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  • ibatis throwing NullPointerException

    - by Prashant P
    i am trying to test ibatis with DB. I get NullPointerException. Below are the class and ibatis bean config, <select id="getByWorkplaceId" parameterClass="java.lang.Integer" resultMap="result"> select * from WorkDetails where workplaceCode=#workplaceCode# </select> <select id="getWorkplace" resultClass="com.ibatis.text.WorkDetails"> select * from WorkDetails </select> POJO public class WorkplaceDetail implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -6760386803958725272L; private int code; private String plant; private String compRegNum; private String numOfEmps; private String typeIndst; private String typeProd; private String note1; private String note2; private String note3; private String note4; private String note5; } DAOimplementation public class WorkplaceDetailImpl implements WorkplaceDetailsDAO { private SqlMapClient sqlMapClient; public void setSqlMapClient(SqlMapClient sqlMapClient) { this.sqlMapClient = sqlMapClient; } @Override public WorkplaceDetail getWorkplaceDetail(int code) { WorkplaceDetail workplaceDetail=new WorkplaceDetail(); try{ **workplaceDetail= (WorkplaceDetail) this.sqlMapClient.queryForObject("workplaceDetail.getByWorkplaceId", code);** }catch (SQLException sqlex){ sqlex.printStackTrace(); } return workplaceDetail; } TestCode public class TestDAO { public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception{ WorkplaceDetail wd = new WorkplaceDetail(126, "Hoonkee", "1234", "22", "Service", "Tele", "hsgd","hsgd","hsgd","hsgd","hsgd"); WorkplaceDetailImpl impl= new WorkplaceDetailImpl(); **impl.getWorkplaceDetail(wd.getCode());** impl.saveOrUpdateWorkplaceDetails(wd); System.out.println("dhsd"+impl); } } I want to select and insert. I have marked as ** ** as a point of exception in above code Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException at com.ibatis.text.WorkplaceDetailImpl.getWorkplaceDetail(WorkplaceDetailImpl.java:19) at com.ibatis.text.TestDAO.main(TestDAO.java:11)

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  • Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

    - by lerac
    <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

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  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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  • Problem in printing array of char pointer passing from Python

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    My following C code works quite well, till my Python code trying to pass an array of char pointer to it. The output I obtain is The file_name is python-file Another 3 string is not being printed out. Anything I had missed out? C Code #include <iostream> #include "c_interface.h" int foo(const char* file_name, const char** names) { std::cout << "The file_name is " << file_name << std::endl; while (*names) { std::cout << "The name is " << *names << std::endl; names++; } return 0; } /* int main() { const char *c[] = {"123gh", "456443432", "789", 0}; foo("hello", c); getchar(); } */ Python Code #!c:/Python27/python.exe -u from ctypes import * name0 = "NAME0" name1 = "NAME1" name2 = "NAME2" names = ((c_char_p * 1024) * 4)() names[0].value = name0 names[1].value = name1 names[2].value = name2 names[3].value = 0 libc = CDLL("foo.dll") libc.foo("python-file", names)

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  • Fastest inline-assembly spinlock

    - by sigvardsen
    I'm writing a multithreaded application in c++, where performance is critical. I need to use a lot of locking while copying small structures between threads, for this I have chosen to use spinlocks. I have done some research and speed testing on this and I found that most implementations are roughly equally fast: Microsofts CRITICAL_SECTION, with SpinCount set to 1000, scores about 140 time units Implementing this algorithm with Microsofts InterlockedCompareExchange scores about 95 time units Ive also tried to use some inline assembly with __asm {} using something like this code and it scores about 70 time units, but I am not sure that a proper memory barrier has been created. Edit: The times given here are the time it takes for 2 threads to lock and unlock the spinlock 1,000,000 times. I know this isn't a lot of difference but as a spinlock is a heavily used object, one would think that programmers would have agreed on the fastest possible way to make a spinlock. Googling it leads to many different approaches however. I would think this aforementioned method would be the fastest if implemented using inline assembly and using the instruction CMPXCHG8B instead of comparing 32bit registers. Furthermore memory barriers must be taken into account, this could be done by LOCK CMPXHG8B (I think?), which guarantees "exclusive rights" to the shared memory between cores. At last [some suggests] that for busy waits should be accompanied by NOP:REP that would enable Hyper-threading processors to switch to another thread, but I am not sure whether this is true or not? From my performance-test of different spinlocks, it is seen that there is not much difference, but for purely academic purpose I would like to know which one is fastest. However as I have extremely limited experience in the assembly-language and with memory barriers, I would be happy if someone could write the assembly code for the last example I provided with LOCK CMPXCHG8B and proper memory barriers in the following template: __asm { spin_lock: ;locking code. spin_unlock: ;unlocking code. }

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  • Getting unhandled exception when DataTemplate is created dynamically using Silverlight 3.0

    - by Bhaskar
    Requirement is to create a reusable multi-select combobox custom control. To accomplish this, I am creating the DataTemplate dynamically through code and set the combobox ItemTemplate. I am able to load the datatemplate dynamically and set the ItemTemplate, but getting unhandled exception (code: 7054) when combobox is selected. Here is the code Class MultiSelCombBox: ComboBox { public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); CreateTemplate(); } void CreateTemplate() { DataTemplate dt = null; if (CreateItemTemplate) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(CheckBoxBind)) { dt = XamlReader.Load(@"<DataTemplate xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""DropDownTemplate""><Grid xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""CheckboxGrid""><TextBox xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""test"" xml:space=""preserve"" Text='{Binding " + TextContent + "}'/></Grid></DataTemplate>") as DataTemplate; this.ItemTemplate = dt; } } } //Other code goes here }} what am i doing wrong? suggestion?

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  • How to deal with Unicode strings in C/C++ in a cross-platform friendly way?

    - by Sorin Sbarnea
    On platforms different than Windows you could easily use char * strings and treat them as UTF-8. The problem is that on Windows you are required to accept and send messages using wchar* strings (W). If you'll use the ANSI functions (A) you will not support Unicode. So if you want to write truly portable application you need to compile it as Unicode on Windows. Now, In order to keep the code clean I would like to see what is the recommended way of dealing with strings, a way that minimize ugliness in the code. Type of strings you may need: std::string, std::wstring, std::tstring,char *,wchat_t *, TCHAR*, CString (ATL one). Issues you may encounter: cout/cerr/cin and their Unicode variants wcout,wcerr,wcin all renamed wide string functions and their TCHAR macros - like strcmp, wcscmp and _tcscmp. constant strings inside code, with TCHAR you will have to fill your code with _T() macros. What approach do you see as being best? (examples are welcome) Personally I would go for a std::tstring approach but I would like to see how would do to the conversions where they are necessary.

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  • Implementing IXmlSerializable on a generated class that has XmlTypeAttribute

    - by Josh
    Basically, the initial problem is I need to make a boolean value serialize as 0 or 1. The solution I found was to implement IXmlSerializable, which I did. Unfortunately the class I'm trying to serialize is generated code off a schema and has an XmlTypeAttribute on it. When I try to (de)serialize the object with the XmlSerializer created in the usual manner ( new XmlSerializer(type)) it throws this exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Only XmlRoot attribute may be specified for the type ______ Please use XmlSchemaProviderAttribute to specify schema type. Two options come to mind immediatly: 1) remove the attribute in the generated code. This change would have to be made every time the code was re-generated. 2) Use an XmlAttributeOverrides object when creating the serializer to remove the attribute. This would require the rest of the code base to "know" that it needs to override that attribute. Also, the exception thrown gives absolutly no clue as to what needs to be done to fix it. Both options kinda stink. Is there a third option?

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  • How to scale JPEG images with a non-standard sampling factor in Java?

    - by HRJ
    I am using Java AWT for scaling a JPEG image, to create thumbnails. The code works fine when the image has a normal sampling factor ( 2x2,1x1,1x1 ) However, an image which has this sampling factor ( 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ) creates problem when scaled. The colors get corrupted though the features are recognizable. The original and the thumbnail: The code I am using is roughly equivalent to: static BufferedImage awtScaleImage(BufferedImage image, int maxSize, int hint) { // We use AWT Image scaling because it has far superior quality // compared to JAI scaling. It also performs better (speed)! System.out.println("AWT Scaling image to: " + maxSize); int w = image.getWidth(); int h = image.getHeight(); float scaleFactor = 1.0f; if (w > h) scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) w); else scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) h); w = (int)(w * scaleFactor); h = (int)(h * scaleFactor); // since this code can run both headless and in a graphics context // we will just create a standard rgb image here and take the // performance hit in a non-compatible image format if any Image i = image.getScaledInstance(w, h, hint); image = new BufferedImage(w, h, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); Graphics2D g = image.createGraphics(); g.drawImage(i, null, null); g.dispose(); i.flush(); return image; } (Code courtesy of this page ) Is there a better way to do this? Here's a test image with sampling factor of [ 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ].

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  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

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  • Problem in inferring instances that have integer cardinality constraint

    - by Mikae Combarado
    Hello, I have created an RDF/OWL file using Protege 4.1 alpha. I also created a defined class in Protege called CheapPhone. This class has a restriction which is shown below : (hasPrice some integer[< 350]) Whenever, a price of a phone is below 350, it is inferred as CheapPhone. There is no problem for inferring this in Protege 4.1 alpha. However, I cannot infer this using Jena. I also created a defined class called SmartPhone. This class also has a restriction which is shown below : (has3G value true) and (hasInternet value true) Whenever, a phone has 3G and Internet, it is inferred as SmartPhone. In this situation, there is no problem inferring this in both Protege and Jena. I have started to think that there is a problem in default inference engine of Jena. The code that I use in Java is below : Reasoner reasoner = ReasonerRegistry.getOWLReasoner(); reasoner = reasoner.bindSchema(ontModel); OntModelSpec ontModelSpec = OntModelSpec.OWL_MEM_MINI_RULE_INF; ontModelSpec.setReasoner(reasoner); // Create ontology model with reasoner support // ontModel was created and read before, so I don't share the code in order // not to create garbage here OntModel model = ModelFactory.createOntologyModel(ontModelSpec, ontModel); OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "SmartPhone"); ExtendedIterator s = sPhone.listInstances(); while(s.hasNext()) { OntResource mp = (OntResource)s.next(); System.out.println(mp.getURI()); } This code works perfectly and returns me the instances, but when I change the code below and make it appropriate for CheapPhone, it doesn't return anything. OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "CheapPhone"); Am I doing something wrong ?

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  • Given a main function and a cleanup function, how (canonically) do I return an exit status in Bash/Linux?

    - by Zac B
    Context: I have a bash script (a wrapper for other scripts, really), that does the following pseudocode: do a main function if the main function returns: $returncode = $? #most recent return code if the main function runs longer than a timeout: kill the main function $returncode = 140 #the semi-canonical "exceeded allowed wall clock time" status run a cleanup function if the cleanup function returns an error: #nonzero return code exit $? #exit the program with the status returned from the cleanup function else #cleanup was successful .... Question: What should happen after the last line? If the cleanup function was successful, but the main function was not, should my program return 0 (for the successful cleanup), or $returncode, which contains the (possibly nonzero and unsuccessful) return code of the main function? For a specific application, the answer would be easy: "it depends on what you need the script for." However, this is more of a general/canonical question (and if this is the wrong place for it, kill it with fire): in Bash (or Linux in general) programming, do you typically want to return the status that "means" something (i.e. $returncode) or do you ignore such subjectivities and simply return the code of the most recent function? This isn't Bash-specific: if I have a standalone executable of any kind, how, canonically should it behave in these cases? Obviously, this is somewhat debatable. Even if there is a system for these things, I'm sure that a lot of people ignore it. All the same, I'd like to know. Cheers!

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  • How to (unit-)test data intensive PL/SQL application

    - by doom2.wad
    Our team is willing to unit-test a new code written under a running project extending an existing huge Oracle system. The system is written solely in PL/SQL, consists of thousands of tables, hundreds of stored procedures packages, mostly getting data from tables and/or inserting/updating other data. Our extension is not an exception. Most functions return data from a quite complex SELECT statementa over many mutually bound tables (with a little added logic before returning them) or make transformation from one complicated data structure to another (complicated in another way). What is the best approach to unit-test such code? There are no unit tests for existing code base. To make things worse, only packages, triggers and views are source-controlled, table structures (including "alter table" stuff and necessary data transformations are deployed via channel other than version control). There is no way to change this within our project's scope. Maintaining testing data set seems to be impossible since there is new code deployed to the production environment on weekly basis, usually without prior notice, often changing data structure (add a column here, remove one there). I'd be glad for any suggestion or reference to help us. Some team members tend to be tired by figuring out how to even start for our experience with unit-testing does not cover PL/SQL data intensive legacy systems (only those "from-the-book" greenfield Java projects).

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  • Concatenate 2 text elements on a line with full-width border using CSS only

    - by Michael Horne
    Okay, I'm a newbie to CSS3, so please be gentle. ;-) I'm working with some Wordpress code (Woocommerce plugin, to be exact), and I'm trying to format a line of code in a sidebar so that 2 separate text items (one in an <a, the other in a <span are all on the same line, the full width of the column, and with a bottom border. It looks something like this (except the bottom border on each text do not go all the way across the enclosing sidebar box): http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog.JPG (sorry, I'm new and can't post inline images yet) Here's the code fragment I'm trying to live with (i.e. I don't want to change it): <div class="widget"> ... <ul class="product-categories"> <li class="cat-item"> <a href="http://localhost/dalluva/shop/product-category/books/">Books</a> <span class="count">(5)</span> </li> ... And here's the CSS I have now: .widget ul li a { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height:1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 22px; display: inline-block; } .widget ul li span { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height: 1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 0; display: inline-block; } The output in the image above looks right for this CSS code, but when I change the 'span' CSS to include a width:100%, it causes the span element to wrap to the next line, looking like this: http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog-2.JPG I've played with white-space:nowrap, overflow:hidden, etc, but I can't seem to find a way to have both the <a and the <span text on the same line with the border extending the full width of the column. Any suggestions on getting the desired effect through CSS only? Thanks. Michael

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  • Why isn't the Cache invalidated after table update using the SqlCacheDependency?

    - by Jason
    I have been trying to get SqlCacheDependency working. I think I have everything set up correctly, but when I update the table, the item in the Cache isn't invalidated. Can you look at my code and see if I am missing anything? I enabled the Service Broker for the Sandbox database. I have placed the following code in the Global.asax file. I also restart IIS to make sure it is called. void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlDependency.Start(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString); } I have placed this entry in the web.config file: <system.web> <caching> <sqlCacheDependency enabled="true" pollTime="10000"> <databases> <add name="Sandbox" connectionStringName="SandboxConnectionString"/> </databases> </sqlCacheDependency> </caching> </system.web> I call this code to put the item into the cache: protected void CacheDataSetButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand sqlCommand = new SqlCommand("SELECT PetID, Name, Breed, Age, Sex, Fixed, Microchipped FROM dbo.Pets", sqlConnection)) { using (SqlDataAdapter sqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand)) { DataSet petsDataSet = new DataSet(); sqlDataAdapter.Fill(petsDataSet, "Pets"); SqlCacheDependency petsSqlCacheDependency = new SqlCacheDependency(sqlCommand); Cache.Insert("Pets", petsDataSet, petsSqlCacheDependency, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(10), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); } } } } Then I bind the GridView with this code: protected void BindGridViewButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache["Pets"] != null) { GridView1.DataSource = Cache["Pets"] as DataSet; GridView1.DataBind(); } } Between attempts to DataBind the GridView, I change the table's values expecting it to invalidate the Cache["Pets"] item, but it seems to stay in the Cache indefinitely.

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  • jQuery sliding animation not working

    - by Jake Zeitz
    I have three divs stacked on each other but offset so that a part of each div is visible. When one of the bottom divs is clicked I want the top div to animate out and back into the stack at the bottom, then the div that is clicked will appear at the top. So far I only have the code for when the middle div is clicked, but I cannot get it to work properly. What am I doing wrong? (I also realize that the code I wrote is probably terrible, this is the first jQuery code I have written.) The css is very very simple: .first { z-index: 3; } .second { z-index: 2; } .third { z-index: 1; } The basic html is this: <div class="first"></div> <div class="second"></div> <div class="third"></div> Here is my code: $("div.second").click(function () { $("div.first").animate({ left: "-=200px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.first").removeClass("first").addClass("third").animate({left: "+=350px", top: "+=60px"}, "fast"); } }); $("div.second").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.second").removeClass("second").addClass("first"); } }); $("div.third").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.third").removeClass("third").addClass("second"); } }); }); I can get the div.first to move to the side and back. But now I can't get the classes to stay changed. What keeps happening is the div.second will remove it's class and add .first in the animation, but when the animation is complete, it acts like it still has a class of .second.

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  • jQuery cycle floats on top of other content

    - by Angie Dubis
    I tried to replace my Flash video with a jQuery cycle. The cycle works, but the images will not stay in the editable region I placed them in. Instead they are floating on top of other content. Any ideas? This is happening on the home page of massageeducator.com There are 2 cycles on the page. “Slideshow1” and “slideshow2”. “slideshow1” works perfectly. The only thing I did differently was set up “slideshow2” as a library item since it will appear on every page, but added function code manually. I tried adding code and images via the template and had the same issue. I also tried adding both the function code and slideshow to each page instead of library item - same problem. I have both slide shows pointing to the same jquery.cycle.lite.1.0.js. Should I rename this .js file and have each cycle point to a different file? I am new to jQuery so any help is appreciated. I can't seem to post my code due to the spam filters in here!

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  • Getting value from pointer

    - by Eric
    Hi, I'm having problem getting the value from a pointer. I have the following code in C++: void* Nodo::readArray(VarHash& var, string varName, int posicion, float& d) { //some code before... void* res; float num = bit.getFloatFromArray(arregloTemp); //THIS FUNCTION RETURN A FLOAT AND IT'S OK cout << "NUMBER " << num << endl; d = num; res = &num; return res } int main() { float d = 0.0; void* res = n.readArray(v, "c", 0, d); //THE VALUES OF THE ARRAY ARE: {65.5, 66.5}; float* car3 = (float*)res; cout << "RESULT_READARRAY " << *car3 << endl; cout << "FLOAT REFERENCE: " << d << endl; } The result of running this code is the following: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //CORRECT NUMBER 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 66.5 //CORRECT For some reason, when I get the value of the pointer returned by the function called readArray is incorrect. I'm passing a float variable(d) as a reference in the same function just to verify that the value is ok, and as you can see, THE FLOAT REFERENCE matches the NUMBER. If I declare the variable num(read array) as a static float, the first RESULT_READARRAY will be 65.5, that is correct, however, the next value will be the same instead of 66.5. Let me show you the result of running the code using static float variable: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 //PERFECT FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //¨PERFECT NUMBER 65.5 //THIS IS INCORRECT, IT SHOULD BE 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 Do you know how can I get the correct value returned by the function called readArray()?

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  • Jquery cant get facebox working inside ajax call

    - by John
    From my main page I call an ajax file via jquery, in that ajax file is some additional jquery code. Original link looks like this: <a href="/page1.php" class="guest-action notify-function"><img src="/icon1.png"></a> Then the code: $(document).ready(function(){ $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); $('.guest-action').click( function() { $.get( $(this).attr('href'), function(responseText) { $.jGrowl(responseText); }); return false; }); $('.notify-function').click( function() { $(this).find('img').attr('src','/icon2.png'); $(this).attr('href','/page2.php'); $(this).removeClass('guest-action').removeClass('notify-function').attr('rel','facebox'); }); }); So basically after notify-function is clicked I am changing the icon and the url of the link, I then am removing the classes so that the click wont be ran again and add rel="facebox" to the link so that the facebox window will pop up if they try to click the new icon2.png that shows up. The problem is after I click the initial icon everything works just fine except when I try to click the new icon2.png it still executes the jgrowl code from the guest-action. But when I view the source it shows this: <a href="/page2.php" rel="facebox" class=""><img src="/icon2.png"></a> So it seemed that should work right? What am I doing wrong? I tried adding the facebox code to the main page that is calling the ajax file as well and still same issue.

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  • systematizing error codes for a web app in php?

    - by user151841
    I'm working on a class-based php web app. I have some places where objects are interacting, and I have certain situations where I'm using error codes to communicate to the end user -- typically when form values are missing or invalid. These are situations where exceptions are unwarranted ( and I'm not sure I could avoid the situations with exceptions anyways). In one object, I have some 20 code numbers, each of which correspond to a user-facing message, and a admin/developer-facing message, so both parties know what's going on. Now that I've worked over the code several times, I find that it's difficult to quickly figure out what code numbers in the series I've already used, so I accidentally create conflicting code numbers. For instance, I just did that today with 12, 13, 14 and 15. How can I better organize this so I don't create conflicting error codes? Should I create one singleton class, errorCodes, that has a master list of all error codes for all classes, systematizing them across the whole web app? Or should each object have its own set of error codes, when appropriate, and I just keep a list in the commentary of the object, to use and update that as I go along?

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  • How can I show print statements in debug mode of OPNET Modeler?

    - by Here now
    I'm writing C++ code in OPNET Modeler. I try to simulate my scenario in debugger mode & I need to trace the function that I wrote it. I need to show print statements which I put it in my code. I used in debugger mode: ***ltr function_name()*** then ***c*** But the result looks like: Type 'help' for Command Summary ODB> ltr enqueue_packet() Added trace #0: trace on label (enqueue_packet()) ODB> c |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 52 sec.); Events (500,002) | | Speed: Average (82,575 events/sec.); Current (82,575 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (6.1 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 55 sec.); Events (1,000,002) | | Speed: Average (69,027 events/sec.); Current (59,298 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (14 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 59 sec.); Events (1,500,002) | | Speed: Average (51,464 events/sec.); Current (34,108 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (29 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Simulation Completed - Collating Results. | | Events: Total (1,591,301); Average Speed (48,803 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (33 sec.); Simulated (2 min. 0 sec.) | | DES Log: 29 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Reading network model. | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| I need to show the print statements in my code. Where it has to be appeared? Is there any step before run the simulation to insure that OPNET debugger using Visual Studio & go through my code??

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  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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  • Non-english domain naming issues in programming

    - by Svend
    Most programming code, I imagine is written in english. But I'm curious how people handling the issue of naming herein. Alot of programming is done within some bussiness domain, usually with well established terms for certain procedures, items. I'm from Denmark for instance, and something I work alot with has a term called "indblikskode", which sorta translates to "insight code". So, do I use the line "string indblikskode = ..." in the C# code for some webservice related to this? Or do I try to use a translation, such as "insightcode"? The bussiness I'm in isn't even consistent in it's language, for instance using the term "organisatorisk enhed" (organizatorical unit), but just as often using the abbreviation "OU", which is obviously abbreviated from the english. How do other people handle this naming issue, while keeping consistent, and sane (in everything from simple variable names in your code, to database tables, to server names)? Duplicates: Should identifiers and comments be always in English or in the native language of the application and developers? Do you use another language instead of english ?

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  • The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context [...] for 60 seconds

    - by BlueRaja The Green Unicorn
    I am getting this error on code that used to work. I have not changed the code. Here is the full error: The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x3322d98 to COM context 0x3322f08 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. And here is the code that caused it: var openFileDialog1 = new System.Windows.Forms.OpenFileDialog(); openFileDialog1.DefaultExt = "mdb"; openFileDialog1.Filter = "Management Database (manage.mdb)|manage.mdb"; //Stalls indefinitely on the following line, then gives the CLR error //one minute later. The dialog never opens. if(openFileDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { .... } Yes, I am sure the dialog is not open in the background, and no, I don't have any explicit COM code or unmanaged marshalling or multithreading. I have no idea why the OpenFileDialog won't open - any ideas?

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  • Problem with displaying image from DB using asp.net MVC 2

    - by Renato
    Hello! I'm having trouble with displaying image from db. I think that method for saving image is working, because I see in DB that varbinary fields have some value, and that image type is correct. Also the size of image. But when I want to display image for product i don't get anything. Just blank space.. here is my code... public byte[] GetImage(int productID) { Product product = products.GetByID(productID); byte[] imageData = product.ImageData.ToArray(); return imageData; } That code is in my controller. Second is code from view : <% if (product.ImageData != null) { %> <img src='/product/getimage/<%= Html.Encode(product.ID) %>' alt=""/> <% } %> I tried some solutions found here on stack overflow, and everyone do it like this, but it's working for them. I dont have any idea why images aren't displayed. When i look at source code of page at debugging i have : <img src='/product/getimage/18' alt=""/> I'm using .net 4.0, MVC 2, VS 2010... Thanks in advance

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