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  • Why Does My Vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> Mysteriously Get Cleared?

    - by Eric
    Hello everyone, I am making a program that reads and stores data from Windows EventLog files (.evt) in C++. I am using the calls OpenBackupEventLog(ServerName, FileName) and ReadEventLog(...). Also using this: PEVENTLOGRECORD Anyway, without supplying all of the code, here is the basic idea: 1. I get a handle to the .evt file using OpenBackupEventLog() and passing in a file name. 2. I then use ReadEventLog() to fill up a buffer with an unknown number of EventLog messages. 3. I traverse through the buffer and add each message to a vector 4. I keep filling up buffers (repeat steps 2 and 3) until I reach the end of the file. Here is my code for filling the vector: vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> allRecords; while(_status == ERROR_SUCCESS) { if(!ReadEventLog(...)) CheckStatus(); else FillVectorFromBuffer(allRecords) } // Function FillVectorFromBuffer FillVectorFromBuffer(vector(PEVENTLOGRECORD) &allRecords) { int bytesExamined = 0; PBYTE pRecord = (PBYTE)_lpBuffer; // This is one of the params in ReadEventLog() while(bytesExamined < _pnBytesRead) // Another param from ReadEventLog { PEVENTLOGRECORD currentRecord = (PEVENTLOGRECORD)(pRecord); allRecords.push_back(currentRecord); pRecord += currentRecord->Length; bytesExamined += currentRecord->Length; } } Anyway, whenever I run this, it will get all the EventLogs in the file, and the vector will have everything I want it to. But as soon as this line: if(!ReadEventLog()) gets called and returns true (aka ReadEventLog() returns false), then every field in my vector gets set to zero. The vector will still contain the correct number of elements, it's just that all of the fields in the PEVENTLOGRECORD struct are now zero. Anyone with better debugging experience have any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • Sorted queue with dropping out elements

    - by ffriend
    I have a list of jobs and queue of workers waiting for these jobs. All the jobs are the same, but workers are different and sorted by their ability to perform the job. That is, first person can do this job best of all, second does it just a little bit worse and so on. Job is always assigned to the person with the highest skills from those who are free at that moment. When person is assigned a job, he drops out of the queue for some time. But when he is done, he gets back to his position. So, for example, at some moment in time worker queue looks like: [x, x, .83, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] where x's stand for missing workers and numbers show skill level of left workers. When there's a new job, it is assigned to 3rd worker as the one with highest skill of available workers. So next moment queue looks like: [x, x, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] Let's say, that at this moment worker #2 finishes his job and gets back to the list: [x, .91, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] I hope the process is completely clear now. My question is what algorithm and data structure to use to implement quick search and deletion of worker and insertion back to his position. For the moment the best approach I can see is to use Fibonacci heap that have amortized O(log n) for deleting minimal element (assigning job and deleting worker from queue) and O(1) for inserting him back, which is pretty good. But is there even better algorithm / data structure that possibly take into account the fact that elements are already sorted and only drop of the queue from time to time?

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  • Prroblem with ObjectDelete() in Entity Framework 4

    - by Tom
    I got two entities: public class User : Entity { public virtual string Username { get; set; } public virtual string Email { get; set; } public virtual string PasswordHash { get; set; } public virtual List<Photo> Photos { get; set; } } and public class Photo : Entity { public virtual string FileName { get; set; } public virtual string Thumbnail { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual int UserId { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } When I try to delete the photo it works fine for the DB (record gets romoved from the table) but it doesnt for the Photos collection in the User entity (I can still see that photo in user.Photos). This is my code. What I'm doing wrong here? Changing entity properties works fine. When I change photo FileName for example it gets updated in DB and in user.Photos. var photo = SelectById(id); Context.DeleteObject(photo); Context.SaveChanges(); var user = GetUser(userName); // the photo I have just deleted is still in user.Photos also tried this but getting same results: var photo = user.Photos.First(); Context.DeleteObject(photo); Context.SaveChanges();

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  • How to proceed jpeg Image file size after read--rotate-write operations in Java?

    - by zamska
    Im trying to read a JPEG image as BufferedImage, rotate and save it as another jpeg image from file system. But there is a problem : after these operations I cannot proceed same file size. Here the code //read Image BufferedImage img = ImageIO.read(new File(path)); //rotate Image BufferedImage rotatedImage = new BufferedImage(image.getHeight(), image.getWidth(), BufferedImage.TYPE_3BYTE_BGR); Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D) rotatedImage.getGraphics(); g2d.rotate(Math.toRadians(PhotoConstants.ROTATE_LEFT)); int height=-rotatedImage.getHeight(null); g2d.drawImage(image, height, 0, null); g2d.dispose(); //Write Image Iterator iter = ImageIO.getImageWritersByFormatName("jpeg"); ImageWriter writer = (ImageWriter)iter.next(); // instantiate an ImageWriteParam object with default compression options ImageWriteParam iwp = writer.getDefaultWriteParam(); try { FileImageOutputStream output = null; iwp.setCompressionMode(ImageWriteParam.MODE_EXPLICIT); iwp.setCompressionQuality(0.98f); // an integer between 0 and 1 // 1 specifies minimum compression and maximum quality File file = new File(path); output = new FileImageOutputStream(file); writer.setOutput(output); IIOImage iioImage = new IIOImage(image, null, null); writer.write(null, iioImage, iwp); output.flush(); output.close(); writer.dispose(); Is it possible to access compressionQuality parameter of original jpeg image in the beginning. when I set 1 to compression quality, the image gets bigger size. Otherwise I set 0.9 or less the image gets smaller size. How can i proceed the image size after these operations? Thank you,

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  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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  • Getting empty update rectangle in OnPaint after calling InvalidateRect on a layered window

    - by Shawn
    I'm trying to figure out why I've been getting an empty update rectangle when I call InvalidateRect on a transparent window. The idea is that I've drawn something on the window (it gets temporarily switched to have an alpha of 1/255 for the drawing), and then I switch it to full transparent mode (i.e. alpha of 0) in order to interact with the desktop & to be able to move the drawing around the screen on top of the desktop. When I try to move the drawing, I get its bounding rectangle & use it to call InvalidateRect, as such: InvalidateRect(m_hTarget, &winRect, FALSE); I've confirmed that the winRect is indeed correct, and that m_hTarget is the correct window & that its rectangle fully encompasses winRect. I get into the OnPaint handler in the class corresponding to m_hTarget, which is derived from a CWnd. In there, I create a CPaintDC, but when I try to access the update rectangle (dcPaint.m_ps.rcPaint) it's always empty. This rectangle gets passed to a function that determines if we need to update the screen (by using UpdateLayeredWindow in the case of a transparent window). If I hard-code a non-empty rectangle in here, the remaining code works correctly & I am able to move the drawing around the screen. I tried changing the 'FALSE' parameter to 'TRUE' in InvalidateRect, with no effect. I also tried using a standard CDC, and then using BeginPaint/EndPaint method in my OnPaint handler, just to ensure that CPaintDC wasn't doing something odd ... but I got the same results. The code that I'm using was originally designed for opaque windows. If m_hTarget corresponds to an opaque window, the same set of function calls results in the correct (i.e. non-empty) rectangle being passed to OnPaint. Once the window is layered, though, it doesn't seem to work right.

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  • different thread accessing MemoryStream

    - by Wayne
    There's a bit of code which writes data to a MemoryStream object directly into it's data buffer by calling GetBuffer(). It also uses and updates the Position and SetLength() properties appropriately. This code works purposes 99.9999% of the time. Literally. Only every so many 100,000's of iterations it will barf. The specific problem is that the memory.Position property suddenly returns zero instead of the appropriate value. However, code was added that checks for the 0 and throws an exception which include log of the MemoryStream properties like Position and Length in a separate method. Those return the correct value. Further addition shows that when this rare condition occurs, the memory.Position only has zero inside this particular method. Okay. Obviously, this must be a threading issue. But this code is well locked. However, the nature of this software is that it's organized by "tasks" with a scheduler and so any one of several actual O/S thread may run this code at any give time--but never more than one at a time. So it's my guess that ordinarily it so happens that the same thread keeps getting used for this method and then on a rare occasion a different thread get used. Then due to compiler optimizations, the different thread never gets the correct value. It gets a "stale" value. Ordinarily in a situation like this I would apply a "volatile" keyword to the variable in question. But that (those) variables are inside the MemoryStream object. Does anyone have any other idea? Or does this mean we have to implement our own MemoryStream object? (Just like we end up having to do with practically every collection in .NET?) It's a shame to have such an awesome platform as .NET and have virtually the entire system useless as-is for seriously parallelized applications. If I'm wrong or you have other ideas, please advise. Sincerely, Wayne

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  • How to face observable object containing an observable field

    - by iseek
    Hello, I need a hint concerning MVC and Observer-Pattern. For example a model contains the classes "Address" and "Person". The Address class contains the fields street:String, zipcode:String, location:String. Whereas the Person class contains the fields name:String, firstName:String, address:Address. My approach so far looks something like this: Both, Address and Person are observable. If one of their setters is being called, I validate whether the current value and new value differ. Only in this case an update event is fired. The event contains the source, the name of the changed field, the old and the new value. The class for the view contains text fields to display and edit the information of a person: name, firstname, street, zipcode, location. It knows the Person model and is an subscribed observer for the person. So it gets the update events from the person object. My questions concerns the address field from type Address in the person class, since an address is observable on its own. If the view gets an update event from person when a new address has been set, I can update all of the address related fields in the view. But what if a field of the address changes? Should the view also register for update events from the address? Any hints about common design approaches would be appreciated. Greetings.

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  • Exploiting Path Traversal Vulnerability

    - by Maputo
    I have a Java Web App running on Tomcat on which I'm supposed to exploit Path traversal vulnerability. There is a section (in the App) at which I can upload a .zip file, which gets extracted in the server's /tmp directory. The content of the .zip file is not being checked, so basically I could put anything in it. I tried putting a .jsp file in it and it extracts perfectly. My problem is that I don't know how to reach this file as a "normal" user from browser. I tried entering ../../../tmp/somepage.jsp in the address bar, but Tomcat just strips the ../ and gives me http://localhost:8080/tmp/ resource not available. Ideal would be if I could somehow rename the somepage.jsp so that it gets extracted in the web directory of the Web App. But then, the Linux filesystem disallows slashes in filenames (e.g. ../../home/webapp/somepage.jsp). Are there maybe any escape sequences that would translate to / after extracting? Any ideas would be highly appreciated. Note: This is a school project in a Security course where I'm supposed to locate vulnerabilities and correct them. Not trying to harm anyone...

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  • Splitting a string which contain multiple symbols to get specific values

    - by Eon Rusted du Plessis
    I cannot believe I am having trouble with this following string String filter = "name=Default;pattern=%%;start=Last;end=Now"; This is a short and possibly duplicate question, but how would I split this string to get: string Name = "Default"; string Pattern = "%%" ; string start = "Last" ; string end = "Now" ; Reason why I ask is my deadline is very soon, and this is literally the last thing I must do. I'm Panicking, and I'm stuck on this basic command. I tried: pattern = filter.Split(new string[] { "pattern=", ";" }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries)[1]; //Gets the pattern startDate = filter.Split(new string[] { "start=", ";" }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries)[1]; //Gets the start date I happen to get the pattern which I needed, but as soon as I try to split start, I get the value as "Pattern=%%" What can I do? Forgot to mention The list in this string which needs splitting may not be in any particular order . this is a single sample of a string which will be read out of a stringCollection (reading these filters from Properties.Settings.Filters

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  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

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  • Grails target folder doesn't appear to be on application's classpath

    - by Kobi
    I have a grails project with some additional java source files under src/java folder. When compiling/running the server, the files under that directory get compiled into the project's target folder, together with all other groovy/grails classes. So far so good. However, when I try to load one of the java source files (from src/java) using reflection (Class.forName to be exact), a ClassNotFoundException gets thrown. What is peculiar about the whole thing is that if I copy that same class from project's target/ folder into the following location (on windows): <myuser>\.grails\1.2.2\projects\<MyProjectName>\resources then no exception gets thrown and the corresponding class is loaded fine. This seems to indicate to me that the integrated grails server only looks at classes within the user's dynamically generated project folder, and not the actual project's target folder. Is my understanding correct? Is there a way to force grails to copy certain classfiles from target/ folder into the resources folder within the user dir? Is there a different way to load the classfiles using reflection? I was looking at using the grailsApplication's classloader but that didn't seem to work either. Any tips would be more than welcome. Thanks a lot in advance!

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  • Entity Framework LINQ Query using Custom C# Class Method - Once yes, once no - because executing on the client or in SQL?

    - by BrooklynDev
    I have two Entity Framework 4 Linq queries I wrote that make use of a custom class method, one works and one does not: The custom method is: public static DateTime GetLastReadToDate(string fbaUsername, Discussion discussion) { return (discussion.DiscussionUserReads.Where(dur => dur.User.aspnet_User.UserName == fbaUsername).FirstOrDefault() ?? new DiscussionUserRead { ReadToDate = DateTime.Now.AddYears(-99) }).ReadToDate; } The linq query that works calls a from after a from, the equivalent of SelectMany(): from g in oc.Users.Where(u => u.aspnet_User.UserName == fbaUsername).First().Groups from d in g.Discussions select new { UnReadPostCount = d.Posts.Where(p => p.CreatedDate > DiscussionRepository.GetLastReadToDate(fbaUsername, p.Discussion)).Count() }; The query that does not work is more like a regular select: from d in oc.Discussions where d.Group.Name == "Student" select new { UnReadPostCount = d.Posts.Where(p => p.CreatedDate > DiscussionRepository.GetLastReadToDate(fbaUsername, p.Discussion)).Count(), }; The error I get is: LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.DateTime GetLastReadToDate(System.String, Discussion)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. My question is, why am I able to use my custom GetLastReadToDate() method in the first query and not the second? I suppose this has something to do with what gets executed on the db server and what gets executed on the client? These queries seem to use the GetLastReadToDate() method so similarly though, I'm wondering why would work for the first and not the second, and most importantly if there's a way to factor common query syntax like what's in the GetLastReadToDate() method into a separate location to be reused in several different places LINQ queries. Please note all these queries are sharing the same object context.

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  • A little confused about MVC and where to put a database query

    - by jax
    OK, so my Joomla app is in MVC format. I am still a little confused about where to put certain operations, in the Controller or in the Model. This function below is in the controller, it gets called when &task=remove. Should the database stuff be in the Model? It does not seem to fit there because I have two models editapp (display a single application) and allapps (display all the applications), now which one would I put the delete operation in? /** * Delete an application */ function remove() { global $mainframe; $cid = JRequest::getVar( 'cid', array(), '', 'array' ); $db =& JFactory::getDBO(); //if there are items to delete if(count($cid)){ $cids = implode( ',', $cid ); $query = "DELETE FROM #__myapp_apps WHERE id IN ( $cids )"; $db->setQuery( $query ); if (!$db->query()){ echo "<script> alert('".$db->getErrorMsg()."');window.history.go(-1); </script>\n"; } } $mainframe->redirect( 'index.php?option=' . $option . '&c=apps'); } I am also confused about how the flow works. For example, there is a display() function in the controller that gets called by default. If I pass a task, does the display() function still run or does it go directly to the function name passed by $task?

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  • Handling row selection from a simple grid using jquery and asp.net mvc

    - by Jonn
    Using a simple table and jquery, how would you manually handle selection using jquery? So far, I've managed to add a gridrowselected class on the tr when the click event is called so that I'll know which row is currently selected. But I don't know how to pass the selected data back to the controller (or at least an index I placed on the row). I tried something like this $(function() { $('#ProjectList .gridrow').click(function() { // Get row's index var projectId = $(this).find('input[name$=ProjectId]').val(); // Remove the input if it already exists var parentForm = $(this).parents('form'); parentForm.remove('input[name="selectedRows"][value="' + projectId + '"]'); // If it is selected, create the form. If it's not selected then the input just gets removed (the user must have clicked on it and deselected the row) if ($(this).hasClass('gridrow-selected') === true) { parentForm.append($('<input>', { type: "hidden", name: "selectedRows", value: projectId })); } }); }); which I'm expecting to create a hidden input so that when I post, selectedRows gets passed onto the controller. But all it does is create the input, but the data still doesn't get passed to the controller.

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  • How to add or remove a value inside a table cell on selection / de-selection of checkbox of that row, trying to submit the value via Jquery?

    - by Raul
    Here is the table: <%= form_tag '', :id => "costs" do %> <table class="table table-bordered" id="service_cost"> <% @services.each do |service| %> <tbody> <tr> <td><%= check_box_tag :open_service, {}, false, :class => 'checkable' %></td> <td><%= service.phone %></td> <td><%= service.internet %></td> <td></td> <td></td> <td></td> <td></td> <td></td> <td><%= service.house_keeping %> </td> <td>0.0 </td> <td><%= service.laundry %></td> <td><%= text_field_tag "service_cost", service.total, :class => "input-small" %></td> </tr> <% end %> when the form gets submitted, the javascript gets into action: $("#costs").submit(function(){ formData=$("#costs").serializeArray(); processFormData(formData) return false; }); This ensures form submission on selecting the checkbox: $('.checkable').live('change', function() { $(this).parents('form:first').submit(); }); But, what I am looking for is adding or removing a cell value based on checkbox selection/de-selection and submitting it, kindly suggest a way to do it.

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  • Can Haskell's monads be thought of as using and returning a hidden state parameter?

    - by AJM
    I don't understand the exact algebra and theory behind Haskell's monads. However, when I think about functional programming in general I get the impression that state would be modelled by taking an initial state and generating a copy of it to represent the next state. This is like when one list is appended to another; neither list gets modified, but a third list is created and returned. Is it therefore valid to think of monadic operations as implicitly taking an initial state object as a parameter and implicitly returning a final state object? These state objects would be hidden so that the programmer doesn't have to worry about them and to control how they gets accessed. So, the programmer would not try to copy the object representing the IO stream as it was ten minutes ago. In other words, if we have this code: main = do putStrLn "Enter your name:" name <- getLine putStrLn ( "Hello " ++ name ) ...is it OK to think of the IO monad and the "do" syntax as representing this style of code? putStrLn :: IOState -> String -> IOState getLine :: IOState -> (IOState, String) main :: IOState -> IOState -- main returns an IOState we can call "state3" main state0 = putStrLn state2 ("Hello " ++ name) where (state2, name) = getLine state1 state1 = putStrLn state0 "Enter your name:"

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  • Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

    - by dw
    Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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  • What should I use to increase performance. View/Query/Temporary Table

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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  • On android how would I go about creating a prompt for an app that requires a user to enter a username before fully launching the app?

    - by racl101
    I'll preface this with I'm really new to working on Android. So I have to work on an existing app and create a screen that prompts the user for a username if one isn't entered then it won't launch the currently existing main activity (i.e. it won't fully launch the app. Instead it will just sit on that screen until a username is entered.) I suppose that it's tantamount to a web app login page in that it will not let a user past that page if the user is not authenticated and authorized. However, there's no authentication nor authorization in this app. Instead, on first run a user must simply register with a username and that username gets saved to the database and for any subsequent runs the app's main activity will just start because a user has registered to that phone. In fact, the app will not prompt the user for their name again unless the app gets deleted with all its data and reinstalled again. This implicitly means that I have to save the user's name in the database or some other kind of storage. So I was wondering what would be the best way of doing this in an app with an existing main activity? Should I try to accomplish this on that existing main activity or create a new activity to display this prompt screen and, in effect, block the main activity from running until the user enters their name? Any tutorials or links would be helpful and thank you in advance for any help.

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  • Vector does reallocation on every push_back

    - by Amrish
    IDE - Visual Studio 2008, Visual C++ I have a custom class Class1 with a copy constructor to it. I also have a vector Data is inserted using the following code Class1* objClass1; vector<Class1> vClass1; for(int i=0;i<1000;i++) { objClass1 = new Class1(); vClass1.push_back(*objClass1); delete objClass1; } Now on every insert, the vector gets re-allocated and all the existing contents are copied to new locations. For example, if the vector has 5 elements and if I insert the 6th one, the previous 5 elements along with the new one gets copied to a new location (I figured it out by adding log statements in the copy constructors.) On using reserve(), this however does not happen as expected! I have the following questions Is it mandatory to always use the reserve statement? Does vector does a reallocation every time I do a push_back; or does it happen because I am debugging?

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  • How do I change or add data to a data repeater and get it to display in ASP.NET

    - by CowKingDeluxe
    Here is my code-behind, this adds the "OakTreeName" to the datarepeater. There's about 200 of them. Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand("OakTree_Load", New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConnStr)) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.Connection.Open() Dim datareader As SqlClient.SqlDataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader() OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataSource = datareader OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataBind() cmd.Connection.Close() Here is essentially what I'd like to do with my markup: <ContentTemplate> <asp:Repeater ID="OakTree_Thumb_Repeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeName") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> <!-- Or I'd like to do it this way by adding a custom variable to the data repeater --> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeThumbURL") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </ContentTemplate> I would like to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable before it gets placed into the item template. Basically I need to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable and then input it as the ImageURL for the imagebutton within the item template. How do I do this? Am I approaching this wrong? Is there a way to manipulate the item template from code-behind before it gets displayed for each round of variables in the data repeater?

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  • How to lazy load a data structure (python)

    - by Anton Geraschenko
    I have some way of building a data structure (out of some file contents, say): def loadfile(FILE): return # some data structure created from the contents of FILE So I can do things like puppies = loadfile("puppies.csv") # wait for loadfile to work kitties = loadfile("kitties.csv") # wait some more print len(puppies) print puppies[32] In the above example, I wasted a bunch of time actually reading kitties.csv and creating a data structure that I never used. I'd like to avoid that waste without constantly checking if not kitties whenever I want to do something. I'd like to be able to do puppies = lazyload("puppies.csv") # instant kitties = lazyload("kitties.csv") # instant print len(puppies) # wait for loadfile print puppies[32] So if I don't ever try to do anything with kitties, loadfile("kitties.csv") never gets called. Is there some standard way to do this? After playing around with it for a bit, I produced the following solution, which appears to work correctly and is quite brief. Are there some alternatives? Are there drawbacks to using this approach that I should keep in mind? class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE self.F = None def __getattr__(self,name): if not self.F: print "loading %s" % self.FILE self.F = loadfile(self.FILE) return object.__getattribute__(self.F, name) What might be even better is if something like this worked: class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE def __getattr__(self,name): self = loadfile(self.FILE) # this never gets called again # since self is no longer a # lazyload instance return object.__getattribute__(self, name) But this doesn't work because self is local. It actually ends up calling loadfile every time you do anything.

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  • Rails creating users, roles, and projects

    - by Bobby
    I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

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