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  • NullReferenceException when testing DefaultModelBinder.

    - by Byron Sommardahl
    I'm developing a project using BDD/TDD techniques and I'm trying my best to stay the course. A problem I just ran into is unit testing the DefaultModelBinder. I'm using mspec to write my tests. I have a class like this that I want to bind to: public class EmailMessageInput : IMessageInput { public object Recipient { get; set; } public string Body { get; set; } } Here's how I'm building my spec context. I'm building a fake form collection and stuffing it into a bindingContext object. public abstract class given_a_controller_with_valid_email_input : given_a_controller_context { Establish additional_context = () => { var form = new FormCollection { new NameValueCollection { { "EmailMessageInput.Recipient", "[email protected]"}, { "EmailMessageInput.Body", "Test body." } } }; _bindingContext = new ModelBindingContext { ModelName = "EmailMessageInput", ValueProvider = form }; _modelBinder = new DefaultModelBinder(); }; protected static ModelBindingContext _bindingContext; protected static DefaultModelBinder _modelBinder; } public abstract class given_a_controller_context { protected static MessageController _controller; Establish context = () => { _controller = new MessageController(); }; } Finally, my spec throws an null reference exception when I execute .BindModel() from inside one of my specs: Because of = () => { _model = _modelBinder.BindModel(_controller.ControllerContext, _bindingContext); }; Any clue what it could be? Feel free to ask me for more info, if needed. I might have taken something for granted.

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  • How to use Object.GetHashCode() on a type that overrides GetHashCode()

    - by Jimmy
    Hi, I have a class A that implements IEquatable<, using its fields (say, A.b and A.c) for implementing/overriding Equals() and overriding GetHashCode(), and everything works fine, 99% of the time. Class A is part of a hierarchy (class B, C) that all inherit from interface D; they can all be stored together in a dictionary Dictionary, thus it's convenient when they all carry their own default Equals()/GetHashCode(). However, while constructing A I sometime need to do some work to get the values for A.b and A.c; while that's happening, I want to store a reference to the instance that's being built. In that case, I don't want to use the default Equals()/GetHashCode() overrides provided by A. Thus, I was thinking of implementing a ReferenceEqualityComparer, that's meant to force the use of Object's Equals()/GetHashCode(): private class ReferenceEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return System.Object.ReferenceEquals(x, y); } public int GetHashCode(T obj) { // what goes here? I want to do something like System.Object.GetHashCode(obj); } #endregion } The question is, since A overrides Object.GetHashCode(), how can I (outside of A) call Object.GetHashCode() for an instance of A? One way of course would be for A to not implement IEquatable< and always supply an IEqualityComparer< to any dictionary that I create, but I'm hoping for a different answer. Thanks

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  • How can i inject servletcontext in spring

    - by M.R.
    I need to write a junit test for a rather complex application which runs in a tomcat. I wrote a class which builds up my spring context. private static ApplicationContext springContext = null; springContext = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( new String[] {"beans"....}); In the application there is a call: public class myClass implements ServletContextAware { .... final String folder = servletContext.getRealPath("/example"); ... } which breaks everything, because the ServletContext is null. I have started to build a mock object: static ServletConfig servletConfigMock = createMock(ServletConfig.class); static ServletContext servletContextMock = createMock(ServletContext.class); @BeforeClass public static void setUpBeforeClass() throws Exception { expect(servletConfigMock.getServletContext()).andReturn(servletContextMock).anyTimes(); expect(servletContextMock.getRealPath("/example")).andReturn("...fulllpath").anyTimes(); replay(servletConfigMock); replay(servletContextMock); } Is there a simple methode to inject the ServletContext or to start the tomcat with a deployment descriptor at the runtime of the junit test? I am using: spring, maven, tomcat 6 and easymock for the mock objects.

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  • C++ Swig Python (Embedded Python in C++) works in Release but not in Debug

    - by sambha
    Platform: Windows 7, 64 bit (x64), Visual Studio 2008 I chose Python & Swig binding as the scripting environment of the application. As a prototype, created a simple VS solution with main() which initializes Python (Py_Initalize, Py_setPyHome, etc) & executes test.py. In the same solution created another project which is a DLL of a simple class. Used SWIG to wrap this class. This DLL is the _MyClasses.pyd. test.py creates the objects of my class & calls its member functions. All this works like a charm in the Release mode. But does not work in Debug mode (even tried banging my head on the laptop ;-) ). Output of my work looks like this (in both release & debug): x64 -debug - _MyClasses.pyd - MyClasses.py - test.exe - test.py - python26.dll - python26_d.dll Note that the debug version is linked against python26_d.lib. Had to build python myself for this! test.py import MyClasses print "ello" m = MyClasses.Male("John Doe", 25) print m.getType() Male is the C++ class. The problem: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 6, in <module> import MyClasses File "...\x64\Debug\MyClasses.py", line 25, in <module> _MyClasses = swig_import_helper() File "...\x64\Debug\MyClasses.py", line 17, in swig_imp ort_helper import _MyClasses ImportError: No module named _MyClasses [15454 refs] I am used to Makefiles & am new to Visual Studio. I dont know who the culprit is here: Swig, The debug build of Python, Visual Studio, my stupidity. Thank you in advance. It will be a great help.

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  • Having trouble with extension methods for byte arrays

    - by Dave
    I'm working with a device that sends back an image, and when I request an image, there is some undocumented information that comes before the image data. I was only able to realize this by looking through the binary data and identifying the image header information inside. I've been able to make everything work fine by writing a method that takes a byte[] and returns another byte[] with all of this preamble "stuff" removed. However, what I really want is an extension method so I can write image_buffer.RemoveUpToByteArray(new byte[] { 0x42, 0x4D }); instead of byte[] new_buffer = RemoveUpToByteArray( image_buffer, new byte[] { 0x42, 0x4D }); I first tried to write it like everywhere else I've seen online: public static class MyExtensionMethods { public static void RemoveUpToByteArray(this byte[] buffer, byte[] header) { ... } } but then I get an error complaining that there isn't an extension method where the first parameter is a System.Array. Weird, everyone else seems to do it this way, but okay: public static class MyExtensionMethods { public static void RemoveUpToByteArray(this Array buffer, byte[] header) { ... } } Great, that takes now, but still doesn't compile. It doesn't compile because Array is an abstract class and my existing code that gets called after calling RemoveUpToByteArray used to work on byte arrays. I could rewrite my subsequent code to work with Array, but I am curious -- what am I doing wrong that prevents me from just using byte[] as the first parameter in my extension method?

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  • XAML Binding to complex value objects

    - by Gus
    I have a complex value object class that has 1) a number or read-only properties; 2) a private constructor; and 3) a number of static singleton instance properties [so the properties of a ComplexValueObject never change and an individual value is instantiated once in the application's lifecycle]. public class ComplexValueClass { /* A number of read only properties */ private readonly string _propertyOne; public string PropertyOne { get { return _propertyOne; } } private readonly string _propertyTwo; public string PropertyTwo { get { return _propertyTwo; } } /* a private constructor */ private ComplexValueClass(string propertyOne, string propertyTwo) { _propertyOne = propertyOne; _propertyTwo = PropertyTwo; } /* a number of singleton instances */ private static ComplexValueClass _complexValueObjectOne; public static ComplexValueClass ComplexValueObjectOne { get { if (_complexValueObjectOne == null) { _complexValueObjectOne = new ComplexValueClass("string one", "string two"); } return _complexValueObjectOne; } } private static ComplexValueClass _complexValueObjectTwo; public static ComplexValueClass ComplexValueObjectTwo { get { if (_complexValueObjectTwo == null) { _complexValueObjectTwo = new ComplexValueClass("string three", "string four"); } return _complexValueObjectTwo; } } } I have a data context class that looks something like this: public class DataContextClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { private ComplexValueClass _complexValueClass; public ComplexValueClass ComplexValueObject { get { return _complexValueClass; } set { _complexValueClass = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ComplexValueObject")); } } } I would like to write a XAML binding statement to a property on my complex value object that updates the UI whenever the entire complex value object changes. What is the best and/or most concise way of doing this? I have something like: <Object Value="{Binding ComplexValueObject.PropertyOne}" /> but the UI does not update when ComplexValueObject as a whole changes.

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  • nHibernate Domain Model and Mapping Files in Separate Projects

    - by Blake Blackwell
    Is there a way to separate out the domain objects and mapping files into two separate projects? I would like to create one project called MyCompany.MyProduct.Core that contains my domain model, and another project that is called MyCompany.MYProduct.Data.Oracle that contains my Oracle data mappings. However, when I try to unit test this I get the following error message: Named query 'GetClients' not found. Here is my mapping file: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core" namespace="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core" > <class name="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core.Client" table="MY_CLIENT" lazy="false"> <id name="ClientId" column="ClientId"></id> <property name="ClientName" column="ClientName" /> <loader query-ref="GetClients"/> </class> <sql-query name="GetClients" callable="true"> <return class="Client" /> call procedure MyPackage.GetClients(:int_SummitGroupId) </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> Here is my unit test: try { var cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.Configure(); cfg.AddAssembly( typeof( Client ).Assembly ); ISessionFactory sessionFactory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); IStatelessSession session = sessionFactory.OpenStatelessSession(); IQuery query = session.GetNamedQuery( "GetClients" ); query.SetParameter( "int_SummitGroupId", 3173 ); IList<Client> clients = query.List<Client>(); Assert.AreNotEqual( 0, clients.Count ); } catch( Exception ex ) { throw ex; } I think I may be improperly referencing the assembly, because if I do put the domain model object in the MyComapny.MyProduct.Data.Oracle class it works. Only when I separate out in to two projects do I run into this problem.

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  • WPF binding fails with custom add and remove accessors for INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged

    - by emddudley
    I have a scenario which is causing strange behavior with WPF data binding and INotifyPropertyChanged. I want a private member of the data binding source to handle the INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged event. I get some exceptions which haven't helped me debug, even when I have "Enable .NET Framework source stepping" checked in Visual Studio's options: A first chance exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in mscorlib.dll A first chance exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in mscorlib.dll A first chance exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in PresentationCore.dll Here's the source code: XAML <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="TestApplication.MainWindow" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}" Height="100" Width="100"> <StackPanel> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding Path=CheckboxIsChecked}" Content="A" /> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding Path=CheckboxIsChecked}" Content="B" /> </StackPanel> </Window> Normal implementation works public partial class MainWindow : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public bool CheckboxIsChecked { get { return this.mCheckboxIsChecked; } set { this.mCheckboxIsChecked = value; PropertyChangedEventHandler handler = this.PropertyChanged; if (handler != null) handler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("CheckboxIsChecked")); } } private bool mCheckboxIsChecked = false; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } } Desired implementation doesn't work public partial class MainWindow : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged { add { lock (this.mHandler) { this.mHandler.PropertyChanged += value; } } remove { lock (this.mHandler) { this.mHandler.PropertyChanged -= value; } } } public bool CheckboxIsChecked { get { return this.mHandler.CheckboxIsChecked; } set { this.mHandler.CheckboxIsChecked = value; } } private HandlesPropertyChangeEvents mHandler = new HandlesPropertyChangeEvents(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } public class HandlesPropertyChangeEvents : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public bool CheckboxIsChecked { get { return this.mCheckboxIsChecked; } set { this.mCheckboxIsChecked = value; PropertyChangedEventHandler handler = this.PropertyChanged; if (handler != null) handler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("CheckboxIsChecked")); } } private bool mCheckboxIsChecked = false; } }

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  • Overriding Only Some Default Parameters in ActionScript

    - by TheDarkIn1978
    i have a function which has all optional arguments. is it possible to override a an argument of a function without supplying the first? in the code below, i'd like to keep most of the default arguments for the drawSprite function, and only override the last argument, which is the sprite's color. but how can i call the object? DrawSprite(0x00FF00) clearly will not work. //Main Class package { import DrawSprite; import flash.display.Sprite; public class Start extends Sprite { public function Start():void { var myRect:DrawSprite = new DrawSprite(0x00FF00) addChild(myRect); } } } //Draw Sprite Class package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.Graphics; public class DrawSprite extends Sprite { private static const DEFAULT_WIDTH:Number = 100; private static const DEFAULT_HEIGHT:Number = 200; private static const DEFAULT_COLOR:Number = 0x000000; public function DrawSprite(spriteWidth:Number = DEFAULT_WIDTH, spriteHeight:Number = DEFAULT_HEIGHT, spriteColor:Number = DEFAULT_COLOR):void { graphics.beginFill(spriteColor, 1.0); graphics.drawRect(0, 0, spriteWidth, spriteHeight); graphics.endFill(); } } }

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  • hibernate3-maven-plugin dependencies for newer version of hibernate

    - by Samuel
    I would like to use hibernate-3.5-1.Final along with this plugin, what should be my dependencies here. It seems to be picking up a older set of jars and failing right now. <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>hibernate3-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> </plugin> EDIT1: [INFO] class org.hibernate.cfg.ExtendedMappings has interface org.hibernate .cfg.Mappings as super class [INFO] -------------------------------------------------------------------- ---- [INFO] Trace java.lang.IncompatibleClassChangeError: class org.hibernate.cfg.ExtendedMap pings has interface org.hibernate.cfg.Mappings as super class at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:621) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.ja va:124) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(URLClassLoader.java:260) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(URLClassLoader.java:56) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:195) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at org.codehaus.classworlds.RealmClassLoader.loadClassDirect(RealmC lassLoader.java:195) at org.codehaus.classworlds.DefaultClassRealm.loadClass(DefaultClas sRealm.java:255) at org.codehaus.classworlds.RealmClassLoader.loadClass(RealmClassLo ader.java:214) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) at org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.createExtendedMappings (AnnotationConfiguration.java:187) at org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.secondPassCompile(Anno tationConfiguration.java:277) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.buildMappings(Configuration.java :1206) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildMappings(Ejb3Configurat ion.java:1226) at org.hibernate.ejb.EventListenerConfigurator.configure(EventListe nerConfigurator.java:173) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.configure(Ejb3Configuration. java:854) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.configure(Ejb3Configuration. java:191) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.configure(Ejb3Configuration. java:253)

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  • Passing Control's Value to Modal Popup

    - by Sherwin Valdez
    Hello, Just would like know how to pass textbox value to a modal popup after clicking a button using ModalPopUpExtender in ASP.NET, I've tried these codes but seems that I have no luck :( <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button1.Attributes.Add("onclick", "showModalPopup(); return false;"); } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick='showModalPopup(); return false;' /> <cc1:ModalPopupExtender ID="ModalPopupExtender1" runat="server" TargetControlID="Button1" PopupControlID="Panel1" CancelControlID="btnCancel" OkControlID="btnOkay" BackgroundCssClass="ModalPopupBG"> </cc1:ModalPopupExtender> <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" Style="display: none" runat="server"> <div class="HellowWorldPopup"> <div class="PopupHeader" id="PopupHeader"> Header</div> <div class="PopupBody"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server"></asp:Label> </div> <div class="Controls"> <input id="btnOkay" type="button" value="Done" /> <input id="btnCancel" type="button" value="Cancel" /> </div> </div> </asp:Panel> javascript function showModalPopup() { //show the ModalPopupExtender var value; value = document.getElementById("TextBox1").value; $get("<%=Label1.ClientID %>").value = value; $find("<%=ModalPopupExtender1.ClientID %>").show(); } I wonder what I miss out :(, Thanks and I hope someone could help me :)

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  • Any way to identify a redirect when using jQuery's $.ajax() or $.getScript() methods?

    - by Bungle
    Within my company's online application, we've set up a JSONP-based API that returns some data that is used by a bookmarklet I'm developing. Here is a quick test page I set up that hits the API URL using jQuery's $.ajax() method: http://troy.onespot.com/static/3915/index.html If you look at the requests using Firebug's "Net" tab (or the like), you'll see that what's happening is that the URL is requested successfully, but since our app redirects any unauthorized users to a login page, the login page is also requested by the browser and seemingly interpreted as JavaScript. This inevitably causes an exception since the login page is HTML, not JavaScript. Basically, I'm looking for any sort of hook to determine when the request results in a redirect - some way to determine if the URL resolved to a JSONP response (which will execute a method I've predefined in the bookmarklet script) or if it resulted in a redirect. I tried wrapping the $.ajax() method in a try {} catch(e) {} block, but that doesn't trap the exception, I'm assuming because the requests were successful, just not the parsing of the login page as JavaScript. Is there anywhere I could use a try {} catch(e) {} block, or any property of $.ajax() that might allow me to hone in on the exception or otherwise determine that I've been redirected? I actually doubt this is possible, since $.getScript() (or the equivalent setup of $.ajax()) just loads a script dynamically, and can't inspect the response headers since it's cross-domain and not truly AJAX: http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.getScript/ My alternative would be to just fire off the $.ajax() for a period of time until I either get the JSONP callback or don't, and in the latter case, assume the user is not logged in and prompt them to do so. I don't like that method, though, since it would result in a lot of unnecessary requests to the app server, and would also pile up the JavaScript exceptions in the meantime. Thanks for any suggestions!

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  • Wrap CKEditor WYSYWG content with additional (non editable) HTML to apply element specific formattin

    - by Danlance
    I am attempting to have the WYSYWG view within CKEDITOR display with the same formatting as it will within the final rendered HTML. I am currently applying the correct CSS through specifying the contentsCss property when loading CKEditor. This works fine for some of the formatting, however a lot of the css formatting is applied to elements which will surround the edited HTML within the final rendered page - and so the WYSYWG view is not consistent with the final rendered view. I would like to be able to specify HTML code at runtime which will wrap the editable HTML content within the CKEditor WYSYWG view - but not have this be part of the editable code, or rendered within the HTML code. For instance, currently the HTML code surrounding the editable content is: <body spellcheck="false" class="cke_show_borders"> [Editable Content] </body> Where as in one particular instance I would it like it to render like this: <body spellcheck="false" class="cke_show_borders"><div id="container_everything"><div id="content_container"><div class="introduction_container"><div class="introduction_text"> [Editable Content] </div></div></div></div></body> I need to be able to specify different prefix and suffix code blocks at runtime, as specific HTML depends on the context of the element being edited. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks.

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  • Binding to TreeView in WPF

    - by KrisTrip
    I am trying to bind some data from a class instance to a TreeView. My code is as follows: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); Parent myClass = new Parent(); this.DataContext = myClass; } } public class Parent { public String Name; public List<string> Children = new List<string>(); private static int count = 0; public Parent() { this.Name = "Test"; for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { Children.Add(i.ToString()); } } } And the XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:loc="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="MainWindow" Height="287" Width="525"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <TreeView Name="TreeView" ItemsSource="{Binding}"> <TreeView.ItemTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}"/> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.ItemTemplate> </TreeView> </StackPanel> </Window> Nothing shows up in my TreeView. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Dropdown menu disappears in IE7

    - by Justine
    A weird problem with a dropdown menu in IE7: http://screenr.com/SNM The dropdown disappears when the mouse moves to a part that hovers above other layers. The HTML structure looks like this: <div class="header"> <ul class="nav> <li><a href="">item</a> <ul><li><a href="">sub-item</a></li></ul> </li> </ul> </div><!-- /header--> <div class="featured"></div> <div class="content"></div> The sub-menu is positioned absolutely and has visibility:hidden, then it's set to visible using jQuery, like so: $(".header ul.nav li").hover(function(){ $(this).addClass("hover"); $('ul:first',this).css('visibility', 'visible'); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("hover"); $('ul:first',this).css('visibility', 'hidden'); }); I had a problem with the dropdown hiding under other content in IE7, fixed easily by giving the z-index to its parent and other divs: *:first-child+html .header { position: relative; z-index: 2 !important; } *:first-child+html .content, *:first-child+html .main, *:first-child+html .primary *:first-child+html .featured { position: relative; z-index: 1 !important; } Now, I have no idea why the menu disappears when hovered over other divs, you can view the site live here: http://dev.gentlecode.net/ama/ubezpieczenia.html I would love any help, been staring at this code for ages now without any solution. I guess it's just me tunnel visioning already... Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Hibernate one-to-one mapping

    - by Andrey Yaskulsky
    I have one-to-one hibernate mapping between class Student and class Points: @Entity @Table(name = "Users") public class Student implements IUser { @Id @Column(name = "id") private int id; @Column(name = "name") private String name; @Column(name = "password") private String password; @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, mappedBy = "student") private Points points; @Column(name = "type") private int type = getType(); //gets and sets... @Entity @Table(name = "Points") public class Points { @GenericGenerator(name = "generator", strategy = "foreign", parameters = @Parameter(name = "property", value = "student")) @Id @GeneratedValue(generator = "generator") @Column(name = "id", unique = true, nullable = false) private int Id; @OneToOne @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn private Student student; //gets and sets And then i do: Student student = new Student(); student.setId(1); student.setName("Andrew"); student.setPassword("Password"); Points points = new Points(); points.setPoints(0.99); student.setPoints(points); points.setStudent(student); Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.save(student); session.getTransaction().commit(); And hibernate saves student in the table but not saves corresponding points. Is it OK? Should i save points separately?

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  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

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  • How does virtual inheritance solve the diamond problem?

    - by cambr
    class A { public: void eat(){ cout<<"A";} }; class B: virtual public A { public: void eat(){ cout<<"B";} }; class C: virtual public A { public: void eat(){ cout<<"C";} }; class D: public B,C { public: void eat(){ cout<<"D";} }; int main(){ A *a = new D(); a->eat(); } I understand the diamond problem, and above piece of code does not have that problem. How exatly does virtual inheritance solve the problem? What I understand: When I say A *a = new D();, the compiler wants to know if an object of type D can be assigned to a pointer of type A, but it has two paths that it can follow, but cannot decide by itself. So, how does virtual inheritance resolve the issue (help compiler take the decision)?

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  • Implementing A Static NSOutlineView

    - by spamguy
    I'm having a hard time scraping together enough snippets of knowledge to implement an NSOutlineView with a static, never-changing structure defined in an NSArray. This link has been great, but it's not helping me grasp submenus. I'm thinking they're just nested NSArrays, but I have no clear idea. Let's say we have an NSArray inside an NSArray, defined as NSArray *subarray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"2.1", @"2.2", @"2.3", @"2.4", @"2.5", nil]; NSArray *ovStructure = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"1", subarray, @"3", nil]; The text is defined in outlineView:objectValueForTableColumn:byItem:. - (id)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov objectValueForTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn byItem:(id)ovItem { if ([[[tableColumn headerCell] stringValue] compare:@"Key"] == NSOrderedSame) { // Return the key for this item. First, get the parent array or dictionary. // If the parent is nil, then that must be root, so we'll get the root // dictionary. id parentObject = [ov parentForItem:ovItem] ? [ov parentForItem:ovItem] : ovStructure; if ([parentObject isKindOfClass:[NSArray class]]) { // Arrays don't have keys (usually), so we have to use a name // based on the index of the object. NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", ovItem]); //return [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Item %d", [parentObject indexOfObject:ovItem]]; return (NSString *) [ovStructure objectAtIndex:[ovStructure indexOfObject:ovItem]]; } } else { // Return the value for the key. If this is a string, just return that. if ([ovItem isKindOfClass:[NSString class]]) { return ovItem; } else if ([ovItem isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { return [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", [ovItem count]]; } else if ([ovItem isKindOfClass:[NSArray class]]) { return [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", [ovItem count]]; } } return nil; } The result is '1', '(' (expandable), and '3'. NSLog shows the array starting with '(', hence the second item. Expanding it causes a crash due to going 'beyond bounds.' I tried using parentForItem: but couldn't figure out what to compare the result to. What am I missing?

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  • Redirection on the last Slideshow-Element with Jquery

    - by Agssl
    Hi, I'm very new to Jquery and want to realize a manual slideshow with a page-redirect on the last "next"-button. I detect the last Slide-Element with CSS-Classes and then I want to add a Class to the next button to declare that it is the last next-button of the whole Slideshow. The half of my Code works :) – If I navigate to the last Slide-Element, Jquery adds the Class "last" to the button and if I click on the button with this Class, I'm redirected to the next page – that's what I want. But if I navigate to the last Slide-Element, then click a few times the "prev"-button and then again the next button, I'm instantly redirected although the Class "last" was removed. Thanks in advance and sorry for my bad english. Here's my Code: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#image_nav a:first").attr('id', 'firstSlide'); $("#image_nav a:last").attr('id', 'lastSlide'); $(".dritte_ebene li:first").attr('id', 'firstNavi'); $(".dritte_ebene li:last").attr('id', 'lastNavi'); //Redirect to the next page $("a").click(function(){ if ($("#lastSlide").hasClass("activeSlide")) { $("#weiter").addClass("last"); $('.slide').cycle('pause'); $(".last").click(function(){ window.location.replace("[+PJN_next+]"); }); } }); //Remove "last" if prev is clicked $('#zurueck').click(function(){ $("#weiter").removeClass("last"); }); });

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  • How to display text outside of the box of <div></div>

    - by Steven
    <div class="signup"> <div>Tenxian ???????????</div><br/> </div> <br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/> <div align="center">@2009 Tenxian &nbsp;&nbsp;???? </div><br/> <div align="center"><a href="/en/bidding/index.php">Tenxian·English</a>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp; <a href="/cn/bid/index.php">??·??</a></div><br/><br/> .signup { border: 1px solid #99CCFF; position: absolute; width: 700px; height:450px; left: 50px; right: auto; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 13px; } The problem is that @2009 Tenxian ???? Tenxian·English ??·?? is displayed in the box of <div class="signup"></div>, how to display it out of the box of <div class="signup"></div>? I want to display @2009 Tenxian ???? Tenxian·English ??·?? at the bottom of a web page and outside of the box of <div class="signup"></div> . How to do it?

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  • What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

    - by Carlos Loth
    Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

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  • Defining jUnit Test cases Correctly

    - by Epitaph
    I am new to Unit Testing and therefore wanted to do some practical exercise to get familiar with the jUnit framework. I created a program that implements a String multiplier public String multiply(String number1, String number2) In order to test the multiplier method, I created a test suite consisting of the following test cases (with all the needed integer parsing, etc) @Test public class MultiplierTest { Multiplier multiplier = new Multiplier(); // Test for 2 positive integers assertEquals("Result", 5, multiplier.multiply("5", "1")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 0 assertEquals("Result", 0, multiplier.multiply("5", "0")); // Test for 1 positive and 1 negative integer assertEquals("Result", -1, multiplier.multiply("-1", "1")); // Test for 2 negative integers assertEquals("Result", 10, multiplier.multiply("-5", "-2")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 1 non number assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("x", "1")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 1 empty field assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("5", "")); // Test for 2 empty fields assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("", "")); In a similar fashion, I can create test cases involving boundary cases (considering numbers are int values) or even imaginary values. 1) But, what should be the expected value for the last 3 test cases above? (a special number indicating error?) 2) What additional test cases did I miss? 3) Is assertEquals() method enough for testing the multiplier method or do I need other methods like assertTrue(), assertFalse(), assertSame() etc 4) Is this the RIGHT way to go about developing test cases? How am I "exactly" benefiting from this exercise? 5)What should be the ideal way to test the multiplier method? I am pretty clueless here. If anyone can help answer these queries I'd greatly appreciate it. Thank you.

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  • Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

    - by zengr
    I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

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  • Poor Ruby on Rails performance when using nested :include

    - by Jeremiah Peschka
    I have three models that look something like this: class Bucket < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :entries end class Entry < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :submission belongs_to :bucket end class Submission < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :entries belongs_to :user end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :submissions end When I retrieve a collection of entries doing something like: @entries = Entry.find(:all, :conditions => ['entries.bucket_id = ?', @bucket], :include => :submission) The performance is pretty quick although I get a large number of extra queries because the view uses the Submission.user object. However, if I add the user to the :include statement, the performance becomes terrible and it takes over a minute to return a total of 50 entries and submissions spread across 5 users. When I run the associated SQL commands, they complete in well under a second. @entries = Entry.find(:all, :conditions => ['entries.bucket_id = ?', @bucket], :include => {:submission => :user}) Why would this second command have such terrible performance compared to the first?

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