I tried to rig up livequery as follows: $("#sortableTable").livequery(function(){ $(this).tablesorter(); }); This has not helped though... I am not sure whether I should use the id of the table with livequery as it is the click on the <ul> I should be responding to, which is of course not part of the table itself. I have tried a number of variations in the hope that one of them will help, but to no avail :-(

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  • using CSS to center FLOATED input elements wrapped in a DIV

    - by Tim
    There's no shortage of questions and answers about centering but I've not been able to get it to work given my specific circumstances, which involve floating. I want to center a container DIV that contains three floated input elements (split-button, text, checkbox), so that when my page is resized wider, they go from this: ||.....[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label .....|| to this ||......................[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label.......................|| They float fine, but when the page is made wider, they stay to the left: ||.....[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label .......................................|| If I remove the float so that the input elements are stacked rather than side-by-side: [ ][v] [ ] [ ] label then they DO center correctly when the page is resized. SO it is the float being applied to the elements of the DIV#hbox inside the container that is messing up the centering. Is what I want to do impossible because of the way float is designed to work? Here is my DOCTYPE, and the markup does validate at w3c: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> Here is my markup: <div id="term1-container"> <div class="hbox"> <div> <button id="operator1" class="operator-split-button">equals</button> <button id="operator1drop">show all operators</button> </div> <div><input type="text" id="term1"></input></div> <div><input type="checkbox" id="meta2"></input><label for="meta2" class="tinylabel">meta</label></div> </div> </div> And here's the (not-working) CSS: #term1-container {text-align: center} .hbox {margin: 0 auto;} .hbox div {float:left; } I have also tried applying display: inline-block to the floated button, text-input, and checkbox; and even though I think it applies only to text, I've also tried applying white-space: nowrap to the #term1-container DIV, based on posts I've seen here on SO. And just to be a little more complete, here's the jQuery that creates the split-button: $(".operator-split-button").button().click( function() { alert( "foo" ); }).next().button( { text: false, icons: { primary: "ui-icon-triangle-1-s" } }).click( function(){positionOperatorsMenu();} ) })

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  • What is the most elegant way to implement a business rule relating to a child collection in LINQ?

    - by AaronSieb
    I have two tables in my database: Wiki WikiId ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId IsOwner ... These tables have a one (Wiki) to Many (WikiUser) relationship. How would I implement the following business rule in my LINQ entity classes: "A Wiki must have exactly one owner?" I've tried updating the tables as follows: Wiki WikiId (PK) OwnerId (FK to WikiUser) ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId ... This enforces the constraint, but if I remove the owner's WikiUser record from the Wiki's WikiUser collection, I recieve an ugly SqlException. This seems like it would be difficult to catch and handle in the UI. Is there a way to perform this check before the SqlException is generated? A better way to structure my database? A way to catch and translate the SqlException to something more useful? Edit: I would prefer to keep the validation rules within the LINQ entity classes if possible. Edit 2: Some more details about my specific situation. In my application, the user should be able to remove users from the Wiki. They should be able to remove any user, except the user who is currently flagged as the "owner" of the Wiki (a Wiki must have exactly one owner at all times). In my control logic, I'd like to use something like this: wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); And have any broken rules transferred to the UI layer. What I DON'T want to have to do is this: if(wikiUser.WikiUserId != wiki.OwnerId) { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } else { //Handle errors. } I also don't particularly want to move the code to my repository (because there is nothing to indicate not to use the native Remove functions), so I also DON'T want code like this: mRepository.RemoveWikiUser(wiki, wikiUser) mRepository.Save(); This WOULD be acceptable: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(ValidationException ve) { //Display ve.Message } But this catches too many errors: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(SqlException se) { //Display se.Message } I would also PREFER NOT to explicitly call a business rule check (although it may become necessary): wiki.WIkiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); if(wiki.CheckRules()) { mRepository.Save(); } else { //Display broken rules }

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  • Alter highchart output to display start - end date

    - by php_d
    I currently have the following highchart which display a start date and outputs the values for the next 31 days of data. Does anyone know how I may improve on this to include and end date so that I can filter the data by smaller specific amounts? On the x-axis I am also trying to only display labels that have data attached to them and hide any others. Any help is appreciated. My code is as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> var chart; $(document).ready(function() { chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', type: 'line', marginRight: 130, marginBottom: 25 }, title: { text: '<?php echo $type ?>', x: -20 //center }, xAxis: { categories: [ <?php $start = $_POST["dateStart"]; $dates = array(); for ($i = 0, $days = date('t', strtotime($start)); $i < $days; ++$i) { $dates[] = date('Y-m-d', strtotime($start . ' + ' . $i . ' day')); } echo "'" . implode("', '", $dates) . "'"; ?> ] }, yAxis: { title: { text: 'Total Amount' }, plotLines: [{ value: 0, width: 1, color: '#808080' }] }, tooltip: { formatter: function() { return '<b>'+ this.series.name +'</b><br/>'+ this.x +': '+ this.y; } }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', align: 'right', verticalAlign: 'top', x: -10, y: 100, borderWidth: 0 }, series: [ <?php foreach ($array as $legend => $data) { echo '{'; echo "name: '" . $legend . "',"; $values = array(); for ($i = 0; $i < $days; ++$i) { $date = date('Y-m-d', strtotime($start . ' + ' . $i . ' day')); $values[] = isset($data[$date]) ? $data[$date] : 0; } echo 'data: [' . implode(', ', $values) . '],'; echo '},'; } ?> ] }); }); Thanks

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  • problem with jquery sortable of ul with childrens - how to allow li to be sorted only on the same le

    - by Y.G.J
    $(document).ready(function() { $("#test-list").sortable({ items: "> li", handle : '.handle', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('#test-list').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); $("#test-sub").sortable({ containment: "ul", items: "li", handle : '.handle2', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('ul').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); }); <ul id="test-list"> <li id="listItem_10">first<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /></li> <li id="listItem_8">second<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_4><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <li id="listItem_3"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_9"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> the problems i have: sorting the main ul is working but not all the time - i will try to fix that my own but if there is a problem with the code here and not the one in proccess-sortable - tell me. moving li in the main ul is ok but the sub or the sub of the sub is having problem - i can drag something from one sub to it's sub or the other way too - i don't want that to happend. i want to be able to drag li and by selecting that one that only this ul group will send to proccess-sortable to be updated - how can i catch the specific ul of li i am draging?

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  • Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues [closed]

    - by Greg
    Moved to Super User: Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues I am attempting to create a Windows XP SP3 image that will run my application on Second Boot. Here is the intended workflow. 1) Run Image Prep Utility (I wrote) on windows to add my runonce entries and clean a few things up. 2) Reboot to ghost, make image file. 3) Package into my ISO and distribute. 4) System will be imaged by user. 5) On first boot, I have about 5 things that run, one of which includes a driver updater (I wrote) for my own specific devices. 6) One of the entries inside of HKCU/../runonce is a reg file, which adds another key to HKLM/../runonce. This is how second boot is acquired. 7) As a result of the driver updater, user is prompted to reboot. 8) My application is then launched from HKLM/../runonce on second boot. This workflow works perfectly, except for a select few legacy systems that contain devices that cause the add hardware wizard to pop up. When the add hardware wizard pops up is when I begin to see problems. It's important to note, that if I manually inspect the registry after the add hardware wizard pops up, it appears as I would expect, with all the first boot scripts having run, and it's sitting in a state I would correctly expect it to be in for a second boot scenario. The problem comes when I click next on the add hardware wizard, it seems to re-run the single entry I've added, and re-executes the runonce scripts. (only one script now as it's already executed and cleared out the initial entries). This causes my application to open as if it were a second boot, only when next is clicked on the add hardware wizard. If I click cancel, and reboot, then it also works as expected. I don't care as much about other solutions, because I could design a system that doesn't fully rely on Microsoft's registry. I simply can't find any information as to WHY this is happening. I believe this is some type of Microsoft issue that's presenting itself as a result of an overstretched image that's expected to support too many legacy platforms, but any help that can be provided would be appreciated. Thanks,

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  • Uploading files to varbinary(max) in SQL Server -- works on one server, not the other

    - by pjabbott
    I have some code that allows users to upload file attachments into a varbinary(max) column in SQL Server from their web browser. It has been working perfectly fine for almost two years, but all of a sudden it stopped working. And it stopped working on only the production database server -- it still works fine on the development server. I can only conclude that the code is fine and there is something up with the instance of SQL Server itself. But I have no idea how to isolate the problem. I insert a record into the ATTACHMENT table, only inserting non-binary data like the title and the content type, and then chunk-upload the uploaded file using the following code: // get the file stream System.IO.Stream fileStream = postedFile.InputStream; // make an upload buffer byte[] fileBuffer; fileBuffer = new byte[1024]; // make an update command SqlCommand fileUpdateCommand = new SqlCommand("update ATTACHMENT set ATTACHMENT_DATA.WRITE(@Data, NULL, NULL) where ATTACHMENT_ID = @ATTACHMENT_ID", sqlConnection, sqlTransaction); fileUpdateCommand.Parameters.Add("@Data", SqlDbType.Binary); fileUpdateCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ATTACHMENT_ID", newId); while (fileStream.Read(fileBuffer, 0, fileBuffer.Length) > 0) { fileUpdateCommand.Parameters["@Data"].Value = fileBuffer; fileUpdateCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); <------ FAILS HERE } fileUpdateCommand.Dispose(); fileStream.Close(); Where it says "FAILS HERE", it sits for a while and then I get a SQL Server timeout error on the very first iteration through the loop. If I connect to the development database instead, everything works fine (it runs through the loop many, many times and the commit is successful). Both servers are identical (SQL Server 9.0.3042) and the schemas are identical as well. When I open Activity Monitor right after the timeout to see what's going it, it says the last command is (@Data binary(1024),@ATTACHMENT_ID decimal(4,0))update ATTACHMENT set ATTACHMENT_DATA.WRITE(@Data, NULL, NULL) where ATTACHMENT_ID = @ATTACHMENT_ID which I would expect but it also says it has a status of "Suspended" and a wait type of "PAGEIOLATCH_SH". I looked this up and it seems to be a bad thing but I can't find anything specific to my stuation. Ideas?

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  • deleting element objects of a std vector using erase : a) memory handling and b) better way?

    - by memC
    hi, I have a vec_A that stores instances of class A as: vec_A.push_back(A()); I want to remove some elements in the vector at a later stage and have two questions: a) The element is deleted as: vec_A.erase(iterator) Is there any additional code I need to add to make sure that there is no memory leak? . b) Assume that condition if(num <5) is if num is among a specific numberList. Given this, is there a better way to delete the elements of a vector than what I am illustrating below? #include<vector> #include<stdio.h> #include<iostream> class A { public: int getNumber(); A(int val); ~A(){}; private: int num; }; A::A(int val){ num = val; }; int A::getNumber(){ return num; }; int main(){ int i =0; int num; std::vector<A> vec_A; std::vector<A>::iterator iter; for ( i = 0; i < 10; i++){ vec_A.push_back(A(i)); } iter = vec_A.begin(); while(iter != vec_A.end()){ std::cout << "\n --------------------------"; std::cout << "\n Size before erase =" << vec_A.size(); num = iter->getNumber() ; std::cout << "\n num = "<<num; if (num < 5){ vec_A.erase(iter); } else{ iter++; } std::cout << "\n size after erase =" << vec_A.size(); } std::cout << "\nPress RETURN to continue..."; std::cin.get(); return 0; }

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  • List<> of objects, different types, sort and pull out types individually?

    - by Brazos
    I've got a handful of products, any, all, or none of which may be associated with a specific submission. All 7 products are subclasses of the class Product. I need to store all the products associated with a submission, and then retrieve them and their field data on my presentation layer. I've been using a List, and List, but when I use the OfType, I throw an error saying that I can't implicitly convert systems.generic.IEnumerable to type 'Product'. I've tried to cast, but to no avail. When I use prodlist.OfType<EPL>(); there are no errors, but when I try and store that in an instance of EPL "tempEpl", I get the aforementioned cast-related error. What gives? Code below. ProductService pserv = new ProductService(); IList<object> prodlist = pserv.getProductById(x); EPL tempEpl = new EPL(); if ((prodlist.OfType<EPL>()) != null) { tempEpl = prodlist.OfType<EPL>(); // this throws a conversion error. } the Data layer List<object> TempProdList = new List<object>(); conn.Open(); SqlCommand EplCmd = new SqlCommand(EPLQuery, conn); SqlDataReader EplRead = null; EplRead = EplCmd.ExecuteReader(); EPL TempEpl = new EPL(); if (EplRead.Read()) { TempEpl.Entity1 = EplRead.GetString(0); TempEpl.Employees1 = EplRead.GetInt32(1); TempEpl.CA1 = EplRead.GetInt32(2); TempEpl.MI1 = EplRead.GetInt32(3); TempEpl.NY1 = EplRead.GetInt32(4); TempEpl.NJ1 = EplRead.GetInt32(5); TempEpl.PrimEx1 = EplRead.GetInt32(6); TempEpl.EplLim1 = EplRead.GetInt32(7); TempEpl.EplSir1 = EplRead.GetInt32(8); TempEpl.Premium1 = EplRead.GetInt32(9); TempEpl.Wage1 = EplRead.GetInt32(10); TempEpl.Sublim1 = EplRead.GetInt32(11); TempProdList.Add(TempEpl); }

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  • ZF-Autoloader not working in UnitTests on Ubuntu

    - by Sam
    i got a problem regarding Unit-testing a Zend-Framework application under Ubuntu 12.04. The project-structure is a default zend application whereas the models are defined as the following ./application ./models ./DbTable ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_DbTable_ProjectStatus) ./Mappers ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus) ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_ProjectStatus) The Problem here is with the Zend-specific autoloading. The naming convention here appears that the folder Mappers loads all classes with _Mapper but not _Mappers. This is some internal Zend behavior which is fine so far. On my windows machine the phpunit runs without any Problems, trying to initiate all those classes. On my Ubuntu machine however with jenkins running on it, phpunit fails to find the appropriate classes giving me the following error Fatal error: Class 'Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus' not found in /var/lib/jenkins/jobs/PAM/workspace/tests/application/models/Mapper/ProjectStatusTest.php on line 39 The error appears to really be that the Zend-Autoloader doesn't load from the ubuntu machine, but i can't figure out how or why this works. The question remains of why this is. I think i've double checked every point of contact with the zend autoloading stuff, but i just can't figure this out. I'll paste the - from my point of view relevant snippets - and hope someone of you has any insight to this. Jenkins Snippet for PHPUnit <target name="phpunit" description="Run unit tests with PHPUnit"> <exec executable="phpunit" failonerror="true"> <arg line="--configuration '${basedir}/tests/phpunit.xml' --coverage-clover '${basedir}/build/logs/clover.xml' --coverage-html '${basedir}/build/coverage/.' --log-junit '${basedir}/build/logs/junit.xml'" /> </exec> </target> ./tests/phpunit.xml <phpunit bootstrap="./bootstrap.php"> ... this shouldn't be of relevance ... </phpunit> ./tests/bootstrap.php <?php // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), get_include_path(), ))); require_once 'Zend/Loader/Autoloader.php'; Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance(); Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Newbie - what do I need to do with httpd.conf to make CakePHP work correctly?

    - by EmmyS
    (Not sure if this belongs here or on webmasters; please move if necessary.) I'm a total newbie to Cake and not much better with apache; I've done a lot of PHP but always with a server that's already been set up by someone else. So I'm going through the basic blog tutorial, and it says: A Note On mod_rewrite Occasionally a new user will run in to mod_rewrite issues, so I'll mention them marginally here. If the Cake welcome page looks a little funny (no images or css styles), it probably means mod_rewrite isn't functioning on your system. Here are some tips to help get you up and running: Make sure that an .htaccess override is allowed: in your httpd.conf, you should have a section that defines a section for each Directory on your server. Make sure the AllowOverride is set to All for the correct Directory. Make sure you are editing the system httpd.conf rather than a user- or site-specific httpd.conf. For some reason or another, you might have obtained a copy of CakePHP without the needed .htaccess files. This sometimes happens because some operating systems treat files that start with '.' as hidden, and don't copy them. Make sure your copy of CakePHP is from the downloads section of the site or our SVN repository. Make sure you are loading up mod_rewrite correctly! You should see something like LoadModule rewrite_module libexec/httpd/mod_rewrite.so and AddModule mod_rewrite.c in your httpd.conf." I'm using XAMPP on linux. I've found my httpd.conf file in opt/lampp/ etc, but am not sure what I need to do with it. I've searched for "rewrite", and there's only one line: LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so There's nothing about AddModule mod_rewrite.c. Do I just create a Directory section for the directory I've installed Cake in and set AlllowOverride to All? (I created a separate subdirectory of my wwwroot and installed in there, since I also have installs of Joomla and CodeIgniter.) Is there anything else I need to do? My download of Cake did come with two htaccess-type files (._.htaccess and .htaccess) - do I need to do anything with them? Thanks for any help you can provide to this non-server-admin. EDIT TO ADD virtual host sample: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /www/docs/dummy-host.example.com ServerName dummy-host.example.com ServerAlias www.dummy-host.example.com ErrorLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-error_log CustomLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-access_log common </VirtualHost>

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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  • How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

    - by Joe
    I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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  • Output on namespaced xpath

    - by user347928
    Hi there, I have the following code and have had some trouble with a specific field and it's output. The namespace is connected but doesn't seem to be outputting on the required field. Any info on this would be great. import org.w3c.dom.Document; import org.xml.sax.SAXException; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder; import javax.xml.parsers.ParserConfigurationException; import javax.xml.xpath.XPathFactory; import javax.xml.xpath.XPath; import javax.xml.xpath.XPathExpressionException; import java.io.ByteArrayInputStream; import java.io.IOException; public class test { public static void main(String args[]) { String xmlStr = "<aws:UrlInfoResponse xmlns:aws=\"http://alexa.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-10-05/\">\n" + " <aws:Response xmlns:aws=\"http://awis.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-07-11\">\n" + " <aws:OperationRequest>\n" + " <aws:RequestId>blah</aws:RequestId>\n" + " </aws:OperationRequest>\n" + " <aws:UrlInfoResult>\n" + " <aws:Alexa>\n" + " <aws:TrafficData>\n" + " <aws:DataUrl type=\"canonical\">harvard.edu/</aws:DataUrl>\n" + " <aws:Rank>1635</aws:Rank>\n" + " </aws:TrafficData>\n" + " </aws:Alexa>\n" + " </aws:UrlInfoResult>\n" + " <aws:ResponseStatus xmlns:aws=\"http://alexa.amazonaws.com/doc/2005-10-05/\">\n" + " <aws:StatusCode>Success</aws:StatusCode>\n" + " </aws:ResponseStatus>\n" + " </aws:Response>\n" + "</aws:UrlInfoResponse>"; DocumentBuilderFactory xmlFact = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); xmlFact.setNamespaceAware(true); DocumentBuilder builder = null; try { builder = xmlFact.newDocumentBuilder(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Document doc = null; try { doc = builder.parse( new ByteArrayInputStream( xmlStr.getBytes())); } catch (SAXException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(doc.getDocumentElement().getNamespaceURI()); System.out.println(xmlFact.isNamespaceAware()); String xpathStr = "//aws:OperationRequest"; XPathFactory xpathFact = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = xpathFact.newXPath(); String result = null; try { result = xpath.evaluate(xpathStr, doc); } catch (XPathExpressionException e) { e.printStackTrace(); //To change body of catch statement use File | Settings | File Templates. } System.out.println("XPath result is \"" + result + "\""); } } Thanks Tony

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  • What makes great software?

    - by VirtuosiMedia
    From the perspective of an end user, what makes a software great rather than just good or functional? What are some fundamental principles that can shift the way a software is used and perceived? What are some of the little finishing touches that help put an application over the top? I'm in the later stages of developing a web app and I'm looking for ideas or concepts that I may have missed. If you have specific examples of software or apps that you absolutely love, please share the reasons or features that make it special. Keep in mind that I'm looking for examples that directly affect the end user, but not necessarily just UI suggestions. Here are some of the principles and little touches I'm trying to use: Keep the UI as simple as possible. Remove absolutely everything that isn't necessary. Use progressive disclosure when more information can be needed sometimes but isn't needed all the time. Provide inline help and useful error messages. Verbs on buttons wherever possible. Make anything that's clickable obvious. Fast, responsive UI. Accessibility (this is a work in progress). Reusable UI patterns. Once a user learns a skill, they will be able to use it in multiple places. Intelligent default settings. Auto-focusing forms when filling out the form is the primary action to be taken on the page. Clear metaphors (like tabs) and headings indicating location within the app. Automating repetitive tasks (with the ability to disable the automation). Use standardized or accepted metaphors for icons (like an "x" for delete). Larger text sizes for improved readability. High contrast so that each section is distinct. Making sure that it's obvious on every page what the user is supposed to do by establishing a clear information hierarchy and drawing the eye to the call to action. Most deletions can be undone. Discoverability - Make it easy to learn how to do new tasks. Group similar elements together.

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  • Foreign key pointing to different tables

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm implementing a table per subclass design I discussed in a previous question. It's a product database where products can have very different attributes depending on their type, but attributes are fixed for each type and types are not manageable at all. I have a master table that holds common attributes: product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR E.g.: 1 'Magazine' 2 'Web site' product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id valid_since DATETIME valid_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine' 1 '1998-12-01' NULL 2 'Bar Weekly Review' 1 '2005-01-01' NULL 3 'E-commerce App' 2 '2009-10-15' NULL 4 'CMS' 2 '2010-02-01' NULL ... and one subtable for each product type: item_magazine ============= item_magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id issue_number INT pages INT copies INT close_date DATETIME release_date DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine Regular Issue' 1 89 52 150000 '2010-06-25' '2010-06-31' 2 'Foo Magazine Summer Special' 1 90 60 175000 '2010-07-25' '2010-07-31' 3 'Bar Weekly Review Regular Issue' 2 12 16 20000 '2010-06-01' '2010-06-02' item_web_site ============= item_web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id bandwidth INT hits INT date_from DATETIME date_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'The Carpet Store' 3 10 90000 '2010-06-01' NULL 2 'Penauts R Us' 3 20 180000 '2010-08-01' NULL 3 'Springfield Cattle Fair' 4 15 150000 '2010-05-01' '2010-10-31' Now I want to add some fees that relate to one specific item. Since there are very little subtypes, it's feasible to do this: fee === fee_id INT fee_description VARCHAR item_magazine_id INT -> Foreign key to item_magazine.item_magazine_id item_web_site_id INT -> Foreign key to item_web_site.item_web_site_id net_price DECIMAL E.g.: 1 'Front cover' 2 NULL 1999.99 2 'Half page' 2 NULL 500.00 3 'Square banner' NULL 3 790.50 4 'Animation' NULL 3 2000.00 I have tight foreign keys to handle cascaded editions and I presume I can add a constraint so only one of the IDs is NOT NULL. However, my intuition suggests that it would be cleaner to get rid of the item_WHATEVER_id columns and keep a separate table: fee_to_item =========== fee_id INT -> Foreign key to fee.fee_id product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id item_id INT -> ??? But I can't figure out how to create foreign keys on item_id since the source table varies depending on product_id. Should I stick to my original idea?

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  • Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Restlet-Hibernate Based Java application powered by MySQL

    - by Vatsala
    Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?)

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  • Passing password value through URL

    - by Steven Wright
    OK I see a lot of people asking about passing other values, URLS, random stuff through a URL, but don't find anything about sending a password to a password field. Here is my situation: I have a ton of sites I use on a daily basis with my work and oh about 90% require logins. Obviously remembering 80 bajillion logins for each site is dumb, especially when there are more than one user name I use for each site. So to make life easier, I drew up a nifty JSP app that stores all of my logins in a DB table and creates a user interface for the specific page I want to visit. Each page has a button that sends a username, password into the id parameters of the html inputs. Problem: I can get the usernames and other info to show up just dandy, but when I try and send a password to a password field, it seems that nothing gets received by the page I'm trying to hit. Is there some ninja stuff I need to be doing here or is it just not easily possible? Basically this is what I do now: http://addresshere/support?loginname=steveoooo&loginpass=passwordhere and some of my html looks like this: <form name="userform" method="post" action="index.jsp" > <input type="hidden" name="submit_login" value="y"> <table width="100%"> <tr class="main"> <td width="100" nowrap>Username:</td> <td><input type="text" name="loginname" value="" size="30" maxlength="64"></td> </tr> <tr class="main"> <td>Password: </font></td> <td><input type="password" name="loginpass" value="" size="30" maxlength="64"></td> </tr> <tr class="main"> <td><center><input type="submit" name="submit" value="Login"></center></td> </tr> </table> </form> Any suggestions?

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  • Using ImageMagick to create an image from a PDF...efficiently

    - by bigsweater
    I'm using ImageMagick to create a tiny JPG thumbnail image of an already-uploaded PDF. The code works fine. It's a WordPress widget, though this isn't necessarily WordPress specific. I'm unfamiliar with ImageMagick, so I was hoping somebody could tell me if this looks terrible or isn't following some best practices of some sort, or if I'm risking crashing the server. My questions, specifically, are: Is that image cached, or does the server have to re-generate the image every time somebody views the page? If it isn't cached, what's the best way to make sure the server doesn't have to regenerate the thumbnail? I tried to create a separate folder (/thumbs) for ImageMagick to put all the images in, instead of cluttering up the WP upload folders with images of PDFs. It kept throwing a permission error, despite 777 permissions on the folder in my testing environment. Why? Do the source/destination directories have to be the same? Am I doing anything incorrectly/inefficiently here that needs to be improved? The whole widget is on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/WnSTEDm7 Relevant code: <?php if ( $url ) { $pdf = $url; $info = pathinfo($pdf); $filename = basename($pdf,'.'.$info['extension']); $uploads = wp_upload_dir(); $file_path = str_replace( $uploads['baseurl'], $uploads['basedir'], $url ); $dest_path = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $file_path ); $dest_url = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $pdf ); exec("convert \"{$file_path}[0]\" -colorspace RGB -geometry 60 $dest_path"); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="widgetImg"> <p><a href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>"><?php echo "<img src='".$dest_url."' alt='".$filename."' class='blueBorder' />"; ?></a></p> </div> <div class="widgetText"> <?php echo wpautop( $desc ); ?> <p><a class="downloadLink" href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>">Download</a></p> </div> </div> <?php } ?> As you can see, the widget grabs whatever PDF is attached to the current page being viewed, creates an image of the first page of the PDF, stores it, then links to it in HTML. Thanks for any and all help!

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  • How do I find the Next Closest Date to today from a list of dates in a Plist on iOS?

    - by user1173823
    Situation: In short, I have a football schedule. I would like to use a custom cell which provides more info for only the next game date in the schedule. Issue: How do I find only the next closest game in the schedule (for iOS)? I've watched the WWDC 2013 video for "Solutions to Common Date and Time Issues" however this primarily applies to the Mac. I've searched numerous posts here and some are close but not what I need to find ONLY the next date from my list of dates in the schedule. From other posts I see where I can compare two specific dates, but this is not what I want to do. I want to find the next closest date that is equal to or after today from a list of dates. This is where I am now. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //Populate the table from the plist NSDictionary *season = _schedContentArray[indexPath.section]; NSArray *schedule = season[@"Schedule"]; NSDictionary *game = schedule[indexPath.row]; //find the closest game date after today's date ?? NSString *gameDateStr = game[@"GameDate"]; NSCalendar *calendar = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; dateFormatter.calendar=calendar; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"MM/dd/yy"]; NSDate *today = [NSDate date]; NSDate *gameDate = [dateFormatter dateFromString:gameDateStr]; //NSString *nextGame = NSLog(@"game date is %@",gameDate); The NSLog returns the game dates (except for the open date): 2013-11-11 16:10:05.979 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-08-31 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.982 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-07 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.985 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is (null) 2013-11-11 16:10:05.987 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.988 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-28 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.990 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-05 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.992 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-12 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.993 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.995 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-26 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.996 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-02 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.998 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-09 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.000 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-14 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.001 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-23 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.003 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-30 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.005 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-12-07 05:00:00 +0000 Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide. This seems like it should be simple but has been fairly frustrating. Let me know if you need additional info.

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  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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