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  • What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

    - by Soul_Master
    I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

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  • Jqyery Bugs?? Long decimal number after two numbers multiply...

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I am working on a shopping site and I am trying to calculate the subtotal of products. I got my price from a array and quantity from getJSON response array. Two of them multiply comes to my subtotal. I can change the quantity and it will comes out different subtotal. However,when I change the quantity to certain number, the final subtotal is like 259.99999999994 or some long decimal number. I use console.log to check the $price and $qty. Both of them are in the correct format ex..299.99 and 6 quantity.I have no idea what happen. I would appreciate it if someone can help me about it. Here is my Jquery code. $(".price").each(function(index, price){ $price=$(this); //get the product id and the price shown on the page var id=$price.closest('tr').attr('id'); var indiPrice=$($price).html(); //take off $ indiPrice=indiPrice.substring(1) //make sure it is number format var aindiPrice=Number(indiPrice); //push into the array productIdPrice[id]=(aindiPrice); var url=update.php $.getJSON( url, {productId:tableId, //tableId is from the other jquery code which refers to qty:qty}, productId function(responseProduct){ $.each(responseProduct, function(productIndex, Qty){ //loop the return data if(productIdPrice[productIndex]){ //get the price from the previous array we create X Qty newSub=productIdPrice[productIndex]*Number(Qty); //productIdPrice[productIndex] are the price like 199.99 or 99.99 // Qty are Quantity like 9 or 10 or 3 sum+=newSub; newSub.toFixed(2); //try to solve the problem with toFixed but didn't work console.log("id: "+productIdPrice[productIndex]) console.log("Qty: "+Qty); console.log(newSub); **//newSub sometime become XXXX.96999999994** }; Thanks again!

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  • How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

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  • AI navigation around a 2d map - Avoiding obstacles.

    - by Curt Walker
    Hey there, I know my question seems pretty vague but I can't think of a better way to put it so I'll start off by explaining what I'm trying to do. I'm currently working on a project whereby I've been given a map and I'm coding a 'Critter' that should be able to navigate it's way around the map, the critter has various other functions but are not relevant to the current question. The whole program and solution is being written in C#. I can control the speed of the critter, and retrieve it's current location on the map by returning it's current X and Y position, I can also set it's direction when it collides with the terrain that blocks it. The only problem I have is that I can't think of a way to intelligently navigate my way around the map, so far I've been basing it around what direction the critter is facing when it collides with the terrain, and this is in no way a good way of moving around the map! I'm not a games programmer, and this is for a software assignment, so I have no clue on AI techniques. All I am after is a push in the right direction on how I could go about getting this critter to find it's way around any map given to me. Here's an image of the map and critters to give you an idea of what i'm talking about. Here's a link to an image of what the maps and critters look like. Map and Critter image I'm in no way looking for anyone to give me a full solution, just a push in the general direction on map navigation. Thanks in advance!

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  • Adding web reference on client when using Net.TCP

    - by Marko
    Hi everyone... I am trying to using Net.TCP in my WCF Service, which is self hosted, when i try to add this service reference through web reference to my client, i am not able access the classes and methods of that service, can any have any idea to achieve this... How I can add web references in this case. My Service has one method (GetNumber) that returns int. WebService: public class WebService : IWebService { public int GetNumber(int num) { return num + 1; } } Service Contract code: [ServiceContract] public interface IWebService { [OperationContract] int GetNumber(int num); } WCF Service code: ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(WebService)); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IWebService), new NetTcpBinding(), new Uri("net.tcp://" + Dns.GetHostName() + ":1255/WebService")); NetTcpBinding binding = new NetTcpBinding(); binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Streamed; binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.MaxValue; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = long.MaxValue; Console.WriteLine("{0}", Dns.GetHostName().ToString()); Console.WriteLine("Opening Web Service..."); host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Web Service is running on port {0}",1255); Console.WriteLine("Press <ENTER> to EXIT"); Console.ReadLine(); This works fine. Only problem is how to add references of this service in my client application. I just want to send number and to receive an answer. Can anyone help me?

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  • Select part of text in a tag

    - by atlantis
    The DOM structure looks like this (existing website ... cant modify it): <table> <tr><td> <br><hr size="1"><strong>some heading 1</strong><br> <br>some text 1<br> <br><hr size="1"><strong>some heading 2</strong><br> <br>some text 2<br> </td></tr> </table> I want to manipulate it so that it looks like this <table> <tr><td> <br><hr size="1"><strong>some heading 1</strong><br> <br>some text 1<br> </td></tr> <tr><td> <br><hr size="1"><strong>some heading 2</strong><br> <br>some text 2<br> </td></tr> </table> Using the solution posted here, I am able to get hold of the hr, strong, br tags and move them into new td elements. However, I am not able to get hold of "some text 1" since it is directly contained within the td and using .text() on td will give me both "some text 1" as well as "some text 2". Any idea?

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  • writing CMS in ZEND

    - by Neoman
    Hello guys, I'm trying to write my own CMS using Zend framework and I created modular structure. I have modules like 'news', 'blog' and etc. Also I have "admin" module which has different layout and this is like the administrator panel where admin can edit all the content and etc. But the problem is that I'm looking for the best practice and solution to solve the problem. I don't like the idea that my admin module will have a lot of controllers which will be for administer all the other modules. So I want to ask you all, maybe you have some tuts or just have an advice how to implement admin module separated from other modules as much as it can be done. Because I just want to copy one module for example from one project to another and I want it will work same. I don't want to search the right admin controller, view or something like this in admin module and copy this part seperatelly into new admin module. Hope the question and situation is clear enough and I will be happy to hear any advice or see any tutorials how to do it. Thanks guys!

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  • Background problem on UITableView

    - by f0rz
    Hi ! I have come to a problem, wich I have no idea how to solve. Can anyone think outside the box and point me to right directions? I would be very thankfull ! The problem. I have a UITableView containing a first row wich is always the same (a empty row with repeating background) Next rows are bounch of dynamic data rows. I have set the yellow background on my UITableView in IBuilder, My cells (except first row) have white background with code: UIView* backgroundView = [ [ [ UIView alloc ] initWithFrame:CGRectZero ] autorelease ]; backgroundView.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed: 0.96078431372549 green: 0.96078431372549 blue: 0.96078431372549 alpha: 1.0]; cell.backgroundView = backgroundView; for ( UIView* view in cell.contentView.subviews ) { view.backgroundColor = [ UIColor clearColor ]; } The example yellow background, I only want to be showed at the top. As u see img example below. The thing is I dont want to have yellow background under the last datarow, I want to contain same white color I have on the cells. This should be white as the cells. Not yellow. Thank u for your time. Regards

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  • How to access elements in a complex list?

    - by Martin
    Hi, it's me and the lists again. I have a nice list, which looks like this: tmp = NULL t = NULL tmp$resultitem$count = "1057230" tmp$resultitem$status = "Ok" tmp$resultitem$menu = "PubMed" tmp$resultitem$dbname = "pubmed" t$resultitem$count = "305215" t$resultitem$status = "Ok" t$resultitem$menu = "PMC" t$resultitem$dbname = "pmc" tmp = c(tmp, t) t = NULL t$resultitem$count = "1" t$resultitem$status = "Ok" t$resultitem$menu = "Journals" t$resultitem$dbname = "journals" tmp = c(tmp, t) Which produces: str(tmp) List of 3 $ resultitem:List of 4 ..$ count : chr "1057230" ..$ status: chr "Ok" ..$ menu : chr "PubMed" ..$ dbname: chr "pubmed" $ resultitem:List of 4 ..$ count : chr "305215" ..$ status: chr "Ok" ..$ menu : chr "PMC" ..$ dbname: chr "pmc" $ resultitem:List of 4 ..$ count : chr "1" ..$ status: chr "Ok" ..$ menu : chr "Journals" ..$ dbname: chr "journals" Now I want to search through the elements of each "resultitem". I want to know the "dbname" for every database, that has less then 10 "count" (example). In this case it is very easy, as this list only has 3 elements, but the real list is a little bit longer. This could be simply done with a for loop. But is there a way to do this with some other function of R (like rapply)? My problem with those apply functions is, that they only look at one element. If I do a grep to get all "dbname" elements, I can not get the count of each element. rapply(tmp, function(x) paste("Content: ", x))[grep("dbname", names(rapply(tmp, c)))] Does someone has a better idea than a for loop? Thanx, Martin

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  • Increment part of a string in Ruby

    - by Rik
    I have a method in a Ruby script that is attempting to rename files before they are saved. It looks like this: def increment (path) if path[-3,2] == "_#" print " Incremented file with that name already exists, renaming\n" count = path[-1].chr.to_i + 1 return path.chop! << count.to_s else print " A file with that name already exists, renaming\n" return path << "_#1" end end Say you have 3 files with the same name being saved to a directory, we'll say the file is called example.mp3. The idea is that the first will be saved as example.mp3 (since it won't be caught by if File.exists?("#{file_path}.mp3") elsewhere in the script), the second will be saved as example_#1.mp3 (since it is caught by the else part of the above method) and the third as example_#2.mp3 (since it is caught by the if part of the above method). The problem I have is twofold. 1) if path[-3,2] == "_#" won't work for files with an integer of more than one digit (example_#11.mp3 for example) since the character placement will be wrong (you'd need it to be path[-4,2] but then that doesn't cope with 3 digit numbers etc). 2) I'm never reaching problem 1) since the method doesn't reliably catch file names. At the moment it will rename the first to example_#1.mp3 but the second gets renamed to the same thing (causing it to overwrite the previously saved file). This is possibly too vague for Stack Overflow but I can't find anything that addresses the issue of incrementing a certain part of a string. Thanks in advance!

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  • Git: Create a branch from unstagged/uncommited changes on master

    - by knoopx
    Context: I'm working on master adding a simple feature. After a few minutes I realize it was not so simple and it should have been better to work into a new branch. This always happens to me and I have no idea how to switch to another branch and take all these uncommited changes with me leaving the master branch clean. I supposed git stash && git stash branch new_branch would simply accomplish that but this is what I get: ~/test $ git status # On branch master nothing to commit (working directory clean) ~/test $ echo "hello!" > testing ~/test $ git status # On branch master # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") ~/test $ git stash Saved working directory and index state WIP on master: 4402b8c testing HEAD is now at 4402b8c testing ~/test $ git status # On branch master nothing to commit (working directory clean) ~/test $ git stash branch new_branch Switched to a new branch 'new_branch' # On branch new_branch # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") Dropped refs/stash@{0} (db1b9a3391a82d86c9fdd26dab095ba9b820e35b) ~/test $ git s # On branch new_branch # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") ~/test $ git checkout master M testing Switched to branch 'master' ~/test $ git status # On branch master # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") Do you know if there is any way of accomplishing this?

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  • Reading server error messages for a URLLoader

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an URL loader with the following code: public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); var url:String = getPath(); // Adds time to prevent caching url += "&time=" + new Date().getTime(); request.url = url; request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, onGetUploadURLError); _loader.addEventListener(HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, getHttpStatus); _loader.load(request); } My problem is that this request might be wrong, and so the server will give me a back a 400 Bad Request, with a message to explain the error. If the Event.COMPLETE, I can see some message (a response) back from the server in the "data" field of the Event, but if onGetUploadURLError or getHttpStatus is called, it just says that the error code is 400 but does not show me the message associated with it. The "data" field is undefined in getHttpStatus and it is "" in onGetUploadURLError. On the contrary, in getBaseURL, I get: {"ResponseMetadata":{...}} I checked and I do get a similar response in my browser for a wrong request, but I cannot see it. Any idea how I can please get the message? Thank you very much, Rudy

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  • Use LINQ to group a sequence by date with no gaps

    - by Codesleuth
    I'm trying to select a subgroup of a list where items have contiguous dates, e.g. ID StaffID Type Title ActivityDate -- ------- ---- ----------------- ------------ 1 41 1 Doctors 07/06/2010 2 41 0 Meeting with John 08/06/2010 3 41 0 Meeting Continues 09/06/2010 4 41 0 Meeting Continues 10/06/2010 5 41 3 Annual Leave 11/06/2010 6 41 0 Meeting Continues 14/06/2010 I'm using a pivot point each time, so take the example pivot item as 3, I'd like to get the following resulting contiguous events around the pivot: ID StaffID Type Title ActivityDate -- ------- ---- ----------------- ------------ 2 41 0 Meeting with John 08/06/2010 3 41 0 Meeting Continues 09/06/2010 4 41 0 Meeting Continues 10/06/2010 My current implementation is a laborious "walk" into the past, then into the future, to build the list: var orderedEvents = activities.OrderBy(a => a.ActivityDate).ToArray(); // Walk into the past until a gap is found var preceedingEvents = orderedEvents.TakeWhile(a => a.ID != activity.ID); DateTime dayBefore; var previousEvent = activity; while (previousEvent != null) { dayBefore = previousEvent.ActivityDate.AddDays(-1).Date; previousEvent = preceedingEvents.TakeWhile(a => a.ID != previousEvent.ID).LastOrDefault(); if (previousEvent != null) { if (previousEvent.ActivityDate.Date == dayBefore) relatedActivities.Insert(0, previousEvent); else previousEvent = null; } } // Walk into the future until a gap is found var followingEvents = orderedEvents.SkipWhile(a => a.ID != activity.ID); DateTime dayAfter; var nextEvent = activity; while (nextEvent != null) { dayAfter = nextEvent.ActivityDate.AddDays(1).Date; nextEvent = followingEvents.SkipWhile(a => a.ID != nextEvent.ID).Skip(1).FirstOrDefault(); if (nextEvent != null) { if (nextEvent.ActivityDate.Date == dayAfter) relatedActivities.Add(nextEvent); else nextEvent = null; } } The list relatedActivities should then contain the contiguous events, in order. Is there a better way (maybe using LINQ) for this? I had an idea of using .Aggregate() but couldn't think how to get the aggregate to break out when it finds a gap in the sequence.

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  • XSLT - How to select top a to top b

    - by user812241
    how can I extract the first 2 C-Values ('Baby' and 'Cola') where B is 'RED'. Input instance is: <Root> <A> <B>BLACK</B> <C>Apple</C> </A> <A> <B>RED</B> <C>Baby</C> </A> <A> <B>GREEN</B> <C>Sun</C> </A> <A> <B>RED</B> <C>Cola</C> </A> <A> <B>RED</B> <C>Mobile</C> </A> </Root> Output instance must be: <Root> <D>Baby</D> <D>Cola</D> </Root> I thought about the combination of for-each and global variables. But in XSLT it is not possible to change the value for a global variable to break the for-each. I have no idea anymore.

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  • ASP.NET CacheDependency out of ThreadPool

    - by Stephen
    In an async http handler, we add items to the ASP.NET cache, with dependencies on some files. If the async method executes on a thread from the ThreadPool, all is fine: AsyncResult result = new AsyncResult(context, cb, extraData); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallBack(DoProcessRequest), result); But as soon as we try to execute on a thread out of the ThreadPool: AsyncResult result = new AsyncResult(context, cb, extraData); Runner runner = new Runner(result); Thread thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(runner.Run()); ... where Runner.Run just invokes DoProcessRequest, The dependencies do trigger right after the thread exits. I.e. the items are immediately removed from the cache, the reason being the dependencies. We want to use an out-of-pool thread because the processing might take a long time. So obviously something's missing when we create the thread. We might need to propagate the call context, the http context... Has anybody already encountered that issue? Note: off-the-shelf custom threadpools probably solve this. Writing our own threadpool is probably a bad idea (think NIH syndrom). Yet I'd like to understand this in details, though.

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  • In Java it seems Public constructors are always a bad coding practice

    - by Adam Gent
    This maybe a controversial question and may not be suited for this forum (so I will not be insulted if you choose to close this question). It seems given the current capabilities of Java there is no reason to make constructors public ... ever. Friendly, private, protected are OK but public no. It seems that its almost always a better idea to provide a public static method for creating objects. Every Java Bean serialization technology (JAXB, Jackson, Spring etc...) can call a protected or private no-arg constructor. My questions are: I have never seen this practice decreed or written down anywhere? Maybe Bloch mentions it but I don't own is book. Is there a use case other than perhaps not being super DRY that I missed? EDIT: I explain why static methods are better. .1. For one you get better type inference. For example See Guava's http://code.google.com/p/guava-libraries/wiki/CollectionUtilitiesExplained .2. As a designer of the class you can later change what is returned with a static method. .3. Dealing with constructor inheritance is painful especially if you have to pre-calculate something.

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  • HTML Form HIdden Fields added with Javascript not POSTing

    - by dscher
    I have a form where the user can enter a link, click the "add link" button, and that link is then(via jQuery) added to the form as a hidden field. The problem is it's not POSTing when I submit the form. It's really starting to confound me. The thing is that if I hardcode a hidden field into the form, it is posted, but my function isn't working for some reason. The hidden field DOES get added to my form as I can see with Firebug but it's just not being sent with the POST data. Just to note, I'm using an array in Javascript to hold the elements until the form is submitted which also posts them visibly for the user to see what they've added. I'm using [] notation on the "name" field of the element because I want the links to feed into an array in PHP. Here is the link creation which is being appended to my form: function make_hidden_element_tag(item_type, item_content, item_id) { return '<input type="hidden" name="' + item_type + '[]" id="hidden_link_' + item_id + '" value="' + item_content + '"/>'; Does anyone have an idea why this might not be posting. As stated above, any hard-coded tags that are nearly identical to the above works fine, it's just that this tag isn't working. Here is how I'm adding the tag to the form with jQUery: $('#link_td').append( make_hidden_element_tag('links', link, link_array.length - 1)); I'm using the Kohana 3 framework, although I'm not sure that has any bearing on this because it's not really doing anything from the time the HTML is added to the page and the submit button is pressed.

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  • Prototypal inheritance should save memory, right?

    - by Techpriester
    Hi Folks, I've been wondering: Using prototypes in JavaScript should be more memory efficient than attaching every member of an object directly to it for the following reasons: The prototype is just one single object. The instances hold only references to their prototype. Versus: Every instance holds a copy of all the members and methods that are defined by the constructor. I started a little experiment with this: var TestObjectFat = function() { this.number = 42; this.text = randomString(1000); } var TestObjectThin = function() { this.number = 42; } TestObjectThin.prototype.text = randomString(1000); randomString(x) just produces a, well, random String of length x. I then instantiated the objects in large quantities like this: var arr = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { arr.push(new TestObjectFat()); // or new TestObjectThin() } ... and checked the memory usage of the browser process (Google Chrome). I know, that's not very exact... However, in both cases the memory usage went up significantly as expected (about 30MB for TestObjectFat), but the prototype variant used not much less memory (about 26MB for TestObjectThin). I also checked: The TestObjectThin instances contain the same string in their "text" property, so they are really using the property of the prototype. Now, I'm not so sure what to think about this. The prototyping doesn't seem to be the big memory saver at all. I know that prototyping is a great idea for many other reasons, but I'm specifically concerned with memory usage here. Any explanations why the prototype variant uses almost the same amount of memory? Am I missing something?

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  • How can you make the copyright text in a Google Map wrap when the map is small?

    - by Paul D. Waite
    When you embed a Google Map on a web page, copyright text is included on the map. This is the HTML: <div style="border-top: 10px solid rgb(204, 0, 0); -moz-user-select: none; z-index: 0; position: absolute; right: 3px; bottom: 2px; color: black; font-family: Arial,sans-serif; font-size: 11px; white-space: normal; text-align: right; margin-left: 70px; width: 210px;" dir="ltr"> <span></span> <span>Map data &copy;2010 LeadDog Consulting, Europa Technologies - </span> <a href="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/help/terms_maps.html" target="_blank" class="gmnoprint terms-of-use-link" style="color: rgb(119, 119, 204);">Terms of Use</a> <span></span> </div> If you embed a map with a small width, the copyright text extends outside of the <div>, instead of wrapping within it. I’ve tried using jQuery to select this HTML based on its contents (using :contains()), but it doesn’t seem to work in IE 8 (which is odd, as it works fine in IE 7). Any idea what’s up with IE 8? Any other methods to achieve the same result?

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  • a question related to URL

    - by Robert
    Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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  • c# delegate and abstract class

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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  • Disable control in .aspx from Masterpage conditionally

    - by miccet
    Ok, this might be a bit weird, so I'll start with explaining what I'm trying to do. I have several masterpages for my site, and in they inherit each other. In the second of them (4 in total) I have a background image. Here comes the trick, I'd like to override this image from the final aspx page. I can't change the position of this image, it has to be in masterpage 2, since some pages uses that very page as masterpage. One idea I had was to create a ContentPlaceHolder next to the image and if there are any images in that (check in Page_Load) then the main image would be hidden. I did this with a recursive function, that finds the image by looping through the ContentPlaceHolder's controls. When I set the visibility property to false though, nothing happens. Any other ideas to how this could be done, or why the above doesn't work? Edit: It's not about changing items in the master pages, rather the other way around, that from the Masterpages codebehind dig down into the page that is displayed currently and see if it has controls in a specific ContentPlaceHolder.

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  • WordPress: Prevent Showing of Sub Category Posts

    - by Carlos Pattrezzi
    Hi, I'd like to know how to prevent showing of sub-category posts. My home page lists all posts from three "main categories" (parent category), but unfortunately it's also listing some posts from the sub-categories. Here's the code that I'm using to get the posts from specific category: <h2>Category Name</h2> <ul> <?php $category_query = new WP_Query(array('category_name' => 'category1', 'showposts' => 5)); ?> <?php while ($profissionais_query->have_posts()) : $profissionais_query->the_post(); ?> <li> <a class="title" href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a> <?php the_excerpt(); ?> </li> <?php endwhile; ?> </ul> Does anyone have an idea? Thank you.

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  • How to best future proof my application that needs to connect to Outlook?

    - by Troy
    I have a contact management application written in Delphi which has a “Sync with Outlook” feature that I developed 10 years ago. Now, I’m going back to add some features and fix some bugs. This sync feature uses the Outlook object model to get started, but it has an optional mode called “Use MAPI Enhancements” where it uses pure MAPI to speed up how it looks for changes, and it allows notes to be synced w/ RTF instead of just plain text. I'm wondering if supporting two parallel paths of execution is a good idea or not. If I went with all MAPI, I believe I'd avoid some security prompts, and I'd avoid situations where anti-virus has "script-blocking" features which block my app from connecting to Outlook. But I believe that on the down side, my 32-bit app would not be able to to connect with 64-bit Outlook 2010 using MAPI. And I wonder about the future of MAPI in general. If I stick with the Outlook object model, will my 32-bit app be able to connect to the Outlook object model (since it's out of process COM)? If so, this is a compelling reason to keep my Outlook object model execution path in place. But if not, and if my app needs to be compiled for x64, then why not just go with pure MAPI?

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  • How can I run an app's source code that I got from the Android source code?

    - by Wesley
    For all of you android devs out there that have the Android simulator running on your comp, you know that there are a few built in apps that are already 'installed' on your phone. I had an idea for an app that would utilize a function that is already being done in the spare parts app. I went on to the android developer site, dug through the source code files, and found the spare parts app, and am now trying to set it up so that running it from eclipse on my machine actually runs the app in the simulator. In other words, I want to be able to make changes to and adjust some of the things in that app for my own needs. But it won't compile, because of a number of different errors. How do I get that source code running on my local machine? Is there some special trick that I just dont know about? I thought that if I could get the source code than the rest would be easy, but it isn't being too easy. Any help here would be appreciated!!

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