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  • NSPredicate 'OR' filtering based on an NSArray of keys

    - by So Over It
    Consider the following NSArray: NSArray *dataSet = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"abc", @"key1", @"def", @"key2", @"hij", @"key3", nil], [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"klm", @"key1", @"nop", @"key2", nil], [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"qrs", @"key2", @"tuv", @"key3", nil], [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"wxy", @"key3", nil], nil]; I am able to filter this array to find dictionary objects that contain the key key1 // Filter our dataSet to only contain dictionary objects with a key of 'key1' NSString *key = @"key1"; NSPredicate *key1Predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"%@ IN self.@allKeys", key]; NSArray *filteretSet1 = [dataSet filteredArrayUsingPredicate:key1Predicate]; NSLog(@"filteretSet1: %@",filteretSet1); Which appropriately returns: filteretSet1: ( { key1 = abc; key2 = def; key3 = hij; }, { key1 = klm; key2 = nop; } ) Now, I am wanting to filter the dataSet for dictionary objects containing ANY of the keys in an NSArray. For example, using the array: NSArray *keySet = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"key1", @"key3", nil]; I want to create a predicate that returns and array of any dictionary objects that contain either 'key1' or 'key3' (ie. in this example all dictionary objects would be returned except for the third object - as it does not contain either 'key1' or 'key3'). Any ideas on how I would achieve this? Would I have to use a compound predicate?

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  • Custom API requirement

    - by Jonathan.Peppers
    We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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  • Dealloc'd Predicate crashing iPhone App!

    - by DVG
    To preface, this is a follow up to an inquiry made a few days ago: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2981803/iphone-app-crashes-when-merging-managed-object-contexts Short Version: EXC_BAD_ACCESS is crashing my app, and zombie-mode revealed the culprit to be my predicate embedded within the fetch request embedded in my Fetched Results Controller. How does an object within an object get released without an explicit command to do so? Long Version: Application Structure Platforms View Controller - Games View Controller (Predicated upon platform selection) - Add Game View Controller When a row gets clicked on the Platforms view, it sets an instance variable in Games View for that platform, then the Games Fetched Results Controller builds a fetch request in the normal way: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController{ if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } //build the fetch request for Games NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Game" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; //predicate NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"platform == %@", selectedPlatform]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; //sort based on name NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; //fetch and build fetched results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; [predicate release]; [request release]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; return fetchedResultsController; } At the end of this method, the fetchedResultsController's _fetch_request - _predicate member is set to an NSComparisonPredicate object. All is well in the world. By the time - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section gets called, the _predicate is now a Zombie, which will eventually crash the application when the table attempts to update itself. I'm more or less flummoxed. I'm not releasing the fetched results controller or any of it's parts, and the only part getting dealloc'd is the predicate. Any ideas?

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  • MSBuild - How to build a .NET solution file (in an XML task script) from pre-written command line commands

    - by Devtron
    Hello. I have been studying MSBuild as I have the need to automate my development shop's builds. I was able to easily write a .BAT file that invokes the VS command prompt and passes my MSBuild commands to it. This works rather well and is kinda nifty. Here is the contents of my .BAT build file: call "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\bin\amd64\vcvars64.bat" cd C:\Sandbox\Solution msbuild MyTopSecretApplication.sln /p:OutputPath=c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT /p:Configuration=Release,Platform=x86 pause ^ This works well but I now have the need to use the MSBuild task for TeamCity CI. I have tried to write a few MSBuild scripts but I cannot get them to work the same. What is the equivalent build script to the command I am using in my .BAT file? Any ideas? I have tried using something like this, but no success (I know this is wrong): <?xml version="1.0"?> <project name="Hello Build World" default="run" basedir="."> <target name="build"> <mkdir dir="mybin" /> <echo>Made mybin directory!</echo> <csc target="exe" output="c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT"> <sources> <include name="MyTopSecretApplication.sln"/> </sources> </csc> <echo>MyTopSecretApplication.exe was built!</echo> </target> <target name="clean"> <delete dir="mybin" failonerror="false"/> </target> <target name="run" depends="build"> <exec program="mybin\MyTopSecretApplication.exe"/> </target> What I simply need is an MSBuild XML build script that compiles a single solution for Release mode to a specified output directory. Any help?

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  • help with delete where not in query

    - by kralco626
    I have a lookup table (##lookup). I know it's bad design because I'm duplicating data, but it speeds up my queries tremendously. I have a query that populates this table insert into ##lookup select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc... I would like to simulate this behavior: delete from ##lookup insert into ##lookup select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc... This would clearly update the table correctly. But this is a lot of inserting and deleting. It messes with my indexes and locks up the table for selecting from. This table could also be updated by something like: delete from ##lookup where not in (select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc...) insert into ##lookup (select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc...) except if it is already in the table The second way may take longer, but I can say "with no lock" and I will be able to select from the table. Any ideas on how to write the query the second way?

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  • Obj-C Sending Messages Between Classes

    - by user544359
    I'm a newbie in iPhone Programming. I'm trying to send a message from one view controller to another. The idea is that viewControllerA takes information from the user and sends it to viewControllerB. viewControllerB is then supposed to display the information in a label. viewControllerA.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface viewControllerA : UIViewController { int num; } -(IBAction)do; @end viewControllerA.m #import "viewControllerA.h" #import "viewControllerB.h" @implementation viewControllerA - (IBAction)do { //initializing int for example num = 2; viewControllerB *viewB = [[viewControllerB alloc] init]; [viewB display:num]; [viewB release]; //viewA is presented as a ModalViewController, so it dismisses itself to return to the //original view, i know it is not efficient [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end viewControllerB.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface viewControllerB : UIViewController { IBOutlet UILabel *label; } - (IBAction)openA; - (void)display:(NSInteger)myNum; @end viewControllerB.m #import "viewControllerB.h" #import "viewControllerA.h" @implementation viewControllerB - (IBAction)openA { //presents viewControllerA when a button is pressed viewControllerA *viewA = [[viewControllerA alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController:viewA animated:YES]; } - (void)display:(NSInteger)myNum { NSLog(@"YES"); [label setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", myNum]]; } @end YES is logged successfully, but the label's text does not change. I have made sure that all of my connections in Interface Builder are correct, in fact there are other (IBAction) methods in my program that change the text of this very label, and all of those other methods work perfectly... Any ideas, guys? You don't need to give me a full solution, any bits of information will help. Thanks.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 is not allowing me to debug my code

    - by Tejs
    So, this interesting issue has been plaguing me for the past couple of hours. Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate no longer attaches the debugger and lets me debug my code. If I use the built in development server, then everything works fine. If I switch to Use Local IIS Web Server (http://localhost/), then all it does it attach to w3wp.exe, but no DLLs or PDBs are loaded for anything. I can go to Debug Windows Modules, and literally nothing is loaded in this window. Conversely, when using the built in development server, the Modules window displays all the DLLs and shows that the symbols for my DLLs have been loaded. Something is obviously amiss. The VS installation is completely bone stock. In IIS, my website is configured with ASP.NET 2.0 (because no 3.5 exists to select from the drop down), along with read / log visits / index this resource options checked on the "Home Directory" tab. Some of my failed ideas: 1) If I attach to process on the iexplore.exe instance where the website is displayed, it loads Internet Explorer's DLLs, but not mine. 2) I've restarted the computer multiple times 3) I've invoked devenv.exe /resetuserdata once 4) I've confirmed that every project is indeed set to debug and not release. 5) Deleted all \bin contents and rebuilt the solution. 6) Deleted entire solution and repulled from Source Control. Can someone tell me what is wrong with this thing? I'm going to have an aneurism from the headache this is causing me.

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  • Can a second stored procedure doing the same thing finish before first one?

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called 'CreatedAudit' as well. I call the CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") Right after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • Core Data Errors vs Exceptions Part 3

    - by John Gallagher
    My question is similar to this one. Background I'm creating a large number of objects in a core data store using NSOperations to speed things up. I've followed all the Core Data multithreading rules - I've got a single persistent store coordinator and a managed object context per thread that on save is merging back to the main managed object context. The Problem When the number of threads running at once is more than 1, I get the exception logged on save of my core data store: NSExceptionHandler has recorded the following exception: NSInternalInconsistencyException -- optimistic locking failure What I've Tried My code that creates new entities is quite complex - it makes entities that have relationships with other entities that could be being created in a separate thread. If I replace my object creation routine with some very simple code just making non-related entries, everything works perfectly. Initially, as well as the exceptions, I was getting a save error saying core data couldn't save due to the merge failing. I read the docs and realised I needed a merge policy on the Managed Object Context I was saving to. I set this up and as this question states, the save error goes away, but the exception remains. My Question Do I need to worry about these exceptions? If I do need to get rid of the exceptions, any ideas on how I do it?

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  • Add values to an array after isset()

    - by user1656692
    I'm trying to add elements to an array after subsequent trials, but so far only one value is being added to the array. I've Googled and searched stackoverflow, and I seem to be getting only half the picture unless if I'm implementing it wrong. There are about 40 files, which will be needed to be submited one after another, and then a value from each trial is stored in the database. So far, this is what I've done. $_SESSION['task2'] = array(); //Submit Task 1 if (isset($_POST['submit_task_01'])) { $trial1_ac_sec = cleanInput($_POST['clockInputTask_01ac']); $trial1_est_sec = cleanInput($_POST['clockInputTask_01']); $trial1_ac = round(($trial1_ac_sec * 42.67), 2); $trial1_est = round(($trial1_est_sec * 42.67), 2); $trial1_judgErr = $trial1_ac - $trial1_est; $trial_1error = round($trial1_judgErr, 2); array_push($_SESSION['task2'],$trial_1error); header("location: Trial_2.php"); } //Submit Task2 if (isset($_POST['submit_task_02'])) { $trial2_ac_sec = cleanInput($_POST['clockInputTask_02ac']); $trial2_est_sec = cleanInput($_POST['clockInputTask_02']); $trial2_ac = round(($trial2_ac_sec * 42.67), 2); $trial2_est = round(($trial2_est_sec * 42.67), 2); $trial2_judgErr = $trial2_ac - $trial2_est; $trial_2error = round($trial2_judgErr, 2); array_push($_SESSION['task2'],$trial_2error); header("location: newEmptyPHPWebPage.php"); } ... and so on.. up until 40 I'm just wondering what am I doing wrong, I know that each time isset() will reload the page, and the previous data won't be available, so in that sense I thought I'd create an array for sessions and then push data in the session, however that doesn't seem to work. If anyone has any ideas on what I can do, I'll greatly appreciate it. Thank You.

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  • Writing my own implementation of stl-like Iterator in C++.

    - by Negai
    Good evening everybody, I'm currently trying to understand the intrinsics of iterators in various languages i.e. the way they are implemented. For example, there is the following class exposing the list interface. template<class T> class List { public: virtual void Insert( int beforeIndex, const T item ) throw( ListException ) =0 ; virtual void Append( const T item ) =0; virtual T Get( int position ) const throw( ListException ) =0; virtual int GetLength() const =0; virtual void Remove( int position ) throw( ListException ) =0; virtual ~List() =0 {}; }; According to GoF, the best way to implement an iterator that can support different kinds of traversal is to create the base Iterator class (friend of List) with protected methods that can access List's members. The concrete implementations of Iterator will handle the job in different ways and access List's private and protected data through the base interface. From here forth things are getting confusing. Say, I have class LinkedList and ArrayList, both derived from List, and there are also corresponding iterators, each of the classes returns. How can I implement LinkedListIterator? I'm absolutely out of ideas. And what kind of data can the base iterator class retrieve from the List (which is a mere interface, while the implementations of all the derived classes differ significantly) ? Sorry for so much clutter. Thanks.

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  • Altering sql tables based on condition

    - by Parker
    Is there any possible way to add a row of data to only some of the tables in a database? I am not sure what parameter I could use amongst the tables to compare them to each other. Any Ideas? For Example: My database has tables that are (let's say) group A tables, and tables that are group B. I want to add a row to only the group B tables while leaving the group A tables untouched. Sorry I should have been a bit more specific. The tables that need to have a row added will change. My application monitors inventory in different store locations(each table in my database represents a store). When I need to add an item to inventory(the items are rows in the tables) I don't want to have to manually add the row to all the store tables. My problem is: Not all the tables in the database represent stores. For instance one table stores the user login data. Obviously I do not want to add the new row to this table. How do I update only the tables that represent stores?

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  • Server sends json data correctly. Client parses it wrong

    - by alois.wirkes
    I have a PHP code that generates a JSON string to send to my Android app. This part works. The problem is when my app captures that string and try to convert it into a JSONArray object. The main idea is to store that data inside a SQLite database. Here's the code that captures the JSON string: public void getPostResponse(){ try{ br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(is,"iso-8859-1"),8); sb = new StringBuilder(); line = null; while((line = br.readLine()) != null){ sb.append(line+"\n"); } is.close(); result = sb.toString(); Log.e("getPostResponse","result= "+sb.toString()); }catch(Exception e){ Log.e("log_tag","Error converting result "+e.toString()); } } And this is the result in the LogCat: 10-11 16:27:01.171: E/getPostResponse(9155): result= [{ "establecimientos":[]},{ "rutas":[]},{ "formularios":[]},{ "clientes":[]},{ "mediciones":[]}] This is why I think there's an error, the result variable should contain the whole JSON string and it doesn't. Any ideas? Variables br, sb, line and result are declared globally. JSON sent from server is already a JSONArray (starts with '[' and ends with ']'), is this what's causing the problem?

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  • Jquery data() returning undefined

    - by David Lockwood
    I have been doing a simple jquery data() test. However it is returning undefined. It works on jsfiddle though (http://jsfiddle.net/yrCdj/). I have a jinja2 loop which populates a div and I want to tag it with some metadata for use later : {% for s in siteInfo[:markers[0]] %} <div class="sitebox2"> <script> $(".sitebox2:last").append('<a href="/sites/d?siteid={{s[5]}}">{{s[0]}}</a><br>Distance from {{loc}} is {{s[6]}} km.<br>'); $(".sitebox2:last").data('fruit', 'apple'); </script> </div> {% endfor %} I then try to call this data to test if it is working: <script type="text/javascript"> $(".sitebox2").each(function(k, v) { var f = $(v).data('fruit'); alert(f); }); </script> It returns undefined. Any ideas on what is going wrong?

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  • Invoking jQuery function without an element

    - by Sandman
    So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

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  • How do I populate an NSMutableArray in one class with another object?

    - by AngeloS
    Hello, I know this is a simple answer, but I can't seem to find the solution. I created an object in its own class and I am trying to populate it with data from another class. For simple data types like NSString, I have no problem, but when trying make an NSMutableArray equal to another NSMutableArray or when I try to populate a NSMutableArray with another objects (like strings), I keep getting exception errors... Here is the object I am trying to populate: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface RSSFeedList : NSObject { NSString *subject; NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subject; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; @end This is how I was able to populate the NSString 'subject' in another class: rssFeedList.subject = @"test"; However, if I follow similar convention within that same class with respect to an Array, it throws an exception: rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail = rssItemDetailArray; Where rssItemDetailArray is a NSMutableArray that I have built in the same class. I have also tried to add items (i tried strings for testing) to the NSMutableArray directly like so to no avail: [rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail addObject:@"test"]; Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!!

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  • Making firefox refresh images faster

    - by Earlz
    I have a thing I'm doing where I need a webpage to stream a series of images from the local client computer. I have a very simple run here: http://jsbin.com/idowi/34 The code is extremely simple setTimeout ( "refreshImage()", 100 ); function refreshImage(){ var date = new Date() var ticks = date.getTime() $('#image').attr('src','http://127.0.0.1:2723/signature?'+ticks.toString()); setTimeout ("refreshImage()", 100 ); } Basically I have a signature pad being used on the client machine. We want for the signature to show up in the web page and for them to see themselves signing it within the web page(the pad does not have an LCD to show it to them right there). So I setup a simple local HTTP server which grabs an image of what the current state of the signature pad looks like and it gets sent to the browser. This has no problems in any browser(tested in IE7, 8, and Chrome) but Firefox where it is extremely laggy and jumpy and doesn't keep with the 10 FPS rate. Does anyone have any ideas on how to fix this? I've tried creating very simple double buffering in javascript but that just made things worse. Also for a bit more information it seems that Firefox is executing the javascript at the correct framerate as on the server the requests are coming in at a constant speed. But the images are only refreshed inconsistently ranging from 5 times per second all the way down to 0 times per second(taking 2 seconds to do a refresh) Also I have tried using different image formats all with the same results. The formats I've tried include bitmaps, PNGs, and GIFs (GIFs caused a minor problem in Chrome with flicker though) Could it be possible that Firefox is somehow caching my images causing a slight lag? I send these headers though: Pragma-directive: no-cache Cache-directive: no-cache Cache-control: no-cache Pragma: no-cache Expires: 0

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  • Counting character count in Access database column ins SQL

    - by jzr
    Good Evening. My problem is possibly very easy, I just have spent some time researching now and probably have a brain lock and unable to solve this, help would be much appreciated. database structure: col1 col2 col3 col4 ==================== 1233+4566+ABCD+CDEF 1233+4566+ACD1+CDEF 1233+4566+D1AF+CDEF I need to count character count in col3, wanted result in from the previous table would be: char count =========== A 3 B 1 C 2 D 3 F 1 1 2 is this possible to achieve by using SQL only? at the moment I am thinking of passing a parameter in to SQL query and count the characters one by one and then sum, however I did not start the VBA part yet, and frankly wouldn't want to do that. this is my query at the moment: PARAMETERS X Long; SELECT First(Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1)) AS [col3 Field], Count(Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1)) AS Dcount FROM TEST GROUP BY Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1) HAVING (((Count(Mid([TABLE].[col3],[X],1)))>=1)); ideas and help are much appreciated, as being said this is probably very for some of your guys, I don't usually work with access and SQL. Thanks.

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  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

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  • Accepting a socket on Windows 7 takes more than a second

    - by eburger
    Here's what I've done: I wrote a minimal web server (using Qt, but I don't think it's relevant here). I'm running it on a legal Windows 7 32-bit. The problem: If I make a request with Firefox, IE, Chrome or Safari it takes takes about one second before my server sees that there is a new connection to be accepted. Clues: Using other clients (wget, own test client that just opens a socket) than Firefox, IE, Chrome, Safari seeing the new connection is matter of milliseconds. I installed Apache and tried the clients mentioned above. Serving the request takes ~50ms as expected. The problem isn't reproducible when running Windows XP (or compiling and running the same code under Linux) The problem seems to present itself only when connecting to localhost. A friend connected over the Internet and serving the connection was a matter of milliseconds. Running the server in different ports has no effect on the 1 second latency Here's what I've tried without luck: Stopped the Windows Defender service Stopped the Windows Firewall service Any ideas? Is this some clever 'security feature' in Windows 7? Why isn't Apache affected? Why are only the browsers affected?

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  • Core Data combined Query

    - by Chris Summer
    Hey, i have question related to CoreData. My iphone project has 2 Entities, Organisation and Brand with a 1 to many "BrandsToOrg" relationship and inverse. So my project has a Mapview, where you can see all the Organisations and a little subview when you click on those Organisations.At the subview there is a "show Brands" Button, which should init a new TableView who only shows the brands belong to the seleceted organisation. Any ideas how i can code that? thx NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"(TitleMedium == %@)",@"Rock Antenne"];???? NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:self.entityName inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; // If a predicate was passed, pass it to the query if(predicate != nil) { [request setPredicate:predicate]; } // If a sort key was passed, use it for sorting. NSString *sortKey=@"TitleMedium"; BOOL sortAscending=YES; if(sortKey != nil) { NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:sortKey ascending:sortAscending]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; } NSError *error; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; [request release]; [self setEntityArray:mutableFetchResults];

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  • Unsure how to come up with a good design

    - by Mewzer
    Hello there, I am having trouble coming up with a good design for a group of classes and was hoping that someone could give me some guidance on best practices. I have kept the classes and member functions generic to make the problem simpler. Essentially, I have three classes (lets call them A, B, and C) as follows: class A { ... int GetX( void ) const { return x; }; int GetY( void ) const { return y; }; private: B b; // NOTE: A "has-a" B int x; int y; }; class B { ... void SetZ( int value ) { z = value }; private: int z; C c; // NOTE: B "has-a" C }; class C { private: ... void DoSomething(int x, int y){ ... }; void DoSomethingElse( int z ){ ... }; }; My problem is as follows: Class A uses its member variables "x" and "y" a lot internally. Class B uses its member variable "z" a lot internally. Class B needs to call C::DoSomething(), but C::DoSomething() needs the values of X and Y in class A passed in as arguments. C::DoSomethingElse() is called from say another class (e.g. D), but it needs to invoke SetZ() in class B!. As you can see, it is a bit of a mess as all the classes need information from one another!. Are there any design patterns I can use?. Any ideas would be much appreciated ....

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  • Create ImageButton programatically depending on local database records

    - by user2507920
    As i described in title, i have a local db in sqlite. I want to create ImageButton parametrically. How many times is local database loop executing? Please see code below : RelativeLayout outerRelativeLayout = (RelativeLayout)findViewById(R.id.relativeLayout2_making_dynamically); db.open(); Cursor c = db.getAllLocal_Job_Data(); if(c!=null){ if(c.moveToFirst()){ do { RelativeLayout innerRelativeLayout = new RelativeLayout(CalendarActivity.this); innerRelativeLayout.setGravity(Gravity.CENTER); ImageButton imgBtn = new ImageButton(CalendarActivity.this); imgBtn.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.color_001); RelativeLayout.LayoutParams imageViewParams = new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT); imgBtn.setLayoutParams(imageViewParams); // Adding the textView to the inner RelativeLayout as a child innerRelativeLayout.addView(imgBtn, new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams( ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); outerRelativeLayout.addView(innerRelativeLayout, new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); } while (c.moveToNext()); } } db.close(); But when i run the project, i can see only one button created there. I think there are many buttons but here image button is creating on last created image button. I think i should use android:layout_toRightOf with previous created button but i cant find how to place it here. I have tried some ideas but it did not change any thing. So please anybody has any idea to solve my problem then please share it with me.

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  • Mechanize form submit not going to the correct response page, no errors as to why. Something I'm doing?

    - by Zack Shapiro
    I threw this all in one controller for testing purposes. My code fills out the form correctly for adding a new address to your Amazon account. There are two buttons that submit this form, one takes you to add a new address which is what I don't want, and the other is just a Save & Continue input/image. When I submit the form via that button, as I do below, the form is still on the page, filled out as I have with my code. Inspecting the page titles, they're the same. There are no discernible errors that Mechanize or Amazon spit back. Any ideas? class AmazonCrawler def initialize @agent = Mechanize.new do |agent| agent.user_agent_alias = 'Mac Safari' agent.follow_meta_refresh = true agent.redirect_ok = true end end def login # login_url = "https://www.amazon.com/ap/signin?_encoding=UTF8&openid.assoc_handle=usflex&openid.claimed_id=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select&openid.identity=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select&openid.mode=checkid_setup&openid.ns=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0&openid.ns.pape=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fextensions%2Fpape%2F1.0&openid.pape.max_auth_age=0&openid.return_to=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.amazon.com%2Fgp%2Fcss%2Fhomepage.html%3Fie%3DUTF8%26ref_%3Dgno_yam_ya" login_url = "https://www.amazon.com/gp/css/account/address/view.html?ie=UTF8&ref_=ya_add_address&viewID=newAddress" @agent.get(login_url) form = @agent.page.forms.first form.email = "[email protected]" form.radiobuttons.first.value = "0" form.radiobuttons.last.check form.password = "my_password" dashboard = @agent.submit(form) end end class UsersController < ApplicationController def index response = AmazonCrawler.new.login form = response.forms[1] # fill out form form.enterAddressFullName == "Your Name" form.enterAddressAddressLine1 = "123 Main Street" form.enterAddressAddressLine2 = "Apartment 34" form.enterAddressCity = "San Francisco" form.enterAddressStateOrRegion = "CA" form.enterAddressPostalCode = "94101" form.enterAddressPhoneNumber = "415-555-1212" form.AddressType = "RES" new_response = form.submit( form.button_with(value: /Save.*Continue/) ) end end

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  • Rails - Create if record doesn't exist or else update.....Whats Best way to do this?

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    Hi, I have a create statement for some models but its creating a record within a join table regardless if the record exist. Here is what my code looks like. @user = User.find(current_user) @event = Event.find(params[:id]) for interest in @event.interests @user.choices.create(:interest => interest, :score => 4) end The problem is it creates records no matter what. I would like it to create a record if it doesnt exist, if a record does exist I would just to it to take the attribute of the found record and add or subtract 1. So, I've been looking around and I see something called find_or_create_by. My question is what happens if it finds? Preferably if it finds,I would like to take the current :score attribute and +1. SO is it possible to find or create by id? I'm not sure what attribute I would find by since the model I'm looking at is a join model which only had id foreign keys and the score attribute. I tried @user.choices.find_or_create_by_user(:user => @user.id, :interest => interest, :score => 4) but got "undefined method `find_by_user'".....ANy ideas or help?

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