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  • Entity Framework LINQ Query using Custom C# Class Method - Once yes, once no - because executing on the client or in SQL?

    - by BrooklynDev
    I have two Entity Framework 4 Linq queries I wrote that make use of a custom class method, one works and one does not: The custom method is: public static DateTime GetLastReadToDate(string fbaUsername, Discussion discussion) { return (discussion.DiscussionUserReads.Where(dur => dur.User.aspnet_User.UserName == fbaUsername).FirstOrDefault() ?? new DiscussionUserRead { ReadToDate = DateTime.Now.AddYears(-99) }).ReadToDate; } The linq query that works calls a from after a from, the equivalent of SelectMany(): from g in oc.Users.Where(u => u.aspnet_User.UserName == fbaUsername).First().Groups from d in g.Discussions select new { UnReadPostCount = d.Posts.Where(p => p.CreatedDate > DiscussionRepository.GetLastReadToDate(fbaUsername, p.Discussion)).Count() }; The query that does not work is more like a regular select: from d in oc.Discussions where d.Group.Name == "Student" select new { UnReadPostCount = d.Posts.Where(p => p.CreatedDate > DiscussionRepository.GetLastReadToDate(fbaUsername, p.Discussion)).Count(), }; The error I get is: LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.DateTime GetLastReadToDate(System.String, Discussion)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. My question is, why am I able to use my custom GetLastReadToDate() method in the first query and not the second? I suppose this has something to do with what gets executed on the db server and what gets executed on the client? These queries seem to use the GetLastReadToDate() method so similarly though, I'm wondering why would work for the first and not the second, and most importantly if there's a way to factor common query syntax like what's in the GetLastReadToDate() method into a separate location to be reused in several different places LINQ queries. Please note all these queries are sharing the same object context.

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  • different thread accessing MemoryStream

    - by Wayne
    There's a bit of code which writes data to a MemoryStream object directly into it's data buffer by calling GetBuffer(). It also uses and updates the Position and SetLength() properties appropriately. This code works purposes 99.9999% of the time. Literally. Only every so many 100,000's of iterations it will barf. The specific problem is that the memory.Position property suddenly returns zero instead of the appropriate value. However, code was added that checks for the 0 and throws an exception which include log of the MemoryStream properties like Position and Length in a separate method. Those return the correct value. Further addition shows that when this rare condition occurs, the memory.Position only has zero inside this particular method. Okay. Obviously, this must be a threading issue. But this code is well locked. However, the nature of this software is that it's organized by "tasks" with a scheduler and so any one of several actual O/S thread may run this code at any give time--but never more than one at a time. So it's my guess that ordinarily it so happens that the same thread keeps getting used for this method and then on a rare occasion a different thread get used. Then due to compiler optimizations, the different thread never gets the correct value. It gets a "stale" value. Ordinarily in a situation like this I would apply a "volatile" keyword to the variable in question. But that (those) variables are inside the MemoryStream object. Does anyone have any other idea? Or does this mean we have to implement our own MemoryStream object? (Just like we end up having to do with practically every collection in .NET?) It's a shame to have such an awesome platform as .NET and have virtually the entire system useless as-is for seriously parallelized applications. If I'm wrong or you have other ideas, please advise. Sincerely, Wayne

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  • Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

    - by hangy
    During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

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  • Unable to call storyboard from xib

    - by Shruti Kapoor
    I am new to iOS development. I am trying to connect to a storyboard from xib file. My xib View Controller has a "Login" which if successful should connect to storyboard. I have googled and searched on stackoverflow for a solution and I am using this code that is given everywhere: UIStoryboard *storyboard = [UIStoryboard storyboardWithName:@"MainStoryboard" bundle:nil]; YourViewController * yourView = (YourViewController *)[storyboard instantiateViewControllerWithIdentifier:@"identifier ID"]; I have created an identifier for my storyboard as well. However, I am not being redirected to the storyboard no matter what I try. When the login finishes, I go back to my main View Controller (xib). I should be instead redirected to the storyboard. Here is what my code looks like in a file called ProfileTabView.m: -(void) loginViewDidFinish:(NSNotification*)notification { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self]; UIStoryboard* storyboard = [UIStoryboard storyboardWithName:@"Storyboard" bundle:nil]; ProfileTabView * yourView = (ProfileTabView *)[storyboard instantiateViewControllerWithIdentifier:@"myID"]; } I have implemeted this code in the function that gets called once the login is successful. However, the storyboard "Storyboard" never gets called. Am i doing this right? Am I supposed to be writing this code anywhere else? Thanks a lot for any help :)

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  • Android lifecycle of thread-based game

    - by ehehhh
    I ran into a bit of trouble while trying to get my game to work correctly after being put to the background by the user or a phone call for example. My app has a SurfaceView class called GameView, which has the onDraw() method to do all the necessary drawing for my game and two threads - one for calling the onDraw() and one for doing the necessary calculations for the game's logic. I succesfully implemented onPause() and onResume(). (I paused both threads when back button was pressed and resumed them after user cancelled in the AlertDialog.) Now I would like to have the game paused the same way when onStop() gets called. I put both threads on pause and saved my characters location in the savedInstanceState, but when I start my app again, no method gets called (I checked with Logcat). I believe onRestart() should be called first, then onStart() and then onResume(), but none of that happens. What am I doing wrong? (Didn't include any code, because it seems to be a problem of me not understanding the lifecycle, not a problem in code. If it seems necessary, I'll post the parts you request.)

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  • How can I find out if the MainActivity is being paused from my Java class?

    - by quinestor
    I am using motion sensor detection in my application. My design is this: a class gets the sensor services references from the main activity and then it implements SensorEventListener. That is, the MainActivity does not listen for sensor event changes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // ... code mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(Context.SENSOR_SERVICE); mAccelerometer = mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER); // The following is my java class, it does not extends any android fragment/activty mShakeUtil = new ShakeUtil(mSensorManager,mAccelerometer,this); // ..more code.. } I can't redesign ShakeUtil so it is a fragment nor activity, unfortunately. Now to illustrate the problem consider: MainActivity is on its way to be destroyed/paused. I.e screen rotation ShakeUtil's onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) gets called in the process.. One of the things that happen inside onSensorChanged is a dialog interaction, which gives the error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Can not perform this action after onSaveInstanceState When the previous happens between MainActivity's onSaveInstanceState and onPause. I know this can be prevented if I successfully detect that MainActivity is being pause in ShakeUtil. How can I detect that MainActivity is being paused or onSaveInstanceState was called from ShakeUtil? Alternatively, how can I avoid this issue without making Shakeutil extend activity? So far I have tried with flag variables but that isn't good enough, I guess these are not atomic operations. I tried using Activity's isChangingConfigurations(), but I get an undocummented "NoSuchMethodFound" error.. I am unregistering the sensors by calling ShakeUtil when onPause in main ACtivity

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  • Getting empty update rectangle in OnPaint after calling InvalidateRect on a layered window

    - by Shawn
    I'm trying to figure out why I've been getting an empty update rectangle when I call InvalidateRect on a transparent window. The idea is that I've drawn something on the window (it gets temporarily switched to have an alpha of 1/255 for the drawing), and then I switch it to full transparent mode (i.e. alpha of 0) in order to interact with the desktop & to be able to move the drawing around the screen on top of the desktop. When I try to move the drawing, I get its bounding rectangle & use it to call InvalidateRect, as such: InvalidateRect(m_hTarget, &winRect, FALSE); I've confirmed that the winRect is indeed correct, and that m_hTarget is the correct window & that its rectangle fully encompasses winRect. I get into the OnPaint handler in the class corresponding to m_hTarget, which is derived from a CWnd. In there, I create a CPaintDC, but when I try to access the update rectangle (dcPaint.m_ps.rcPaint) it's always empty. This rectangle gets passed to a function that determines if we need to update the screen (by using UpdateLayeredWindow in the case of a transparent window). If I hard-code a non-empty rectangle in here, the remaining code works correctly & I am able to move the drawing around the screen. I tried changing the 'FALSE' parameter to 'TRUE' in InvalidateRect, with no effect. I also tried using a standard CDC, and then using BeginPaint/EndPaint method in my OnPaint handler, just to ensure that CPaintDC wasn't doing something odd ... but I got the same results. The code that I'm using was originally designed for opaque windows. If m_hTarget corresponds to an opaque window, the same set of function calls results in the correct (i.e. non-empty) rectangle being passed to OnPaint. Once the window is layered, though, it doesn't seem to work right.

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  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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  • C++ MFC server app with sockets crashes and I cannot find the fault, help!

    - by usermeister
    My program has one dialog and two sockets. Both sockets are derived from CAsyncSocket, one is for listening, other is for receiving data from client. My program crashes when client tries to connect to server application and server needs to initialize receiving socket. This is my MFC dialog class. class CFileTransferServerDlg : public CDialog { ... ListeningSocket ListenSock; ReceivingSocket* RecvSock; void OnAccept(); // called when ListenSock gets connection attempt ... }; This is my derived socket class for receiving data that calls parent dialogs method when event is signaled. class ReceivingSocket : public CAsyncSocket { CFileTransferServerDlg* m_pDlg; // for accessing parent dialogs controls virtual void OnReceive(int nErrorCode); } ReceivingSocket::ReceivingSocket() { } This is dialogs function that handles incoming connection attempt when listening socket gets event notification. This is where the crash happens. void CFileTransferServerDlg::OnAccept() { RecvSock = new ReceivingSocket; /* CRASH */ } OR void CFileTransferServerDlg::OnAccept() { ReceivingSocket* tmpSock = new ReceivingSocket; tmpSock->SetParentDlg(this); CString message; if( ListenSock.Accept(*tmpSock) ) /* CRASH */ { message.LoadStringW(IDS_CLIENT_CONNECTED); m_txtStatus.SetWindowTextW(message); RecvSock = tmpSock; } } My program crashes when I try to create a socket for receiving file sent from client application. OnAccept starts when Listening socket signals incoming connection attempt, but my application then crashes. I've tried running it on another computer and connection attempt was succesful. What could be wrong? Error in debug mode: Unhandled exception at 0x009c30e1 in FileTransferServer.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xccccce58.

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  • Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

    - by dw
    Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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  • Can Haskell's monads be thought of as using and returning a hidden state parameter?

    - by AJM
    I don't understand the exact algebra and theory behind Haskell's monads. However, when I think about functional programming in general I get the impression that state would be modelled by taking an initial state and generating a copy of it to represent the next state. This is like when one list is appended to another; neither list gets modified, but a third list is created and returned. Is it therefore valid to think of monadic operations as implicitly taking an initial state object as a parameter and implicitly returning a final state object? These state objects would be hidden so that the programmer doesn't have to worry about them and to control how they gets accessed. So, the programmer would not try to copy the object representing the IO stream as it was ten minutes ago. In other words, if we have this code: main = do putStrLn "Enter your name:" name <- getLine putStrLn ( "Hello " ++ name ) ...is it OK to think of the IO monad and the "do" syntax as representing this style of code? putStrLn :: IOState -> String -> IOState getLine :: IOState -> (IOState, String) main :: IOState -> IOState -- main returns an IOState we can call "state3" main state0 = putStrLn state2 ("Hello " ++ name) where (state2, name) = getLine state1 state1 = putStrLn state0 "Enter your name:"

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  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

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  • Grails target folder doesn't appear to be on application's classpath

    - by Kobi
    I have a grails project with some additional java source files under src/java folder. When compiling/running the server, the files under that directory get compiled into the project's target folder, together with all other groovy/grails classes. So far so good. However, when I try to load one of the java source files (from src/java) using reflection (Class.forName to be exact), a ClassNotFoundException gets thrown. What is peculiar about the whole thing is that if I copy that same class from project's target/ folder into the following location (on windows): <myuser>\.grails\1.2.2\projects\<MyProjectName>\resources then no exception gets thrown and the corresponding class is loaded fine. This seems to indicate to me that the integrated grails server only looks at classes within the user's dynamically generated project folder, and not the actual project's target folder. Is my understanding correct? Is there a way to force grails to copy certain classfiles from target/ folder into the resources folder within the user dir? Is there a different way to load the classfiles using reflection? I was looking at using the grailsApplication's classloader but that didn't seem to work either. Any tips would be more than welcome. Thanks a lot in advance!

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  • A little confused about MVC and where to put a database query

    - by jax
    OK, so my Joomla app is in MVC format. I am still a little confused about where to put certain operations, in the Controller or in the Model. This function below is in the controller, it gets called when &task=remove. Should the database stuff be in the Model? It does not seem to fit there because I have two models editapp (display a single application) and allapps (display all the applications), now which one would I put the delete operation in? /** * Delete an application */ function remove() { global $mainframe; $cid = JRequest::getVar( 'cid', array(), '', 'array' ); $db =& JFactory::getDBO(); //if there are items to delete if(count($cid)){ $cids = implode( ',', $cid ); $query = "DELETE FROM #__myapp_apps WHERE id IN ( $cids )"; $db->setQuery( $query ); if (!$db->query()){ echo "<script> alert('".$db->getErrorMsg()."');window.history.go(-1); </script>\n"; } } $mainframe->redirect( 'index.php?option=' . $option . '&c=apps'); } I am also confused about how the flow works. For example, there is a display() function in the controller that gets called by default. If I pass a task, does the display() function still run or does it go directly to the function name passed by $task?

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  • What should I use to increase performance. View/Query/Temporary Table

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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  • Vector does reallocation on every push_back

    - by Amrish
    IDE - Visual Studio 2008, Visual C++ I have a custom class Class1 with a copy constructor to it. I also have a vector Data is inserted using the following code Class1* objClass1; vector<Class1> vClass1; for(int i=0;i<1000;i++) { objClass1 = new Class1(); vClass1.push_back(*objClass1); delete objClass1; } Now on every insert, the vector gets re-allocated and all the existing contents are copied to new locations. For example, if the vector has 5 elements and if I insert the 6th one, the previous 5 elements along with the new one gets copied to a new location (I figured it out by adding log statements in the copy constructors.) On using reserve(), this however does not happen as expected! I have the following questions Is it mandatory to always use the reserve statement? Does vector does a reallocation every time I do a push_back; or does it happen because I am debugging?

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  • How to face observable object containing an observable field

    - by iseek
    Hello, I need a hint concerning MVC and Observer-Pattern. For example a model contains the classes "Address" and "Person". The Address class contains the fields street:String, zipcode:String, location:String. Whereas the Person class contains the fields name:String, firstName:String, address:Address. My approach so far looks something like this: Both, Address and Person are observable. If one of their setters is being called, I validate whether the current value and new value differ. Only in this case an update event is fired. The event contains the source, the name of the changed field, the old and the new value. The class for the view contains text fields to display and edit the information of a person: name, firstname, street, zipcode, location. It knows the Person model and is an subscribed observer for the person. So it gets the update events from the person object. My questions concerns the address field from type Address in the person class, since an address is observable on its own. If the view gets an update event from person when a new address has been set, I can update all of the address related fields in the view. But what if a field of the address changes? Should the view also register for update events from the address? Any hints about common design approaches would be appreciated. Greetings.

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  • Handling row selection from a simple grid using jquery and asp.net mvc

    - by Jonn
    Using a simple table and jquery, how would you manually handle selection using jquery? So far, I've managed to add a gridrowselected class on the tr when the click event is called so that I'll know which row is currently selected. But I don't know how to pass the selected data back to the controller (or at least an index I placed on the row). I tried something like this $(function() { $('#ProjectList .gridrow').click(function() { // Get row's index var projectId = $(this).find('input[name$=ProjectId]').val(); // Remove the input if it already exists var parentForm = $(this).parents('form'); parentForm.remove('input[name="selectedRows"][value="' + projectId + '"]'); // If it is selected, create the form. If it's not selected then the input just gets removed (the user must have clicked on it and deselected the row) if ($(this).hasClass('gridrow-selected') === true) { parentForm.append($('<input>', { type: "hidden", name: "selectedRows", value: projectId })); } }); }); which I'm expecting to create a hidden input so that when I post, selectedRows gets passed onto the controller. But all it does is create the input, but the data still doesn't get passed to the controller.

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  • Rails creating users, roles, and projects

    - by Bobby
    I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

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  • How do I change or add data to a data repeater and get it to display in ASP.NET

    - by CowKingDeluxe
    Here is my code-behind, this adds the "OakTreeName" to the datarepeater. There's about 200 of them. Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand("OakTree_Load", New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConnStr)) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.Connection.Open() Dim datareader As SqlClient.SqlDataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader() OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataSource = datareader OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataBind() cmd.Connection.Close() Here is essentially what I'd like to do with my markup: <ContentTemplate> <asp:Repeater ID="OakTree_Thumb_Repeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeName") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> <!-- Or I'd like to do it this way by adding a custom variable to the data repeater --> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeThumbURL") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </ContentTemplate> I would like to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable before it gets placed into the item template. Basically I need to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable and then input it as the ImageURL for the imagebutton within the item template. How do I do this? Am I approaching this wrong? Is there a way to manipulate the item template from code-behind before it gets displayed for each round of variables in the data repeater?

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  • Java's Swing Threading

    - by nevets1219
    My understanding is that if I start up another thread to perform some actions, I would need to SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait or SwingUtilities.invokeLater to update the GUI while I'm in said thread. Please correct me if I'm wrong. What I'm trying to accomplish is relatively straightforward: when the user clicks submit, I want to (before performing any actions) disable the submit button, perform the action, and at the end of the action re-enable the button. My method to perform the action updates the GUI directly (displays results) when it gets the results back. This action basically queries a server and gets some results back. What I have so far is: boolean isRunning = false; synchronized handleButtonClick() { if ( isRunning == false ) { button.setEnabled( false ); isRunning = true; doAction(); } } doAction() { new Thread() { try { doAction(); // Concern A } catch ( ... ) { displayStackTrace( ... ); // Concern B } finally { SwingUtilities.invokeLater ( /* simple Runnable to enable button */ ); isRunning = false; } } } For both of my concerns above, do I would have to use SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait since they both will update the GUI? All GUI updates revolve around updating JTextPane. Do I need to in my thread check if I'm on EDT and if so I can call my code (regardless of whether it updates the GUI or not) and NOT use SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait?

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  • Stil facing the problem in Orientation in iphone

    - by aman-gupta
    Hi, In my application I have 15 screens in that i m using UIViewController for all screens and in all screens i m using the below way to call other screen :- AppDelegate *appRefre = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:appRefre.frmReferencesLink animated:YES]; And the below code is activated in all screen for orientation to control the user to switch from one orientation to other mode (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { return YES; } else { return NO; } } But when i run my application in iPhone device my application gets terminated when i physically rotate my iphone device from UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait to UIInterfaceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown or UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft,UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight. And One more things is that when my application lauch i used following code for launching my appliaction :- 1) I made a pointer in mydelegate.h file: UINavigationController *navigationController; Then synthesize its property @property(nonatomic,retain)UINavigationController *navigationController 2) In mydelegat.m I Wrote @synthesize navigationController; (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:DefaultViewLink]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } 3) In above point DefaultView is launch first and gets remove from view and then actual my appliaction come into picture. So exactly what i want i want my appliaction to be in portrait mode for all screens i dont want my appliaction will switch to other mode.It remains the same as in portrait mode after rotation to any other mode. Please help me out its very urgent. Thanks in Advance and humble request to help me out

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  • MySQL query paralyzes site

    - by nute
    Once in a while, at random intervals, our website gets completely paralyzed. Looking at SHOW FULL PROCESSLIST;, I've noticed that when this happens, there is a specific query that is "Copying to tmp table" for a loooong time (sometimes 350 seconds), and almost all the other queries are "Locked". The part I don't understand is that 90% of the time, this query runs fine. I see it going through in the process list and it finishes pretty quickly most of the time. This query is being called by an ajax call on our homepage to display product recommendations based your browsing history (a la amazon). Just sometimes, randomly (but too often), it gets stuck at "copying to tmp table". Here is a caught instance of the query that was up 109 seconds when I looked: SELECT DISTINCT product_product.id, product_product.name, product_product.retailprice, product_product.imageurl, product_product.thumbnailurl, product_product.msrp FROM product_product, product_xref, product_viewhistory WHERE ( (product_viewhistory.productId = product_xref.product_id_1 AND product_xref.product_id_2 = product_product.id) OR (product_viewhistory.productId = product_xref.product_id_2 AND product_xref.product_id_1 = product_product.id) ) AND product_product.outofstock='N' AND product_viewhistory.cookieId = '188af1efad392c2adf82' AND product_viewhistory.productId IN (24976, 25873, 26067, 26073, 44949, 16209, 70528, 69784, 75171, 75172) ORDER BY product_xref.hits DESC LIMIT 10 Of course the "cookieId" and the list of "productId" changes dynamically depending on the request. I use php with PDO.

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  • Sorted queue with dropping out elements

    - by ffriend
    I have a list of jobs and queue of workers waiting for these jobs. All the jobs are the same, but workers are different and sorted by their ability to perform the job. That is, first person can do this job best of all, second does it just a little bit worse and so on. Job is always assigned to the person with the highest skills from those who are free at that moment. When person is assigned a job, he drops out of the queue for some time. But when he is done, he gets back to his position. So, for example, at some moment in time worker queue looks like: [x, x, .83, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] where x's stand for missing workers and numbers show skill level of left workers. When there's a new job, it is assigned to 3rd worker as the one with highest skill of available workers. So next moment queue looks like: [x, x, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] Let's say, that at this moment worker #2 finishes his job and gets back to the list: [x, .91, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] I hope the process is completely clear now. My question is what algorithm and data structure to use to implement quick search and deletion of worker and insertion back to his position. For the moment the best approach I can see is to use Fibonacci heap that have amortized O(log n) for deleting minimal element (assigning job and deleting worker from queue) and O(1) for inserting him back, which is pretty good. But is there even better algorithm / data structure that possibly take into account the fact that elements are already sorted and only drop of the queue from time to time?

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  • NSApp Sheets question in cocoa

    - by califguy
    Hi, Here's what I am trying to do. I need to prompt the user for a password prompt and until he enters the password and hits, say the Enter button on the sheet, I want to prevent the code being parsed in the background. Here's the code to run the sheet and when the user enters the password and hits Enter, endSpeedSheet is run. I am calling all of this from my Main() function. What I am noticing is that the when the main function runs, the sheet shows up, the user is prompted for a password. But in the background, I already see " Code gets here" has been run. This means the code has already run in the background. What I need is the code to wait at the password prompt and then use this password after the Sheet has been dismissed. Any idea's on what I am missing here ? - (IBAction) showSpeedSheet:(id)sender { [NSApp beginSheet:speedSheet modalForWindow:(NSWindow *)window modalDelegate:nil didEndSelector:nil contextInfo:nil]; } -(IBAction)endSpeedSheet:(id)sender { joinPassword = [joinPasswordLabel stringValue]; [NSApp endSheet:speedSheet]; [speedSheet orderOut:sender]; } -(IBAction)main:(id)sender { [self showSpeedSheet:(id)sender]; // More Code here NSLog(@" Code gets here"); }

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