Search Results

Search found 57327 results on 2294 pages for 'nested set'.

Page 678/2294 | < Previous Page | 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685  | Next Page >

  • What is the "Dispatcher" design pattern?

    - by Ben Farmer
    What is the "dispatcher" pattern and how would I implement it in code? I have a property bag of generic objects and would like to have the retrieval delegated to a generic method. Currently, I have properties looking for a specific key in the bag. For example: private Dictionary<String, Object> Foo { get; set; } private const String WidgetKey = "WIDGETKEY"; public Widget? WidgetItem { get { return Foo.ContainsKey(WidgetKey) ? Foo[WidgetKey] as Widget: null; } set { if (Foo.ContainsKey(WidgetKey)) Foo[WidgetKey] = value; else Foo.Add(WidgetKey, value); } } It was suggested that this could be more generic with the "dispatcher" pattern, but I've been unable to find a good description or example. I'm looking for a more generic way to handle the property bag store/retrieve.

    Read the article

  • Get All Users in an Active Directory Group

    - by Matt Hanson
    I'm using the following code sample to get a list of all users in a specified AD group (in this case, all users in the "Domain Users" group). My listed code works great, with one exception: it won't return users who have their primary group set to "Domain Users". How can I get a list of all users in the group, including those who have it set as their primary group? Private Sub GetUsers() Dim groupSearcher As New DirectorySearcher Dim groupSearchRoot As New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://OU=Users,DC=domain,DC=com") With groupSearcher .SearchRoot = groupSearchRoot .Filter = "(&(ObjectClass=Group)(CN=Domain Users))" End With Dim members As Object members = groupSearcher.FindOne.GetDirectoryEntry.Invoke("Members", Nothing) For Each member As Object In CType(members, IEnumerable) Console.WriteLine(New DirectoryEntry(member).Name.Remove(0, 3)) Next End Sub

    Read the article

  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

    Read the article

  • Download attachment issue with IE6-8 - non ssl

    - by Arun P Johny
    I'm facing an issue with file download with IE6-8 in non ssl environment. I've seen a lot of articles about the IE attachment download issue with ssl. As per the articles I tried to set the values of Pragma, Cache-Control headers, but still no luck with it. These are my response headers Cache-Control: private, max-age=5 Date: Tue, 25 May 2010 11:06:02 GMT Pragma: private Content-Length: 40492 Content-Type: application/pdf Content-Disposition: Attachment;Filename="file name.pdf" Server: Apache-Coyote/1.1 I've set the header values after going through some of these sites KB 812935 KB 316431 But these items are related to SSL. I've checked the response body and headers using fiddler, the response body is proper. I'm using window.open(url, "_blank") to download the file, if I change it to window.open(url, "_parent") or change the "Content-Disposition" to 'inline;Filename="file name.pdf"' it works fine. Please help me to solve this problem

    Read the article

  • Is AutoMapper able to auto resolve types base on existing maps

    - by Chi Chan
    I have the following code: [SetUp] public void SetMeUp() { Mapper.CreateMap<SourceObject, DestinationObject>(); } [Test] public void Testing() { var source = new SourceObject {Id = 123}; var destination1 = Mapper.Map<SourceObject, DestinationObject>(source); var destination2 = Mapper.Map<ObjectBase, ObjectBase>(source); //Works Assert.That(destination1.Id == source.Id); //Fails, gives the same object back Assert.That(destination2 is DestinationObject); } public class ObjectBase { public int Id { get; set; } } public class SourceObject : ObjectBase { } public class DestinationObject : ObjectBase { } So basically, I want AutoMapper to automatically resolve the destination type to "DestinationObject" based on the existing Maps set up in AutoMapper. Is there a way to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Fluent nHibernate and mapping IDictionary<DaysOfWeek,IDictionay<int, decimal>> how to?

    - by JS Future Software
    Hello, I have problem with making mapping of classes with propert of type Dictionary and value in it of type Dictionary too, like this: public class Class1 { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IDictionary<DayOfWeek, IDictionary<int, decimal>> Class1Dictionary { get; set; } } My mapping looks like this: Id(i => i.Id); HasMany(m => m.Class1Dictionary); This doesn't work. The important thing I want have everything in one table not in two. WHet I had maked class from this second IDictionary I heve bigger problem. But first I can try like it is now.

    Read the article

  • Core Data deleteObject: sets attributes to nil

    - by SG1
    I am implementing an undo/redo mechanism in my app. This works fine for lots of cases. However, I can't undo past deleteObject:. the object is correctly saved in the undo queue, and I get it back and reinsterted into the Core Data stack just fine when calling undo. The problem is that all it's attributes are getting set to nil when I delete it. I have an entity "Canvas" with a to-many relationship called "graphics" to a "Graphic" entity, which has its inverse set to "canvas". Deleting a Graphic, then inserting it back, doesn't work. Here's the code (the redo method is basically the same): - (void)deleteGraphic:(id)aGraphic { //NSLog(@"undo drawing"); //Prepare the undo/redo [self.undoManager beginUndoGrouping]; [self.undoManager setActionName:@"Delete Graphic"]; [[self.detailItem valueForKey:@"graphics"] removeObject:aGraphic]; [[self managedObjectContext] deleteObject:aGraphic]; //End undo/redo [self.undoManager registerUndoWithTarget:self selector:@selector(insertGraphic:) object:aGraphic]; [self.undoManager endUndoGrouping]; NSLog(@"graphics are %@", [self sortedGraphics]); //Update drawing [self.quartzView setNeedsDisplay]; } and here's the wierdness: Before delete: graphics are ( <NSManagedObject: 0x1cc3f0> (entity: Graphic; id: 0x1c05f0 <x-coredata:///Graphic/t840FE8AD-F2E7-4214-822F-7994FF93D4754> ; data: { canvas = 0x162b70 <x-coredata://A919979E-75AD-474D-9561-E0E8F3388718/Canvas/p20>; content = <62706c69 73743030 d4010203 04050609 0a582476 65727369 6f6e5424 746f7059 24617263 68697665 7258246f 626a6563 7473>; frameRect = nil; label = nil; order = 1; path = "(...not nil..)"; traits = "(...not nil..)"; type = Path; }) After redo: graphics are ( <NSManagedObject: 0x1cc3f0> (entity: Graphic; id: 0x1c05f0 <x-coredata:///Graphic/t840FE8AD-F2E7-4214-822F-7994FF93D4754> ; data: { canvas = nil; content = nil; frameRect = nil; label = nil; order = 0; path = nil; traits = nil; type = nil; }), You can see it's the same object, just totally bleached by Core Data. The relationship delete rouls apparently have nothing to do with it as I've set them to "No Action" in a test.

    Read the article

  • My first c# app and first null object exception

    - by Fresheyeball
    Total noob here. This is my first c# attempt, its a console application that simulates a drinking game called 'Left Right Center'. In the console I receive the following: CONSOLE Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object at LeftRightCenter.MainClass.Main (System.String[] args) [0x00038] in /Users/apple/Projects/LearningC/LearningC/Main.cs:80 [ERROR] FATAL UNHANDLED EXCEPTION: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object at LeftRightCenter.MainClass.Main (System.String[] args) [0x00038] in /Users/apple/Projects/LearningC/LearningC/Main.cs:80 C# using System; namespace LeftRightCenter { class Player { //fields private int _quarters = 4; public int Quarters { get{ return _quarters; } set{ _quarters += value; } } public Player (string name) { } } class Dice { Random random = new Random(); public int Roll () { random = new Random (); int diceSide; diceSide = random.Next (0, 6); diceSide = (diceSide > 2) ? 3 : diceSide; return diceSide; } } class MainClass { static int activePlayer = 0; static int theCup = 0; static Player[] thePlayers = { new Player ("Jessica"), new Player ("Isaac"), new Player ("Ed"), new Player ("Bella"), new Player ("Elisa"), new Player ("Fake RedHead"), new Player ("Linda"), new Player ("MJ"), new Player ("Irene"), new Player("Devin") }; static Dice[] theDice = new Dice[2]; private static void MoveQuarter (int direction) { int numberOfPlayers = thePlayers.Length - 1; switch (direction) { case 0: thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters = -1; theCup++; break; case 1: thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters = -1; int leftPlayer = (activePlayer == 0) ? numberOfPlayers : activePlayer - 1; thePlayers [leftPlayer].Quarters = +1; break; case 2: thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters = -1; int rightPlayer = (activePlayer == numberOfPlayers) ? 0 : activePlayer + 1; thePlayers [rightPlayer].Quarters = +1; break; } } public static void Main (string[] args) { int cupEndPoint = thePlayers.Length * 4 - 1; while (theCup < cupEndPoint) { foreach (Dice rattle in theDice) { if (thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters > 0) { MoveQuarter (rattle.Roll ()); // this line seems to be the problem } } Console.WriteLine ("{0} Quarters In the Cup", theCup); } } } } I have no idea what the problem is or why, and my googling have proven more use confusing than helpful.

    Read the article

  • Will the URL /nosuchpage get routed via my ASP.NET MVC application?

    - by Gary McGill
    [I'm trying to figure out the reason why I'm having another problem, and this question is part of the puzzle.] I have an MVC 2 website that has routing set up so that URLs such as /Customer/23/Order/47 get handled by various controllers. I do not have a rule that would match, for example, /nosuchpage and in my Cassini environment a request for that URL will trigger my Application_Error code, which lets me log the error and show a friendly response. However, when I deployed this website on IIS7 using integrated mode, my Application_Error is not triggered, and IIS shows its own 404 message. No matter what I've tried, I can't get Application_Error to fire. Now I'm thinking: is the reason it doesn't fire because the request is not getting routed via my application? Either because I didn't explicitly set up a catch-all route, or because the file-extension fools it into thinking it should use the "static file handler" (whatever that is)? Should I expect my Application_Error to be invoked?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to coerce string values in xml to bool?

    - by Kugel
    Let's suppose I have xml like this one: <Server Active="No"> <Url>http://some.url</Url> </Server> C# class looks like this: public class Server { [XmlAttribute()] public string Active { get; set; } public string Url { get; set; } } Is it possible to change Active property to type bool and have XmlSerializer coerce "Yes" "No" to bool values? Edit: Xml is received, I cannot change it. So, in fact, i'm interested in deserialization only.

    Read the article

  • ASP .net MVC Invoking default controller and action vs Setting a startup page

    - by SARAVAN
    Hi, I am developing code on the sample ASP .net MVC template provided by VS2010. The first time I ran the code without adding anything, the index.aspx page was invoked which is expected. But for some reasons I added a login.aspx and then accidentally set that as a startup page. Now when I ran the application the default startup url look like http://localhost/Views/login.aspx. I am thinking this is not a valid MVC routing path and I get the requested resource cannot be found error. I am not sure how to revert this back and make sure the default ../home/index is invoked. Can any one throw some light on this? Also should I not set the startup page as we do in asp .net webforms?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server, Remote Stored Procedure, and DTC Transactions

    - by marc
    Our organization has a lot of its essential data in a mainframe Adabas database. We have ODBC access to this data and from C# have queried/updated it successfully using ODBC/Natural "stored procedures". What we'd like to be able to do now is to query a mainframe table from within SQL Server 2005 stored procs, dump the results into a table variable, massage it, and join the result with native SQL data as a result set. The execution of the Natural proc from SQL works fine when we're just selecting it; however, when we insert the result into a table variable SQL seems to be starting a distributed transaction that in turn seems to be wreaking havoc with our connections. Given that we're not performing updates, is it possible to turn off this DTC-escalation behavior? Any tips on getting DTC set up properly to talk to DataDirect's (formerly Neon Systems) Shadow ODBC driver?

    Read the article

  • updating a table conditionally with values from a group by sub query in oracle

    - by user333147
    the problem is Update the salary of all the employees by 50% who had worked on 5 or more than 5 projects, by 30% (= 3 projects), by 20 % (= 1 projects) the number of project is got by performing a group by query on the EMPLOYEE_PROJECT_HISTORY; i have tried these queries 1) update emp set emp.sal= case when jemp.pcount >=5 then emp.sal+ (emp.sal*50)/100 when jemp.pcount >=3 then emp.sal+ (emp.sal*30)/100 when jemp.pcount >=1 then emp.sal+ (emp.sal*20)/100 else emp.sal+ (emp.sal*20)/100 end from employee emp join (select empno as jempno,count(projectno) as pcount from EMPLOYEE_PROJECT_HISTORY by empno) jemp on emp.empno=jemp.jempno ; 2)update employee a set a.sal= case (select count(b.projectno) as pcount from EMPLOYEE_PROJECT_HISTORY b group by b.empno ) when b.pcount >5 then a.sal = a.sal+ (a.sal*50)/100 when pcount >3 then a.sal = a.sal+ (a.sal*30)/100 when pcount >1 then a.sal = a.sal+ (a.sal*20)/100 end;

    Read the article

  • ADO "Unspecified Error" instead of actual error when fetching server side cursor

    - by Dan
    This relates to my recent question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2835663/force-oracle-error-on-fetch I am now able to reproduce a scenario where using ADO with the Oracle OLEDB Provider, I can force an error such as ORA-01722: invalid number to occur on calling Recordset.MoveNext However, this is not the error that is returned to the application. Instead, the application sees Provider error '80004005' Unspecified error. How can I get the application to see the real error from the database? This is with Oracle 10g (client and server), if it matters. Sample code is roughly as follows: Dim con As New ADODB.Connection Dim cmd As New ADODB.Command Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset con.ConnectionString = "Provider=OraOLEDB.ORACLE;Data Source=xxx;User Id=yyy;Password=zzz" con.CursorLocation = adUseServer con.Open Set cmd.ActiveConnection = con cmd.CommandText = "select * from table(ret_err)" cmd.Prepared = True Set rs = cmd.Execute While Not rs.EOF rs.MoveNext Wend

    Read the article

  • Public property List needs to Concat 2 types with inheritance

    - by Bernard
    I have 2 lists: one of type A and one of type Aa. type Aa is inherited from type A. So: List<A> listA = new List<A>(); List<Aa> listAa = new List<Aa>(); with class Aa : A I have: public property Lists<A> { get { List<A> newList = new List<A>(); //return concat of both lists foreach(List l in listA) { newList.Add(l); } foreach(List l in listAa) { newList.Add(l); } } Can I somehow use Concat instead of the foreach loop? i.e. get { return listA.Concat(listAa); } // this doesn't work And secondly, how do I do the set part of the property? set { //figure out the type of variable value and put into appropriate list? }

    Read the article

  • MVC3/Razor Client Validation Not firing

    - by Jason Gerstorff
    I am trying to get client validation working in MVC3 using data annotations. I have looked at similar posts including this MVC3 Client side validation not working for the answer. I'm using an EF data model. I created a partial class like this for my validations. [MetadataType(typeof(Post_Validation))] public partial class Post { } public class Post_Validation { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] [StringLength(5, ErrorMessage = "Title may not be longer than 5 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Text is required")] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] public string Text { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Publish Date is required")] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] public DateTime PublishDate { get; set; } } My cshtml page includes the following. <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) Post <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Title) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Text) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Text) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Text) Web Config: <appSettings> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true" /> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true" /> Layout: <head> <title>@ViewBag.Title</title> <link href="@Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css")" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> So, the Multiline Text annotation works and creates a text area. But none of the validations work client side. I don't know what i might be missing. Any ideas?? i can post more information if needed. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Unit testing UDP socket handling code

    - by JustJeff
    Are there any 'good' ways to cause a thread waiting on a recvfrom() call to become unblocked and return with an error? The motivation for this is to write unit tests for a system which includes a unit that reads UDP datagrams. One of the branches handles errors on the recvfrom call itself. The code isn't required to distinguish between different types of errors, it just has to set a flag. I've thought of closing the socket from another thread, or do a shutdown on it, to cause recvfrom to return with an error, but this seems a bit heavy handed. I've seen mention elsewhere that sending an over-sized packet would do it, and so set up an experiment where a 16K buffer was sent to a recvfrom waiting for just 4K, but that didn't result in an error. The recvfrom just return 4096, to indicate it had gotten that many bytes.

    Read the article

  • How to create tests for poco objects

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm new to mocking/testing and wanting to know what level should you go to when testing. For example in my code I have the following object: public class RuleViolation { public string ErrorMessage { get; private set; } public string PropertyName { get; private set; } public RuleViolation( string errorMessage ) { ErrorMessage = errorMessage; } public RuleViolation( string errorMessage, string propertyName ) { ErrorMessage = errorMessage; PropertyName = propertyName; } } This is a relatively simple object. So my question is: Does it need a unit test? If it does what do I test and how? Thanks

    Read the article

  • symfony sfValidatorSchemaCompare and dateformat output problem

    - by Gerbrand
    public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['start_date'] = new sfWidgetFormInput(); $this->widgetSchema['end_date'] = new sfWidgetFormInput(); $this->validatorSchema->setPostValidator( new sfValidatorOr ( array( new sfValidatorAnd( array (new sfValidatorSchemaCompare('start_date', sfValidatorSchemaCompare::NOT_EQUAL, null), new sfValidatorSchemaCompare('end_date', sfValidatorSchemaCompare::EQUAL, null) )), new sfValidatorSchemaCompare('start_date', sfValidatorSchemaCompare::LESS_THAN_EQUAL, 'end_date', array('throw_global_error' => false), array('invalid' => 'The start date ("%left_field%") must be before the end date ("%right_field%")'))))); } I've got following input dates which I want to check if the end date isn't before the start date: Input: Start = 31/03/10 End= 07/03/10 Output: The start date (2010-03-31) must be before the end date (2010-03-07) Can you in some way change the date output? I need the error message to set the date format the same as the input. Also my input fields are set with the wrong date format when the error appears. Tried several things, but no luck at this moment. Didn't find a solution or information on symfony it self. I'm using symfony version 1.2.11

    Read the article

  • declaring a 2D array of pointer objects

    - by Tyler Stennette
    I'm having a tough time figuring out how to instantiate a 2D array of pointer objects. Here is how I'm doing it: Pieces* chessBoard[9][9]; When I want to set it to an actual object pointer, I'm doing the following: chessBoard[1][1] = new Rook(p1Rook); Rook is a class that inherits attributes from the Pieces class and p1Rook is a char variable set to 'R'. This class also implements virtual functions (not pure virtual) from Pieces such as move() or getPiece() that are unique to the particular chess piece. However, when I compile my program, I get the following error: ChessBoard.cpp:69: error: expected type-specifier before ‘Rook’ ChessBoard.cpp:69: error: cannot convert ‘int*’ to ‘Pieces*’ in assignment Can someone please explain what I should change to get rid of this rather annoying persistent error? I would appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Using PHP to read a web page with fsockopen(), but fgets is not working

    - by asdasd
    Im using this code here: http://www.digiways.com/articles/php/httpredirects/ public function ReadHttpFile($strUrl, $iHttpRedirectMaxRecursiveCalls = 5) { // parsing the url getting web server name/IP, path and port. $url = parse_url($strUrl); // setting path to '/' if not present in $strUrl if (isset($url['path']) === false) $url['path'] = '/'; // setting port to default HTTP server port 80 if (isset($url['port']) === false) $url['port'] = 80; // connecting to the server] // reseting class data $this->success = false; unset($this->strFile); unset($this->aHeaderLines); $this->strLocation = $strUrl; $fp = fsockopen ($url['host'], $url['port'], $errno, $errstr, 30); // Return if the socket was not open $this-success is set to false. if (!$fp) return; $header = 'GET / HTTP/1.1\r\n'; $header .= 'Host: '.$url['host'].$url['path']; if (isset($url['query'])) $header .= '?'.$url['query']; $header .= '\r\n'; $header .= 'Connection: Close\r\n\r\n'; // sending the request to the server echo "Header is: ".str_replace('\n', '\n', $header).""; $length = strlen($header); if($length != fwrite($fp, $header, $length)) { echo 'error writing to header, exiting'; return; } // $bHeader is set to true while we receive the HTTP header // and after the empty line (end of HTTP header) it's set to false. $bHeader = true; // continuing untill there's no more text to read from the socket while (!feof($fp)) { echo "in loop"; // reading a line of text from the socket // not more than 8192 symbols. $good = $strLine = fgets($fp, 128); if(!$good) { echo 'bad'; return; } // removing trailing \n and \r characters. $strLine = ereg_replace('[\r\n]', '', $strLine); if ($bHeader == false) $this-strFile .= $strLine.'\n'; else $this-aHeaderLines[] = trim($strLine); if (strlen($strLine) == 0) $bHeader = false; echo "read: $strLine"; return; } echo "after loop"; fclose ($fp); } This is all I get: Header is: GET / HTTP/1.1\r\n Host: www.google.com/\r\n Connection: Close\r\n\r\n in loopbad So it fails the fgets($fp, 128);

    Read the article

  • MySQL query killing my server

    - by Webnet
    Looking at this query there's got to be something bogging it down that I'm not noticing. I ran it for 7 minutes and it only updated 2 rows. //set product count for makes $tru->query->run(array( 'name' => 'get-make-list', 'sql' => 'SELECT id, name FROM vehicle_make', 'connection' => 'core' )); while($tempMake = $tru->query->getArray('get-make-list')) { $tru->query->run(array( 'name' => 'update-product-count', 'sql' => 'UPDATE vehicle_make SET product_count = ( SELECT COUNT(product_id) FROM taxonomy_master WHERE v_id IN ( SELECT id FROM vehicle_catalog WHERE make_id = '.$tempMake['id'].' ) ) WHERE id = '.$tempMake['id'], 'connection' => 'core' )); } I'm sure this query can be optimized to perform better, but I can't think of how to do it. vehicle_make = 45 rows taxonomy_master = 11,223 rows vehicle_catalog = 5,108 rows All tables have appropriate indexes

    Read the article

  • Problem with lazy loading implementation

    - by Mehran
    Hi, I have implemented lazy loading in my program. it's done through a proxy class like: class Order { public virtual IList<Item> Items {get; set;} } class OrderProxy { public override IList<Item> Items { get { if (base.Items == null) Items = GetItems(base.OrderID); return base.Items; } set { base.Items = value; } } } the problem is that whenever i instantiate proxy class,without even touching the Items property, it tries to load Items! as you may know,i want to instantiate proxy class and return the instance to BLL instead of domain object itself. what's the problem? Does .NET CLR access(read) properties in a class, when it's instatiating the class? any other methods? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to call a procedure within an SQL statement?

    - by darren
    Hi everyone I thought I would use a stored routine to clean up some of my more complex SQL statements. From what I've read, it seems impossible to use a stored procedure within an sql statement, and a stored function only returns a single value when what I need is a result set. I am using mySQL v5.0 SELECT p.`id`, gi.`id` FROM `sport`.`players` AS p JOIN `sport`.`gameinstances` AS gi ON p.`id` = gi.`playerid` WHERE (p.`playerid` IN (CALL findPlayers`("Canada", "2002"))) AND (gi.`instanceid` NOT IN (CALL findGameInstances`("Canada", "2002"))); For example, the procedures 'findPlayers' and 'findGameInstances' are are stored routines that execute some SQL and return a result set. I would prefer not to include their code directly within the statement above.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685  | Next Page >