Search Results

Search found 18900 results on 756 pages for 'custom controls'.

Page 672/756 | < Previous Page | 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679  | Next Page >

• Approaches to replace cursor in pure AS3 / Flare project?

  - by peteorpeter

  Hi there good lookin, I've got a pure AS3 (no Flex) project that uses Flare to display and interact with a data visualization. I just implemented some panning behavior, so you can click and drag the visualization around, and now I'd like to give the user a visual indicator that this is possible, by switching the arrow cursor with a nice grabby-looking hand icon. The user can click and drag at any time except when the mouse is over a clickable node (at which time the cursor swaps to a pointer - this behavior is already in place). So... 1) Do I need to create my own custom bitmap/sprite or is there a palette of built-in cursors I can use? (I'm not using Flex.) 2) Is there a way to simply replace the default arrow with the pan cursor project-wide, or do I need to attach the swapping to mouse events on display objects? Can I use the stage object to make this behavior apply everywhere? 3) How do I perform the swap? Do I use the Cursor object directly or do I need to get involved with the CursorManager? Any guidance, pseudo-code, or words of wisdom is greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Drawing graphics on top of a JButton

  - by trinth

  I have a situation wherein I have a bunch of JButtons on a GridLayout. I need each of the JButtons to have: a background image (but retain the ability to keep the default button look if needed) custom graphics drawn on top by other classes I have no trouble with the background image, since I am using setIcon() but I am having problems drawing things on top of the background. At one point I was able to draw on top of the button, but after the button was clicked, the drawings disappeared. How can make the button keep this drawing state? Basically, I need a way for my JButtons to have public methods that would allow another class to draw anything on it such as: public void drawSomething() { Graphics g = this.getGraphics(); g.drawOval(3,2,2,2); repaint(); } or public Graphics getGraphics() { return this.getGraphics(); } then another class could do this: button.getGraphics().drawSomething(); The latter is more what I am looking for but the first is equally useful. Is there any way to go about this? Also, overriding the parent class method paintComponent() doesn't help since I need each button to have different graphics.

  Read the article

• Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

  - by Jordan Reiter

  I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

  Read the article

• Shuffling words in a sentence in javascript (coding horror - How to improve?)

  - by Bill Zimmerman

  Hi, I'm trying to do something that is fairly simple, but my code looks terrible and I am certain there is a better way to do things in javascript. I am new to javascript, and am trying to improve my coding. This just feels very messy. All I want to do is to randomly change the order some words on a web page. In python, the code would look something like this: s = 'THis is a sentence' shuffledSentence = random.shuffle(s.split(' ')).join(' ') However, this is the monstrosity I've managed to produce in javascript //need custom sorting function because javascript doesn't have shuffle? function mySort(a,b) { return a.sortValue - b.sortValue; } function scrambleWords() { var content = $.trim($(this).contents().text()); splitContent = content.split(' '); //need to create a temporary array of objects to make sorting easier var tempArray = new Array(splitContent.length); for (var i = 0; i < splitContent.length; i++) { //create an object that can be assigned a random number for sorting var tmpObj = new Object(); tmpObj.sortValue = Math.random(); tmpObj.string = splitContent[i]; tempArray[i] = tmpObj; } tempArray.sort(mySort); //copy the strings back to the original array for (i = 0; i < splitContent.length; i++) { splitContent[i] = tempArray[i].string; } content = splitContent.join(' '); //the result $(this).text(content); } Can you help me to simplify things?

  Read the article

• Binding not working correctly in silverlight

  - by Harsh Maurya

  I am using a DataGrid in my silverlight project which contains a custom checkbox column. I have binded its command property with a property of my ViewModel class. Now, the problem is that I want to send the "selected item" of DataGrid through the command paramter for which I have written the following code : <sdk:DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Margin="10,0,10,0" Name="dataGridOrders" ItemsSource="{Binding OrderList}" Height="190"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Select"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CheckBox> <is:Interaction.Triggers> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Checked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Unchecked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> </is:Interaction.Triggers> </CheckBox> But I am always getting null in the parameter of my command's execute method. I have tried with other properties of DataGrid such as Width, ActualHeight e.t.c. but of no use. What am I missing here ?

  Read the article

• SqlCE DB occasionally freezes on one handheld, not another

  - by Michael

  I have two types of custom handhelds which are similar, but slightly different, each running the same WinForm application and a WinCE database: Type 1: WinCE 4.2, 400 mhz, 93244 kb Type 2: WinCE 5.0, 520 mhz, 84208 kb Type 1 will happily proceed through a large batch db operation (initiated) by the app, by Type 2 will consistently begin c-r-a-w-l-i-n-g (for several to many cycles) at around the 200 cycle mark. As several points it will begin running normally and then crawl again. The app does several db op's (inserts, updates and selects, no deletes). To simplify my situation, I've built a small test app which essentially does this: command_s.CommandText = "select dvr from vr where vid = 2211250"; command_u.CommandText = "update pvr set LocationID=81 where Status='OK' and vri = 27861"; while(going) { command_s.ExecuteScalar(); command_u.ExecuteNonQuery(); } and set it off running on the two units side by side. Sure enough, the slower (400 mhz) unit is outpacing the faster (520 mhz) unit (it's about 5000 cycles ahead right now) and I can see noticable pauses on the 520 mhz unit. What is causing this?

  Read the article

• sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

  - by Lazy Bob

  Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

  Read the article

• UITableViewCell Problem....

  - by balu

  Hi friends... i am creating a Custom reusable UITableViewCell with Three labels and one imageView,and i am removing them in cell's dealloc method... all is working fine but the problem is the text in cell getting Dark while selected... it and it is kind of overlapping on each other help me to avoid that problem... - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyle)style reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)reuseIdentifier { if (self = [super initWithStyle:style reuseIdentifier:reuseIdentifier]) { NSLog(@"Address for cel called"); NameLbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5,5,140,20)]; [self.contentView addSubview:NameLbl]; NameLbl.font =[UIFont fontWithName:@"Times New Roman" size:15]; NameLbl.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:15]; NameLbl.opaque=YES; NameLbl.tag = 1001; AddressLbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5,25,140,20)]; [self.contentView addSubview:AddressLbl]; AddressLbl.font =[UIFont fontWithName:@"Times New Roman" size:15]; AddressLbl.opaque=YES; AddressLbl.tag = 1002; CityStateZipLbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5,50,150,20)]; [self.contentView addSubview:CityStateZipLbl]; CityStateZipLbl.opaque=YES; CityStateZipLbl.tag = 1003; CityStateZipLbl.font =[UIFont fontWithName:@"Times New Roman" size:15]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [CityStateZipLbl release]; [NameLbl release]; [AddressLbl release]; [super dealloc]; }

  Read the article

• SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

  Read the article

• Schema for element with Attributes and Child nodes

  - by Matthew

  I am trying to write xsd type schema for an element that has a custom type to include addition attributes to extend a base type. I am running into trouble getting the syntax right. <xs:element name="graphs"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="graph" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="graphType"> <!-- child elements --> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:complexType name="graphType"> <xs:simpleContent> <xs:extension base="xs:string"> <xs:attribute name="title" type="xs:string"/> <xs:attribute name="type" type="xs:string"/> </xs:extension> </xs:simpleContent> </xs:complexType> I thought this would be something very common, but having read many tuts and forums, I cant seem to find an answer that works for me.

  Read the article

• Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

  - by bguiz

  This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

  Read the article

• iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

  - by arielcamus

  Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

  Read the article

• How to use the `itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int)` signal in qtHaskell

  - by nano

  I want to use the itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int) signal in a Haskell program I'm writing where I am using qtHaskell for the GUI. To connect a function I have at other places done the following: dummyWidget <- myQWidget connectSlot object signal dummyWidget "customSlot()" $ f Where object is some QWidget and signal is a string giving the signal, e.g. "triggered()", and f is the function I want to be called when the signaled is send. The definition of connectSlot in the API is: class Qcs x where connectSlot :: QObject a -> String -> QObject b -> String -> x -> IO () where the instances ofQcs are: Qcs () Qcs (QObject c -> String -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Object d -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Bool -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Int -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> OpenGLVersionFlag -> IO ()) The first Arguments passed is supposed to be the QObject of which I'm using a signal. As you can see, there is no instance where f, the function to connect to the signal, can have two further arguments to recieve the QWidget and the integer send by the signal. Is there a way to nevertheless connect that signal to a custom function?

  Read the article

• Creating a Linq->HQL provider

  - by Mike Q

  Hi all, I have a client application that connects to a server. The server uses hibernate for persistence and querying so it has a set of annotated hibernate objects for persistence. The client sends HQL queries to the server and gets responses back. The client has an auto-generated set of objects that match the server hibernate objects for query results and basic persistence. I would like to support using Linq to query as well as Hql as it makes the queries typesafe and quicker to build (no more typos in HQL string queries). I've looked around at the following but I can't see how to get them to fit with what I have. NHibernate's Linq provider - requires using NHibernate ISession and ISessionFactory, which I don't have LinqExtender - requires a lot of annotations on the objects and extending a base type, too invasive What I really want is something that will generate give me a nice easy to process structure to build the HQL queries from. I've read most of a 15 page article written by one of the C# developers on how to create custom providers and it's pretty fraught, mainly because of the complexity of the expression tree. Can anyone suggest an approach for implementing Linq - HQL translation? Perhaps a library that will the cleanup of the expression tree into something more SQL/HQLish. I would like to support select/from/where/group by/order by/joins. Not too worried about subqueries.

  Read the article

• How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

  - by Jon Cram

  Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

  Read the article

• question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

  - by FALCONSEYE

  I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

  Read the article

• Is it possible to send OSC commands to an iPad via the Camera Connection Kit?

  - by HELVETICADE

  I'm building a small controller device that I'd like to partner with a computer. I've settled on using OSC out from my custom built hardware and am pretty satisfied with what I can get from WOscLib. Two goals I'd like to achieve are portability and a very nice ratio between battery:computing power, and this has lured me towards using iPhoneOS to accomplish my goals. I think the iPad would suit my needs perfectly, except that using wifi to broadcast OSC out from my device requires that device to be connected to a third device with a wifi chip, and this would destroy the goal of portability, whilst also introducing potential latency and stability headaches. My question is pretty simple: Can I push OSC commands FROM my controller TO an iPad via USB and the Camera Connection Kit? If I could accomplish this, the two major goals of my project would be fulfilled very nicely. This seems like it should be a simple little question, but researching this obsessively over the past few weeks has left me more almost more uncertain than if I had done no research at all. I'd really like some more confidence before I go down this route, and it seems like it should be possible. Any insight would be very, very appreciated.

  Read the article

• Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

  - by Ramesh

  Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

  Read the article

• Project management and bundling dependencies

  - by Joshua

  I've been looking for ways to learn about the right way to manage a software project, and I've stumbled upon the following blog post. I've learned some of the things mentioned the hard way, others make sense, and yet others are still unclear to me. To sum up, the author lists a bunch of features of a project and how much those features contribute to a project's 'suckiness' for a lack of a better term. You can find the full article here: http://spot.livejournal.com/308370.html In particular, I don't understand the author's stance on bundling dependencies with your project. These are: == Bundling == Your source only comes with other code projects that it depends on [ +20 points of FAIL ] Why is this a problem, (especially given the last point)? If your source code cannot be built without first building the bundled code bits [ +10 points of FAIL ] Doesn't this necessarily have to be the case for software built against 3rd party libs? Your code needs that other code to be compiled into its library before the linker can work? If you have modified those other bundled code bits [ +40 points of FAIL ] If this is necessary for your project, then it naturally follows that you've bundled said code with yours. If you want to customize a build of some lib,say WxWidgets, you'll have to edit that projects build scripts to bulid the library that you want. Subsequently, you'll have to publish those changes to people who wish to build your code, so why not use a high level make script with the params already written in, and distribute that? Furthermore, (especially in a windows env) if your code base is dependent on a particular version of a lib (that you also need to custom compile for your project) wouldn't it be easier to give the user the code yourself (because in this case, it is unlikely that the user will already have the correct version installed)? So how would you respond to these comments, and what points may I be failing to take into consideration? Would you agree or disagree with the author's take (or mine), and why?

  Read the article

• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

  Read the article

• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

  Read the article

• SqlCeResultSet Problem

  - by Vlad

  Hello, I have a SmartDevice project (.NetCF 2.0) configured to be tested on the USA Windows Mobile 5.0 Pocket PC R2 Emulator. My project uses SqlCe 3.0. Understanding that a SmartDevice project is "more carefull" with the device's memory I am using SqlCeResultSets. The result sets are strongly typed, autogenerated by Visual Studio 2008 using the custom tool MSResultSetGenerator. The problem I am facing is that the result set does not recognize any column names. The autogenerated code for the fields does not work. In the client code I am using InfoResultSet rs = new InfoResultSet(); rs.Open(); rs.ReadFirst(); string myFormattedDate = rs.MyDateColumn.ToString("dd/MM/yyyy"); When the execution on the emulator reaches the rs.MyDateColumn the application throws an System.IndexOutOfRangeException. Investigating the stack trace at System.Data.SqlServerCe.FieldNameLookup.GetOrdinal() at System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeDataReader.GetOrdinal() I've tested the GetOrdinal method (in my autogenerated class that inherits SqlCeResultSet): this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"); // throws an exception this.GetName(1); // returns "MyDateColumn" this.GetOrdinal(this.GetName(1)); //throws an exception :) [edit added] The table exists and it's filled with data. Using typed DataSets works like a charm. Regenerating the SqlCeResultSet does not solve the issue, the problem remains. The problem basically is that I am not able to access a column by it's name. The data can be accessed trough this.GetDateTime(1)using the column ordinal. The application fails executing this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"). Also I have updated Visual Studio 2008 to Service Pack 1. Additionaly I am developing the project on a virtual machine with Windows XP SP 2, but in my opinion if the medium is virtual or not should have no effect on the developing. Am I doing something wrong or am I missing something? Thank you.

  Read the article

• How to force a WebPart appears in all pages of a portal in asp.net?

  - by Mehdi

  Hi, I'm working on a portal/CMS project and (unfortunately) build the foundation on WebParts platform. However I need to provide an option for admin to choose whether a webpart should be display in all pages or not. Finally I've found a nice article from Damon Armstrong that describes a way to store all personalization data of a group of pages into one record. Thus every changes the admin made for a webpart, affect whole pages. But it doesn't seems to be a solution for me because of these reasons: 1- The above solution works for a group of pages; in fact we can select which pages to display all webparts, but we expect reverse: select which webpart to display in all pages. 2- After some data entry and adding webparts on pages, we'll face an issue about massive data size of personalization record that should be serialize and deserialize to display contents of each page. May be it would be solved by writing another custom personalization provider or some hacking on webparts system, but I don't now how. Any Ideas about the problem? Thanks

  Read the article

• Setting left/top position not working in IE

  - by Brian

  Hello, In a custom ASP.NET AJAX control, i have this to do some repositioning. var dims = Sys.UI.DomElement.getBounds(control); this.get_element().style.position = "absolute"; //Sys.UI.DomElement.setLocation(this.get_element(), dims.x, (dims.y + dims.height)); this.get_element().style.left = dims.x; this.get_element().style.top = (dims.y + dims.height); getBounds simply returns the x/y and width/height. I use this to set the left/top, but in IE, it's doubling; say the coordinates are 500, 20; when it sets this on the element, its actually setting to 1000, 40. Any ideas why? In firefox, this works correctly. this.get_element() returns the correct element and all, but it's not setting correctly, even though event logging says it's the correct coordinates. When using setLocation too, it doesn't work in either... What else in my code may be affecting it? JQuery isn't an option here too. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679  | Next Page >