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  • How can I execute an insert with data from a repeater-generated form whose data source is SQL?

    - by Duke
    I'm storing multilingual data in a database whose model is language normalized (like this). For this particular problem the key for the table in question consists of a value entered by the user and a language from the language table. I'd like to dynamically generate a form with input fields for all available languages. The user inputs a key value then goes down a list of field sets filling out the information in each language. In this case there are two fields for every language, a name and a value (the value is language dependent.) I have all existing information displayed on the page with a gridview, below which I have a formview that is always in insert mode allowing the user to enter new data. Within the formview I have a repeater with an SQLDataSource that gets a list of available languages: <asp:Repeater ID="SessionLocaleRepeater" runat="server" DataSourceID="LocaleSQLDataSource" EnableViewState="false"> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <th scope="row"><%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "LocaleName") %></th> <td>Name:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text="" /></td> <td>Number:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server" Text="" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I figured that in order to insert this data I'd have to execute my sql server insert stored procedure for each item in the repeater; I am trying to use the formview inserting event. The problem is that the repeater isn't databound to the SQLDataSource until after the formview inserting event (inserting event is in PostBackEvent and databind is in PreRender), which means the controls and data are not available when the inserting event is fired. I tried databinding the repeater during the formview inserting event; the controls were available but the data was not. Would this have something to do with how/when the viewstate information is re-added to the controls? From what I've read, Viewstate is one of the first things to be restored. Given the order of events how can I get the data I need for the insert? I'm open to other solutions to creating dynamic input controls, but they will have to query the database to determine how many sets of controls to create.

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • CultureManager issue

    - by Serge
    I have a bug I don't understand. While the following works fine: Resources.Classes.AFieldFormula.DirectFieldFormula this one throws an exception: new ResourceManager(typeof(Resources.Classes.AFieldFormula)).GetString("DirectFieldFormula"); Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure \"Resources.Classes.AFieldFormula.resources\" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly \"MygLogWeb\" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. How comes? Resource designer.cs file: //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.18408 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace Resources.Classes { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] public class AFieldFormula { private static global::System.Resources.ResourceManager resourceMan; private static global::System.Globalization.CultureInfo resourceCulture; [global::System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessageAttribute("Microsoft.Performance", "CA1811:AvoidUncalledPrivateCode")] internal AFieldFormula() { } /// <summary> /// Returns the cached ResourceManager instance used by this class. /// </summary> [global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableAttribute(global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableState.Advanced)] public static global::System.Resources.ResourceManager ResourceManager { get { if (object.ReferenceEquals(resourceMan, null)) { global::System.Resources.ResourceManager temp = new global::System.Resources.ResourceManager("MygLogWeb.Classes.AFieldFormula", typeof(AFieldFormula).Assembly); resourceMan = temp; } return resourceMan; } } /// <summary> /// Overrides the current thread's CurrentUICulture property for all /// resource lookups using this strongly typed resource class. /// </summary> [global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableAttribute(global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableState.Advanced)] public static global::System.Globalization.CultureInfo Culture { get { return resourceCulture; } set { resourceCulture = value; } } /// <summary> /// Looks up a localized string similar to Direct field. /// </summary> public static string DirectFieldFormula { get { return ResourceManager.GetString("DirectFieldFormula", resourceCulture); } } } }

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  • Closing a process that open in code

    - by AmirHossein
    I create a WordTemplate with some placeholders for field,in code I insert value in this placeholders and show it to user. protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string DocFilePath = ""; //string FilePath = System.Windows.Forms.Application.StartupPath; object fileName = @"[...]\asset\word templates\FormatPeygiri1.dot"; DocFilePath = fileName.ToString(); FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(DocFilePath); if (fi.Exists) { object readOnly = false; object isVisible = true; object PaperNO = "PaperNO"; object PaperDate = "PaperDate"; object Peyvast = "Peyvast"; object To = "To"; object ShoName = "ShoName"; object DateName = "DateName"; Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Document aDoc = WordApp.Documents.Open(ref fileName, ref missing, ref readOnly, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref isVisible, ref isVisible, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref PaperNO).Result = TextBox_PaperNO.Text; string strPaperDate = string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2}", PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainDay(DateTimePicker_PaperDate.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainMonth(DateTimePicker_PaperDate.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainYear(DateTimePicker_PaperDate.SelectedDate)); WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref PaperDate).Result = strPaperDate; WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref Peyvast).Result = TextBox_Peyvast.Text; WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref To).Result = TextBox_To.Text; ; WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref ShoName).Result = TextBox_ShoName.Text; string strDateName = string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2}", PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainDay(DateTimePicker_DateName.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainMonth(DateTimePicker_DateName.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainYear(DateTimePicker_DateName.SelectedDate)); WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref DateName).Result = strDateName; aDoc.Activate(); WordApp.Visible = true; aDoc = null; WordApp = null; } else { MessageBox1.Show("File Not Exist!"); } it work good and successfully! but when a user close the Word,her Process not closed and exists in Task Manager Process list. this process name is WINWORD.exe I know that I can close process whit code [process.Kill()] but I don't know which process that I should to kill. if I want to kill all process with name [WINWORD.exe] all Word window closed.but I want to close specific Word window and kill process that I opened. How to do it?

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  • How do I use Ruby metaprogramming to refactor this common code?

    - by James Wenton
    I inherited a project with a lot of badly-written Rake tasks that I need to clean up a bit. Because the Rakefiles are enormous and often prone to bizarre nonsensical dependencies, I'm simplifying and isolating things a bit by refactoring everything to classes. Specifically, that pattern is the following: namespace :foobar do desc "Frozz the foobar." task :frozzify do unless Rake.application.lookup('_frozzify') require 'tasks/foobar' Foobar.new.frozzify end Rake.application['_frozzify'].invoke end # Above pattern repeats many times. end # Several namespaces, each with tasks that follow this pattern. In tasks/foobar.rb, I have something that looks like this: class Foobar def frozzify() # The real work happens here. end # ... Other tasks also in the :foobar namespace. end For me, this is great, because it allows me to separate the task dependencies from each other and to move them to another location entirely, and I've been able to drastically simplify things and isolate the dependencies. The Rakefile doesn't hit a require until you actually try to run a task. Previously this was causing serious issues because you couldn't even list the tasks without it blowing up. My problem is that I'm repeating this idiom very frequently. Notice the following patterns: For every namespace :xyz_abc, there is a corresponding class in tasks/... in the file tasks/[namespace].rb, with a class name that looks like XyzAbc. For every task in a particular namespace, there is an identically named method in the associated namespace class. For example, if namespace :foo_bar has a task :apples, you would expect to see def apples() ... inside the FooBar class, which itself is in tasks/foo_bar.rb. Every task :t defines a "meta-task" _t (that is, the task name prefixed with an underscore) which is used to do the actual work. I still want to be able to specify a desc-description for the tasks I define, and that will be different for each task. And, of course, I have a small number of tasks that don't follow the above pattern at all, so I'll be specifying those manually in my Rakefile. I'm sure that this can be refactored in some way so that I don't have to keep repeating the same idiom over and over, but I lack the experience to see how it could be done. Can someone give me an assist?

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  • I'm searching for a messaging platform (like XMPP) that allows tight integration with a web applicat

    - by loxs
    Hi, At the company I work for, we are building a cluster of web applications for collaboration. Things like accounting, billing, CRM etc. We are using a RESTfull technique: For database we use CouchDB Different applications communicate with one another and with the database via http. Besides, we have a single sign on solution, so that when you login in one application, you are automatically logged to the other. For all apps we use Python (Pylons). Now we need to add instant messaging to the stack. We need to support both web and desktop clients. But just being able to chat is not enough. We need to be able to achieve all of the following (and more similar things). When somebody gets assigned to a task, they must receive a message. I guess this is possible with some system daemon. There must be an option to automatically group people in groups by lots of different properties. For example, there must be groups divided both by geographical location, by company division, by job type (all the programers from different cities and different company divisions must form a group), so that one can send mass messages to a group of choice. Rooms should be automatically created and destroyed. For example when several people visit the same invoice, a room for them must be automatically created (and they must auto-join). And when all leave the invoice, the room must be destroyed. Authentication and authorization from our applications. I can implement this using custom solutions like hookbox http://hookbox.org/docs/intro.html but then I'll have lots of problems in supporting desktop clients. I have no former experience with instant messaging. I've been reading about this lately. I've been looking mostly at things like ejabberd. But it has been a hard time and I can't find whether what I want is possible at all. So I'd be happy if people with experience in this field could help me with some advice, articles, tales of what is possible etc.

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  • KnockoutJS showing a sorted list by item category

    - by Darksbane
    I just started learning knockout this week and everything has gone well except for this one issue. I have a list of items that I sort multiple ways but one of the ways I want to sort needs to have a different display than the standard list. As an example lets say I have this code var BetterListModel = function () { var self = this; food = [ { "name":"Apple", "quantity":"3", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$1", },{ "name":"Ice Cream", "quantity":"1", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$6", },{ "name":"Pear", "quantity":"2", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$2", },{ "name":"Beef", "quantity":"1", "category":"Meat", "cost":"$3", },{ "name":"Milk", "quantity":"5", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$4", }]; self.allItems = ko.observableArray(food); // Initial items // Initial sort self.sortMe = ko.observable("name"); ko.utils.compareItems = function (l, r) { if (self.sortMe() =="cost"){ return l.cost > r.cost ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="category"){ return l.category > r.category ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="quantity"){ return l.quantity > r.quantity ? 1 : -1 }else { return l.name > r.name ? 1 : -1 } }; }; ko.applyBindings(new BetterListModel()); and the HTML <p>Your values:</p> <ul class="deckContents" data-bind="foreach:allItems().sort(ko.utils.compareItems)"> <li><div style="width:100%"><div class="left" style="width:30px" data-bind="text:quantity"></div><div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:name"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:cost"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:category"></div><div style="clear:both"></div></div></li> </ul> <select data-bind="value:sortMe"> <option selected="selected" value="name">Name</option> <option value="cost">Cost</option> <option value="category">Category</option> <option value="quantity">Quantity</option> </select> </div> So I can sort these just fine by any field I might sort them by name and it will display something like this 3 Apple $1 Fruit 1 Beef $3 Meat 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy 2 Pear $2 Fruit Here is a fiddle of what I have so far http://jsfiddle.net/Darksbane/X7KvB/ This display is fine for all the sorts except the category sort. What I want is when I sort them by category to display it like this Fruit 3 Apple $1 Fruit 2 Pear $2 Fruit Meat 1 Beef $3 Meat Dairy 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy Does anyone have any idea how I might be able to display this so differently for that one sort?

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  • No Method Error Undefined method 'save' for nil:NilClass

    - by BennyB
    I'm getting this error when i try to create a "Lecture" via my Lecture controller's create method. This used to work but i went on to work on other parts of the app & then of course i come back & something is now throwing this error when a user tries to create a Lecture in my app. I'm sure its something small i'm just overlooking (been at it a while & probably need to take a break)...but I'd appreciate if someone could let me know why this is happening...let me know if i need to post anything else...thx! The error I get NoMethodError in LecturesController#create undefined method `save' for nil:NilClass Rails.root: /Users/name/Sites/rails_projects/app_name Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/lectures_controller.rb:13:in `create' My view to create a new Lecture views/lectures/new.html.erb <% provide(:title, 'Start a Lecture') %> <div class="container"> <div class="content-wrapper"> <h1>Create a Lecture</h1> <div class="row"> <div class="span 6 offset3"> <%= form_for(@lecture) do |f| %> <%= render 'shared/error_messages', :object => f.object %> <div class="field"> <%= f.text_field :title, :placeholder => "What will this Lecture be named?" %> <%= f.text_area :content, :placeholder => "Describe this Lecture & what will be learned..." %> </div> <%= f.submit "Create this Lecture", :class => "btn btn-large btn-primary" %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> </div> Then my controller where its saying the error is coming from controllers/lectures_controller.rb class LecturesController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, :only => [:create, :destroy] before_filter :correct_user, :only => :destroy def index end def new @lecture = current_user.lectures.build if signed_in? end def create if @lecture.save flash[:success] = "Lecture created!" redirect_to @lecture else @activity_items = [ ] render 'new' end end def show @lecture = Lecture.find(params[:id]) end def destroy @lecture.destroy redirect_to root_path end private def correct_user @lecture = current_user.lectures.find_by_id(params[:id]) redirect_to root_path if @lecture.nil? end

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  • jQuery - Sorting an array?

    - by Probocop
    Hi, I'm using Ajax to get some XML, and then filling in some fields on a form with the results. There is a numerical field on the form and I would like to sort the results by this number (highest first). How would I go about doing this in jQuery? My js function code is currently: function linkCounts() { ws_url = "http://archreport.epiphanydev2.co.uk/worker.php?query=linkcounts&domain="+$('#hidden_the_domain').val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: ws_url, dataType: "xml", success: function(xmlIn){ results = xmlIn.getElementsByTagName("URL"); for ( var i = 0; i < results.length; i++ ) { $("#tb_domain_linkcount_url_"+(i+1)).val($(results[i].getElementsByTagName("Page")).text()); $("#tb_domain_linkcount_num_"+(i+1)).val($(results[i].getElementsByTagName("Links")).text()); } $('#img_linkcount_worked').attr("src","/images/worked.jpg"); }, error: function(){$('#img_linkcount_worked').attr("src","/images/failed.jpg");} }); } The Links tag is the one I'm wanting to sort it on. Thanks For reference the XML that's getting returned is like the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes"?> <Response> <ResponseCode>1</ResponseCode> <ResponseStatus>OK</ResponseStatus> <ReportId>2</ReportId> <UrlChecked /> <MaxLinks>75</MaxLinks> <PagesFound>121</PagesFound> <URLs> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/author/daniel-peden/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/author/daniel-peden/page/2/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> </URLS> </Response>

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  • validation functions in google apps script is not working properly

    - by chocka
    I create a i/p form in google site using Apps Script and i did the validation using the Apps Script coding. Validation functions available in Apps script is not satisfying all the possibility of checking the error. function validate(e) { var app = UiApp.getActiveApplication(); var flag=0; var text = app.getElementById('name'); var textrequired = app.getElementById('namerequired'); var number = app.getElementById('number'); var numberrequired = app.getElementById('numberrequired'); var email = app.getElementById('email'); var emailrequired = app.getElementById('emailrequired'); var submit = app.getElementById('submit_button'); var valid = app.createClientHandler() .validateNumber(number) .validateNotInteger(text) .validateEmail(email) .forTargets(submit).setEnabled(true) .forTargets(number,text,email).setStyleAttribute("color","black") .forTargets(numberrequired,textrequired,emailrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidno = app.createClientHandler().validateNotNumber(number).validateMatches(number, '').forTargets(number).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(numberrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid No.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validno = app.createClientHandler().validateNumber(number).forTargets(number).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(numberrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidText=app.createClientHandler().validateNumber(text).validateMatches(text, '').forTargets(text).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(textrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid Name.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validText=app.createClientHandler().validateNotNumber(text).forTargets(text).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(textrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidemail=app.createClientHandler().validateNotEmail(email).validateMatches(email, '').forTargets(email).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(emailrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid Mail-Id.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validemail=app.createClientHandler().validateEmail(email).forTargets(email).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(emailrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); number.addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(validno).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidText).addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail); text.addKeyPressHandler(invalidText).addKeyPressHandler(validText).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail); email.addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail).addKeyPressHandler(validemail).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(invalidText); if (text == ''){flag = 1;} if (email == ''){flag = 1;} if (number == ''){flag = 1;} if(flag == 1){submit.setEnabled(false);} return app; } I just placed my Validation function using Apps Script. I don't know why its not satisfying all the possibilities of the validation. And also i have to do is to enable the submit button after all the fields satisfy the validation. After once it enabled, if i make any error in any field it will not get disable correctly. I wrote the coding correctly i think so. Please take a look at my validation function and give me some suggestion to make it possible. Please guide me, Thanks & Regards, chocka.

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  • Managing several custom content types from one module(drupal)

    - by Andrew
    Is it possible to declare and manage several custom content types inside one module? I'm creating a site that needs four custom content types and I'd like to manage them from one module instead of creating module for every content type. After some testing, I found out that it seems impossible. Because, unless hook_form and content type share the same name of module, drupal doesn't call hook_form. Here's how I'd like to do - function mycontent_node_info(){ return array( 'mycontent1' => array( 'name' => t('....'), 'module' => 'mycontent', 'description' => t('...), 'has_title' => TRUE, 'title_label' => t('Title'), 'has_body' => TRUE, 'body_label' => t('content body'), ), 'mycontent2' => array( ....... ), 'mycontent3' => array( ...... ), 'mycontent4' => array( ...... ), ); } function mycontent1_form(&$node){ $form['control1'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('selection 1'), '1' => t('selection 2'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control1'), ); $form['control2'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('1'), '1' => t('2'), '2' => t('3'), '3' => t('4'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control2'), ); return $form; } function mycontent2_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent3_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent4_form(&$node){ .... } Am I doing something wrong here or is not possible and there's no alternative other than creating module for every content types. I appreciate much your help.

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  • How to display an external content in my website using javascript

    - by Chris
    Hello! This is my first post! I have a question about javascript...here is my code: <html> <head> <title>Geolocation Demo</title> </head> <body> <h1>Geolocation Demo</h1> <p>Latitude: <span id="lat">0.00</span> Longitude: <span id="lon">0.00</span> City: <span id="city">Loading...</span></p> <p><a id="city_link" href="http://tinygeocoder.com/" target="_blank">View City</a></p> <p><a id="gmaps_link" href="http://maps.google.co.uk/" target="_blank">View on Google Maps</a></p> <script language="javascript"> // show the position on the page and make a google maps link function showPosition(position) { var lat = position.coords.latitude; var lon = position.coords.longitude; document.getElementById("lat").innerHTML = lat; document.getElementById("lon").innerHTML = lon; var gmaps_url = "http://maps.google.co.uk/maps?f=q&source=s_q&hl=en&geocode=&q=" + lat + "+" + lon; var city_url = "http://tinygeocoder.com/create-api.php?g=" + lat + "," + lon; document.getElementById("gmaps_link").href = gmaps_url; document.getElementById("city_link").href = city_url; } </script> </body> </html> As you can see, this script target my geolocation. Specifically, Lat and Lon are working perfectly. In addinition, i want to display and region info (like city). So, i found a website which i provide the coordinates and it returns me a region name. My question is if i can display the name of region without clicking the link "View city" but in the field "city"...is it possible to pass the webpage content (http://tinygeocoder.com/create-api.php?g=" + lat + "," + lon;) into my webpage? The content of this page is only the name as i said...no html tags! Thank you!

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  • Dynamically loaded jQuery with GreaseMonkey inconsistent on pages (refreshing seems to fix it)... do

    - by uprightnetizen
    Hi, I want a custom page analysis footer on every site I visit... so I've used a method to attach JQuery to unsafeWindow. I then create a floating footer on the page. I want to be able to call commands in a menu, do some processing, then put the results in the footer. Unfortunately it sometimes works, sometimes it doesn't. At least two alerts should happen in the printOutput function. Sometimes it only fires one, then it (crashes?) without error? On other pages, both alerts fire and it finds the element, but it doesn't add the extra text. (e.g. www.linode.com) Refreshing the page, then running the printOutput command again seems to always work. Does anyone know what's going on??? The userscript can be installed at: http://www.captionwizard.com/test/page_analysis.user.js // ==UserScript== // @name page_analysis // @namespace markspace // @description Page Analysis // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== (function() { // Add jQuery var GM_JQ = document.createElement('script'); GM_JQ.src = 'http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js'; GM_JQ.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(GM_JQ); var jqueryActive = false; //Check if jQuery's loaded function GM_wait() { if(typeof unsafeWindow.jQuery == 'undefined') { window.setTimeout(GM_wait,100); } else { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; letsJQuery(); } } GM_wait(); function letsJQuery() { jqueryActive = true; setupOutputFooter(); } /******************************* Analysis FOOTER Functions ******************************/ function printOutput(someText) { alert('printing output'); if($('div.analysis_footer').length) { alert('is here - appending'); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } else { alert('not here - trying again'); setupOutputFooter(); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } } GM_registerMenuCommand("Test Output", testOutput, "k", "control", "k" ); function testOutput() { printOutput('testing this'); } function setupOutputFooter() { $('<div class="analysis_footer">Page Analysis Footer:</div>').appendTo('body'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('position','fixed').css('bottom', '0px').css('background-color','#F8F8F8'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('width','100%').css('color','#3B3B3B').css('font-size', '0.8em'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('font-family', '"Myriad",Verdana,Arial,Helvetica,sans-serif').css('padding', '5px'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('border-top', '1px solid black').css('text-align', 'left'); } }());

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  • How to approach copying objects with smart pointers as class attributes?

    - by tomislav-maric
    From the boost library documentation I read this: Conceptually, smart pointers are seen as owning the object pointed to, and thus responsible for deletion of the object when it is no longer needed. I have a very simple problem: I want to use RAII for pointer attributes of a class that is Copyable and Assignable. The copy and assignment operations should be deep: every object should have its own copy of the actual data. Also, RTTI needs to be available for the attributes (their type may also be determined at runtime). Should I be searching for an implementation of a Copyable smart pointer (the data are small, so I don't need Copy on Write pointers), or do I delegate the copy operation to the copy constructors of my objects as shown in this answer? Which smart pointer do I choose for simple RAII of a class that is copyable and assignable? (I'm thinking that the unique_ptr with delegated copy/assignment operations to the class copy constructor and assignment operator would make a proper choice, but I am not sure) Here's a pseudocode for the problem using raw pointers, it's just a problem description, not a running C++ code: // Operation interface class ModelOperation { public: virtual void operate = (); }; // Implementation of an operation called Special class SpecialModelOperation : public ModelOperation { private: // Private attributes are present here in a real implementation. public: // Implement operation void operate () {}; }; // All operations conform to ModelOperation interface // These are possible operation names: // class MoreSpecialOperation; // class DifferentOperation; // Concrete model with different operations class MyModel { private: ModelOperation* firstOperation_; ModelOperation* secondOperation_; public: MyModel() : firstOperation_(0), secondOperation_(0) { // Forgetting about run-time type definition from input files here. firstOperation_ = new MoreSpecialOperation(); secondOperation_ = new DifferentOperation(); } void operate() { firstOperation_->operate(); secondOperation_->operate(); } ~MyModel() { delete firstOperation_; firstOperation_ = 0; delete secondOperation_; secondOperation_ = 0; } }; int main() { MyModel modelOne; // Some internal scope { // I want modelTwo to have its own set of copied, not referenced // operations, and at the same time I need RAII to work for it, // as soon as it goes out of scope. MyModel modelTwo (modelOne); } return 0; }

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  • How to setup Lucene/Solr for a B2B web app?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: 1 database per client (business customer) 5000 clients Clients have between 2 to 2000 users (avg is ~100 users/client) 100k to 10 million records per database Users need to search those records often (it's the best way to navigate their data) Possibly relevant info: Several new clients each week (any time during business hours) Multiple web servers and database servers (users can login via any web server) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. They use an index per client and store it in the client's database. I'm not sure on the details. And I'm not sure if this is a serious mod to Lucene. The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Where do you store the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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  • How do I create a loop based off this array?

    - by dmanexe
    I'm trying to process this array, first testing for the presence of a check, then extrapolating the data from quantity to return a valid price. Here's the input for fixed amounts of items, with no variable quantity. <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checked]" value="<?=$item->id?>"> <input type="hidden" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][quantity]" value="1" /> Here's the inputs for variable amounts of items. <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checked]" value="<?=$item->id?>"> <input class="item_mult" value="0" type="text" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][quantity]" /> So, the resulting array is multidimensional. Here's an output: Array ( [1] => Array ( [quantity] => 1 ) [2] => Array ( [quantity] => 1 ) [3] => Array ( [quantity] => 1 ) ... [14] => Array ( [checked] => 14 [quantity] => 999 ) ) Here's the loop I'm using to take this array and process items checked off the form in the first place. I guess the question essentially boils down to how do I structure my conditional statement to incorporate the multi-dimensional array? foreach($field as $value): if ($value['checked'] == TRUE) { $query = $this->db->get_where('items', array('id' => $value['checked']))->row(); #Test to see if quantity input is present if ($value['quantity'] == TRUE) { $newprice = $value['quantity'] * $query->price; $totals[] = $newprice; } #Just return the base value if not else { $newprice = $query->price; $totals[] = $newprice; } } else { } ?> <p><?=$query->name?> - <?=money_format('%(#10n', $newprice)?></p> <? endforeach; ?>

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  • iPad web app: Prevent input focus AFTER ajax call

    - by Mike Barwick
    So I've read around and can't for the life of me figure out of to solve my issue effectively. In short, I have a web app built for the iPad - which works as it should. However, I have an Ajax form which also submits as it should. But, after the callback and I clear/reset my form, the "iPad" automatically focuses on an input and opens the keyboard again. This is far from ideal. I managed to hack my way around it, but it's still not perfect. The code below is run on my ajax callback, which works - except there's still a flash of the keyboard quickly opening and closing. Note, my code won't work unless I use setTimeout. Also, from my understanding, document.activeElement.blur(); only works when there's a click event, so I triggered one via js. IN OTHER WORDS, HOW DO I PREVENT THE KEYBOARD FROM REOPENING AFTER AJAX CALL ON WEB APP? PS: Ajax call works fine and doesn't open the keyboard in Safari on the iPad, just web app mode. Here's my code: hideKeyboard: function () { // iOS web app only, iPad IS_IPAD = navigator.userAgent.match(/iPad/i) != null; if (IS_IPAD) { $(window).one('click', function () { document.activeElement.blur(); }); setTimeout(function () { $(window).trigger('click'); }, 500); } } Maybe it's related to how I'm clearing my forms, so here's that code. Note, all inputs have tabindex="-1" as well. clearForm: function () { // text, textarea, etc $('#campaign-form-wrap > form')[0].reset(); // checkboxes $('input[type="checkbox"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.checkbox').removeClass('checked'); // radio inputs $('input[type="radio"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.radio').removeClass('checked'); // selects $('form.custom .user-generated-field select').each(function () { var selection = $(this).find('option:first').text(), labelFor = $(this).attr('name'), label = $('[for="' + labelFor + '"]'); label.find('.selection-choice').html(selection); }); optin.hideKeyboard(); }

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  • The 80 column limit, still useful?

    - by Tim Post
    Related: While coding, how many columns do you format for? Is there a valid reason for enforcing a maximum width of 80 characters in a code file, this day and age? I mostly use C, however this question is language agnostic. Its also subjective, so I'll tag it as such. Many individual projects set their own various coding standards, a guide to adjust your coding style. Many enforce an 80 column limit on code, i.e. don't force a dumb 80 x 25 terminal to wrap your lines in someone else's editor of choice if they are stuck with such a display, don't force them to turn off wrapping. Both private and open source projects usually have some style guidelines. My question is, in this day and age, is that requirement more of a pest than a helper? Does anyone still login via the local console with no framebuffer and actually edit code? If so, how often and why cant you use SSH? I help to manage a few open source projects, I was considering extending this limit to 110 columns, but I wanted to get feedback first. So, any feedback is appreciated. I can see the need to make certain OUTPUT of programs (i.e. a --help /h display) 80 columns or less, but I really don't see the need to force people to break up code under 110 columns long into 2 lines, when its easier to read on one line. I can also see the case for adhering to an 80 column limit if you're writing code that will be used on micro controllers that have to be serviced in the field with a god-knows-what terminal emulator. Beyond that, what are your thoughts? Edit: This is not an exact duplicate. I am asking very specific questions, such as how many people are actually still using such a display. I am also not asking "what is a good column limit", I'm proposing one and hoping to gather feedback. Beyond that, I'm also citing cases where the 80 column limit is still a good idea. I don't want a guide to my own "c-style", I'm hoping to adjust standards for several projects. If the duplicate in question had answered all of my questions, I would not have posted this one :) That will teach me to mention it next time. Edit 2 question |= COMMUNITY_WIKI

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  • Get Confirm value in vb.net

    - by user1805641
    I have a hidden asp Button in a Repeater. In the VB.NET code behind I use the Rerpeater_ItemCommand to get the click event within the Repeater. There's a check if user is already recording a project. If yes and he wants to start a new one, a confirm box should appear asking "Are you sure?" How can I access the click value from confirm? <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" OnItemCommand="Repeater1_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="tile user_view user_<%# Eval("employeeName") %>"> <div class="tilesheight"></div> <div class="element"> <asp:Button ID="Button1" CssClass="hiddenbutton" runat="server" /> Index: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("index") %>' /><br /> <hr class="hr" /> customer: <asp:Label ID="CustomerLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("customer") %>' /><br /> <hr class ="hr" /> order: <asp:Label ID="OrderNoLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("orderNo") %>' /><br /> <asp:Label ID="DescriptionLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("description") %>' /><br /> <hr class="hr" /> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> code behind: If empRecs.Contains(projects.Item(index.Text).employeeID) Then 'Catch index of recording order i = empRecs.IndexOf(projects.Item(index.Text).employeeID) Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType, "confirm", "confirm('Order " & empRecs(i + 2) & " already recording. Would you like to start a new one?')",True) 'If users clicks ok insertData() End If Other solutions are using the Click Event and a hidden field. But the problem is, I don't want the confirmbox to appear every time the button is clicked. Only when empRecs conatins an employee. Thanks for helping

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  • Custom WM profile - issues with codec

    - by dominolog
    Hello I create my custom WM encoder profile. The reason I need a custom, non standard WM profile is that I need that the video resolution must be the same as input video stream. I created below profile but after I encode my video and audio with it, the WMP while loading says that the WMV1 codec is not found and prompts me for downloading WM encoder codecs. After installing them, the problem still exists. <profile version="589824" storageformat="1" name="mReplay Hi-End profile; WM Format 9; Audio &amp; Video" description="Streams: 1 audio 1 video"> <streamconfig majortype="{73647561-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="1" streamname="Audio Stream" inputname="Audio409" bitrate="320008" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="" rfc1766langid="en-us" > <wmmediatype subtype="{00000161-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="1" btemporalcompression="0" lsamplesize="14861"> <waveformatex wFormatTag="353" nChannels="2" nSamplesPerSec="44100" nAvgBytesPerSec="40001" nBlockAlign="14861" wBitsPerSample="16" codecdata="008800000F0035E80000"/> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamconfig majortype="{73646976-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="2" streamname="Video Stream" inputname="Video409" bitrate="100000" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="AU" rfc1766langid="en-us" vbrenabled="1" vbrquality="95" bitratemax="0" bufferwindowmax="0"> <videomediaprops maxkeyframespacing="80000000" quality="100"/> <wmmediatype subtype="{31564D57-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="0" btemporalcompression="1" lsamplesize="0"> <videoinfoheader dwbitrate="100000" dwbiterrorrate="0" avgtimeperframe="400000"> <rcsource left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <rctarget left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <bitmapinfoheader biwidth="0" biheight="0" biplanes="1" bibitcount="24" bicompression="WMV1" bisizeimage="0" bixpelspermeter="0" biypelspermeter="0" biclrused="0" biclrimportant="0"/> </videoinfoheader> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamprioritization> <stream number="1" mandatory="0"/> <stream number="2" mandatory="0"/> </streamprioritization> </profile>

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  • Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

    - by MJB
    I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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  • Howoto get id of new record after model.save

    - by tonymarschall
    I have a model with the following db structure: mysql> describe units; +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | name | varchar(128) | NO | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | NULL | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | NULL | | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ 7 rows in set (0.00 sec) After creating a new record an saving i can not get the id of the record. 1.9.3p194 :001 > unit = Unit.new(:name => 'test') => #<Unit id: nil, name: "test", created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> 1.9.3p194 :002 > unit.save (0.2ms) BEGIN SQL (0.3ms) INSERT INTO `units` (`created_at`, `name`, `updated_at`) VALUES ('2012-08-31 23:48:12', 'test', '2012-08-31 23:48:12') (144.6ms) COMMIT => true 1.9.3p194 :003 > unit.inspect => "#<Unit id: nil, name: \"test\", created_at: \"2012-08-31 23:48:12\", updated_at: \"2012-08-31 23:48:12\">" # unit.rb class Unit < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name end # migration class CreateUnits < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :units do |t| t.string :name, :null => false t.timestamps end end end Tried this with other models and have the same result (no id). Data is definitily saved and i can get data with Unit.last Another try with Foo.id = nil # /var/www# rails g model Foo name:string invoke active_record create db/migrate/20120904030554_create_foos.rb create app/models/foo.rb invoke test_unit create test/unit/foo_test.rb create test/fixtures/foos.yml # /var/www# rake db:migrate == CreateFoos: migrating ===================================================== -- create_table(:foos) -> 0.3451s == CreateFoos: migrated (0.3452s) ============================================ # /var/www# rails c Loading development environment (Rails 3.2.8) 1.9.3p194 :001 > foo = Foo.new(:name => 'bar') => #<Foo id: nil, name: "bar", created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> 1.9.3p194 :002 > foo.save (0.2ms) BEGIN SQL (0.4ms) INSERT INTO `foos` (`created_at`, `name`, `updated_at`) VALUES ('2012-09-04 03:06:26', 'bar', '2012-09-04 03:06:26') (103.2ms) COMMIT => true 1.9.3p194 :003 > foo.inspect => "#<Foo id: nil, name: \"bar\", created_at: \"2012-09-04 03:06:26\", updated_at: \"2012-09-04 03:06:26\">" 1.9.3p194 :004 > Foo.last Foo Load (0.5ms) SELECT `foos`.* FROM `foos` ORDER BY `foos`.`id` DESC LIMIT 1 => #<Foo id: 1, name: "bar", created_at: "2012-09-04 03:06:26", updated_at: "2012-09-04 03:06:26">

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  • AJAX: Problems returning multiple variables

    - by fwaokda
    First off sorry if I'm missing something simple just started working with AJAX today. I have an issue where I'm trying to get information from my database, but different records have different amounts of values. For instance, each record has a "features" column. In the features column I store a string. (ex: Feature1~Feature2~Feature3~Feature4... ) When I'm building the object I take apart the string and store all the features into an array. Some objects can have 1 feature others can have up to whatever. So... how do I return this values back to my ajax function from my php page? Below is my ajax function that I was trying and I'll provide a link with my php file. [ next.php : http://pastebin.com/SY74jV7X ] $("a#next").click(function() { $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'next.php', dataType : 'json', data : { nextID : $("a#next").attr("rel") }, success : function ( data ) { var lastID = $("a#next").attr("rel"); var originID = $("a#next").attr("rev"); if(lastID == 1) { lastID = originID; } else { lastID--; } $("img#spotlight").attr("src",data.spotlightimage); $("div#showcase h1").text(data.title); $("div#showcase h2").text(data.subtitle); $("div#showcase p").text(data.description); $("a#next").attr("rel", lastID); for(var i=0; i < data.size; i++) { $("ul#features").append("<li>").text(data.feature+i).append("</li>"); } /* for(var j=1; j < data.picsize; j++) { $("div.thumbnails ul").append("<li>").text(data.image+j).append("</li>"); } */ }, error : function ( XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $("div#showcase h1").text("An error has occured: " + errorThrown); } }); });

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  • Wrong data retrieved from database

    - by holyredbeard
    So, I want to retrieve the order of the elements of a list. The order is set before by the user, and are stored in the table below. Because I also want to retrieve name and description of the list elements I need to combine two tables (see below). However, what is actually retrieved is an array containing 16 elements (should be four because it only exists four elements as for now). The array is too long to post here, but I put it in a phpFiddle to be found here if you're interested. Well, I have really tried to find what's wrong (probably something easy as always), but with no luck. Thanks a lot for your time and help! listModel.php: public function GetOrderedElements($userId, $listId) { // $userId = 46 // $listId = 1 $query = "SELECT le.listElemId, le.listElemName, le.listElemDesc, lo.listElemOrderPlace FROM listElement AS le INNER JOIN listElemOrder AS lo ON le.listId = lo.listId WHERE lo.userId = ? AND lo.listId = ? ORDER BY listElemId"; $stmt = $this->m_db->Prepare($query); $stmt->bind_param("ii", $userId, $listId); $listElements = $this->m_db->GetOrderedElements($stmt); return $listElements; } database.php: public function GetOrderedElements(\mysqli_stmt $stmt) { if ($stmt === FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->execute() == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->bind_result($listElemId, $listElemName, $listElemDesc, $listElemOrderPlace) == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } $listElements = array(); while ($stmt->fetch()) { $listElements[] = array('listElemId' => $listElemId, 'listElemName' => $listElemName, 'listElemDesc' => $listElemDesc, 'listElemOrderPlace' => $listElemOrderPlace); } var_dump($listElements); $stmt->Close(); return $listElements; } from the database: listElemOrder: listElemOrderId | listId | listElemId | userId | listElemOrderPlace 1 1 1 46 1 2 1 2 46 4 3 1 3 46 2 4 1 4 46 3 listElement: listElemId | listElemName | listId | listElemDesc | listElemOrderPlace 1 Elem A 1 Derp NULL 2 Elem B 1 Herp NULL 3 Elem C 1 Lorum NULL 4 Elem D 1 Ipsum NULL Note: 'listElemOrderPlace' in the table listElement is the final order of the elements (all users average), not to be mixed with the one with the same name in the other table, that's only a specific user's order of the list elements (which is the interesting one in this case).

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  • jQuery nextUntill id < num or alternative

    - by Volmar
    Hi, i'm using jQuery to show/hide different LI-elements based on their classes. Look at this example. <li id="1" class="fp de1"></li> <li id="2" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(2,2);"></li> <li id="3" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(3,3);"></li> <li id="4" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(4,4);"></li> <li id="5" class="fp de4"></li> <li id="6" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="7" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="8" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(8,2);"></li> <li id="9" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(9,3);"></li> <li id="10" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(10,4);"></li> <li id="11" class="fp de4"></li> You se that some of these have a button with a hide funcion. what i want is that when you press the hide button The following elements the have a highernumber in the .de# class should be hidden untill it reaches a LI with the same .de#-class. so if you press the hide(), i want LIs with ids 3,4,5,6,7 to be hiden. if i press the next on i want 4,5,6,7, and the thirs i want id 5 to be hidden. so this is the Javascript i made for it: function hide(id,de){ var de2 = de-1; $('#'+id).nextUntil('li.de'+de2).hide(); } The problem is that this function is not working exactly as i want. it would work correctly in the first hide()-function and the thirs but not in hide()function number two. here it will hide IDs: 4-8. so i want to do something. so i want the nextuntill() to hide elements untill it reaches a LI-element with the same .de# or a lower .de#. i hope i didn't complicate it to much in my description of the problem. if you have better idea than using nextUntill i'm all ears.

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