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• Computation overhead in C# - Using getters/setters vs. modifying arrays directly and casting speeds

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  I was going to write a long-winded post, but I'll boil it down here: I'm trying to emulate the graphical old-school style of the NES via XNA. However, my FPS is SLOW, trying to modify 65K pixels per frame. If I just loop through all 65K pixels and set them to some arbitrary color, I get 64FPS. The code I made to look-up what colors should be placed where, I get 1FPS. I think it is because of my object-orented code. Right now, I have things divided into about six classes, with getters/setters. I'm guessing that I'm at least calling 360K getters per frame, which I think is a lot of overhead. Each class contains either/and-or 1D or 2D arrays containing custom enumerations, int, Color, or Vector2D, bytes. What if I combined all of the classes into just one, and accessed the contents of each array directly? The code would look a mess, and ditch the concepts of object-oriented coding, but the speed might be much faster. I'm also not concerned about access violations, as any attempts to get/set the data in the arrays will done in blocks. E.g., all writing to arrays will take place before any data is accessed from them. As for casting, I stated that I'm using custom enumerations, int, Color, and Vector2D, bytes. Which data types are fastest to use and access in the .net Framework, XNA, XBox, C#? I think that constant casting might be a cause of slowdown here. Also, instead of using math to figure out which indexes data should be placed in, I've used precomputed lookup tables so I don't have to use constant multiplication, addition, subtraction, division per frame. :)

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• What is a simple way to add a timer to a method

  - by John

  The following is in C#. I'm trying to do something very simple (I think). I have a method that loads an XML document XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(uri); , but I don't want to tie up pc resources if there are issues (connectivity, document size, etc.). So I'd like to be able to add a timeout variable that will cut the method off after a given number of seconds. I'm a newbie when it comes to asynchronous programming and find it confusing that there are so many examples written so many different ways . . . and none of them appear simple. I'd like a simple solution, if possible. Here's my thoughts so far on possible solution paths: 1) A method that wraps the existing load public XDocument LoadXDocument(string uri, int timeout){ //code } 2) A wrapper, but as an extension method XDocument doc = XDocument.LoadWithTimeout(string uri, int timeout); 3) A generic extension method. Object obj = SomeStaticClass.LoadWithTimeout(??? method, int timeout); 3), on its face seems really nice, because it would mean being able to generically add timeouts to many different method calls and not specifically tied to one type of object, but I suspect that it is either i)impossible or ii) very difficult. Please assist. Thanks.

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• Codeigniter PHP - loading a view at an anchor point

  - by James Billings

  I have a form at the bottom of a long page, if a user fills out the form but it doesn't validate the page is reloaded in the typical codeigniter fashion: $this->load->view('template',$data); however because the form is way down at the bottom of the page I need the page to load down there like you do with HTML anchors. Does anyone know how to do this in codeigniter? I can't use the codeigniter redirect(); function because it loses the object and the validation errors are gone. Other frameworks I've used like Yii you can call the redirect function like: $this->redirect(); which solves the problem because you keep the object. I've tried using: $this->index() within the controller which works fine as a redirect but the validation errors are in another method which is where the current page is loaded from: $this->item($labs) but when I use this it get stuck in a loop Any ideas? I've seen this question a lot on the net but no clear answers. I'm researching using codeigniter "flash data" but think it's a bit overkill. cheers.

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• Zend_Db Enum Values [Closed]

  - by scopus

  I find this solution $metadata = $result->getTable()->info('metadata'); echo $metadata['Continent']['DATA_TYPE']; Hi, I want to get enum values in Zend_Db. My Code: $select = $this->select(); $result = $select->fetchAll(); print_r($result->getTable()); Output: Example Object ( [_name] => country [query] => Zend_Db_Table_Select Object ( [_info:protected] => Array ( [schema] => [name] => country [cols] => Array ( [0] => Code [1] => Continent ) [primary] => Array ( [1] => Code ) [metadata] => Array ( [Continent] => Array ( [SCHEMA_NAME] => [TABLE_NAME] => country [COLUMN_NAME] => Continent [COLUMN_POSITION] => 3 [DATA_TYPE] => enum('Asia','Europe','North America','Africa','Oceania','Antarctica','South America') [DEFAULT] => Asia [NULLABLE] => [LENGTH] => [SCALE] => [PRECISION] => [UNSIGNED] => [PRIMARY] => [PRIMARY_POSITION] => [IDENTITY] => ) I see enum values in data_type but i don't get this values. How can get data_type?

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• How to create a reference tables for collection classes using fluent nhibernate

  - by Akk

  How can i create a 3 table schema from the following model classes. public class Product { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public IList<Photo> Photos {get; set;} } public class Photo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Path {get; set;} } I want to create the following table structure in the database: Product ------- Id Name ProductPhotos ------------- ProductId (FK Products.Id) PhotoId (FK Photos.Id) Photos ------ Id Path How i can express the above Database Schema using Fluent NHibernate? I could only manage the following the Mapping but this does not get me the 3rd Photo ref table. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Table("Products"); HasMany(x => x.Photos).Table("ProductPhotos").KeyColumn("ProductId"); } }

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• Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

  - by Ahmed

  Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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• threading and getting COM port of attached phone

  - by I__

  i have the following code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } public class ThreadWork { public static void DoWork() { } } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ThreadStart myThreadDelegate = new ThreadStart(ThreadWork.DoWork); Thread myThread = new Thread(myThreadDelegate); myThread.Start(); // Begin communications serialPort1.Open(); serialPort1.Write("AT+CMGF=1\r\n"); //Thread.Sleep(500); serialPort1.Write("AT+CNMI=2,2\r\n"); //Thread.Sleep(500); serialPort1.Write("AT+CSCA=\"+4790002100\"\r\n"); //Thread.Sleep(500); } private void serialPort1_DataReceived_1(object sender, System.IO.Ports.SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { string response = serialPort1.ReadLine(); this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(() => textBox1.AppendText(response + "\r\n"))); } } } what i am trying to do is send AT COMMANDS to my phone which is attached to the computer through USB how do i know how to configure the properties of the serial port? (like which COM is the phone on [it's attached through USB], what about baudrate and databits?) when i run the program nothing really happens, i would like to send AT COMMANDS to my phone and the textbox is there to receive the response from my phone this is my first time using threads. am i using them correctly? what is the purpose of it in the current example? is it to just have a delay between send a response? what am i doing wrong?

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• FluentNHibernate: multiple one-to-many relationships between the same entities.

  - by Venemo

  Hi, I'm working on a bug tracking application. There are tickets, and each ticket has an opener user and an assigned user. So, basically, I have two entities, which have two many-to-one relationships with each other. Their schematic is this: User: public class User { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } ... public virtual IList<Ticket> OpenedTickets { get; set; } public virtual IList<Ticket> AssignedTickets { get; set; } } Ticket: public class Ticket { public virtual int Id { get; protected set; } ... [Required] public virtual User OpenerUser { get; set; } public virtual User AssignedUser { get; set; } } I use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature. The problem is, that no matter whether relationship I set, on the side of the User, both collections always contain the same data. I guess Fluent can't tell which end of which relationship belongs to where. I googled around but haven't found anything useful. Could anyone help me, please?

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• Session does not giving right records?

  - by Jugal

  I want to keep one session, but when I rollback transaction then transaction gets isActive=false, so I can not commit and rollback in next statements by using same transaction. then I need to create new transaction but what is going wrong here ? var session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession();/* It returns new session. */ var transaction1 = session.BeginTransaction(); var list1 = session.Query<Make>().ToList(); /* It returs 4 records. */ session.Delete(list1[2]); /* After Rollback, transaction is isActive=false so I can not commit * and rollback from this transaction in future. so I need to create new transaction. */ transaction1.Rollback(); var transaction2 = session.BeginTransaction(); /* It returns 3 records. * I am not getting object(which was deleted but after that rollback) here why ? */ var list2 = session.Query<Make>().ToList(); Anyone have idea what is going wrong here ? I am not getting deleted object which was rollback.

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• Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

  - by rsteckly

  Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

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• Why use Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME

  - by hks

  while reading Android docs about Widgets I stumbled upon this piece of code whose purpose is to launch a service for retrieving a factory for StackView items. // Set up the intent that starts the StackViewService, which will // provide the views for this collection. Intent intent = new Intent(context, StackWidgetService.class); // Add the app widget ID to the intent extras. intent.putExtra(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, appWidgetIds[i]); intent.setData(Uri.parse(intent.toUri(Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME))); // Instantiate the RemoteViews object for the App Widget layout. RemoteViews rv = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); // Set up the RemoteViews object to use a RemoteViews adapter. // This adapter connects // to a RemoteViewsService through the specified intent. // This is how you populate the data. rv.setRemoteAdapter(appWidgetIds[i], R.id.stack_view, intent); You can find it here I have a problem understanding why do you need to call intent.setData(Uri.parse(intent.toUri(Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME))); I understand that it gives URI a prefix intent://, but is it necessary here?

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• How do I put all the types matching a particular C# interface in an IDictionary?

  - by Kevin Brassen

  I have a number of classes all in the same interface, all in the same assembly, all conforming to the same generic interface: public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... It's safe to assume that if we have an IFactory<T> for a particular T that it's the only one of that kind. (That is, there aren't two things that implement IFactory<Apple>.) I'd like to use reflection to get all these types, and then store them all in an IDictionary, where the key is typeof(T) and the value is the corresponding IFactory<T>. I imagine eventually we would wind up with something like this: _map = new Dictionary<Type, object>(); foreach(Type t in [...]) { object factoryForType = System.Reflection.[???](t); _map[t] = factoryForType; } What's the best way to do that? I'm having trouble seeing how I'd do that with the System.Reflection interfaces.

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• Strange befaviour of spring transaction support for JPA + Hibernate +@Transactional annotation

  - by abovesun

  I found out really strange behavior on relatively simple use case, probably I can't understand it because of not deep knowledges of spring @Transactional nature, but this is quite interesting. I have simple User dao that extends spring JpaDaoSupport class and contains standard save method: @Transactional public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().persist(user); return user; } If was working fine until I've add new method to same class: User getSuperUser(), this method should return user with isAdmin == true, and if there is no super user in db, method should create one. Thats how it was looking like: public User createSuperUser() { User admin = null; try { admin = (User) getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { return em.createQuery("select u from UserImpl u where u.admin = true").getSingleResult(); } }); } catch (EmptyResultDataAccessException ex) { User admin = new User('login', 'password'); admin.setAdmin(true); save(admin); // THIS IS THE POINT WHERE STRANGE THING COMING OUT } return admin; } As you see code is strange forward and I was very confused when found out that no transaction was created and committed on invocation of save(admin) method and no new user wasn't actually created despite @Transactional annotation. In result we have situation: when save() method invokes from outside of UserDAO class - @Transactional annotation counted and user successfully created, but if save() invokes from inside of other method of the same dao class - @Transactional annotation ignored. Here how I was change save() method to force it always create transaction. public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(user); em.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); return user; } As you see I manually invoke begin and commit. Any ideas?

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• Cached data accessed by reference?

  - by arthurdent510

  I am running into an odd problem, and this is the only thing I can think of. I'm storing a list in cache, and I am randomly losing items from my list as users use the site. I have a class that is called that either goes to cache and returns the list from there, or if the cache is over a certain time frame old, it goes to the database and refreshes the cache. So when I pull the data from cache, this is what it looks like.... results = (List<Software>)cache["software"]; And then I return results and do some processing, filter for security, and eventually it winds up on the screen. For each Software record, there can be multiple resources attached to it, and based on how the security goes they may see some, all, or none of the records. So in the security check it will remove some of those resources from the software record. So my question is.... when I return my results list, is it a reference directly to the cache object? So when I remove a resource from the software object, it is really removing from cache as well? If that is the case, is there any way to not return it as a reference? Thanks!

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• Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

  - by Sir Code-A-Lot

  Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

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• jtable update data not visible

  - by Thomas n

  I am running into a problem similar to what I have read here about inserted data and added data not showing up on jtable. I have tried repaint() and revalidate(), but to no avail. Basically, I have two classes say A and B. A calls a function in class B to add a row of data to the table. Here is the code.(By the way I am using Netbeans 7.1.2 to add a table and then add some code to handle the update.) public void callUpdateTable(){ DefaultTableModel myModel = (DefaultTableModel)jTable1.getModel(); DateFormat dateFormate = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss"); Object[] str = new Object[3]; Date date = new Date(); str[0] = dateFormate.format(date); str[1] = "Robot"; str[2] = "hello"; // myModel.addRow(str); myModel.insertRow(1, str); myModel.setValueAt("Hello", 1, 2); System.out.println("count = " + myModel.getValueAt(1, 2)); jTable1.repaint(); } The funny thing is on system print it prints out the value at the cell(1,2) I set the value, but doesn't show up on the table. Thank you for your help.

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• Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

  - by davetron5000

  Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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• Remove duplication's from my DropDownList

  - by user2976270

  In my controller i am returning list of my object with specific property: public ActionResult Index() { List<MyObject> list = db.MyObjects.Where(x => x.family == "Web").ToList(); ViewBag.Files = new SelectList(list, "Id", "protocol"); return View(); } This is my object: public class MyObject { public int id { get; set; } public string fileName { get; set; } public string browser { get; set; } public string protocol { get; set; } public string family { get; set; } } Index.cshtml: @Html.DropDownList("File", new SelectList(ViewBag.Files, "Id", "protocol_site"), "Select webmail site", new { style = "vertical-align:middle;" }) And i try to made 2 changes with no succeed: Remove all the duplication protocol from my DropDownListfor exapmle if i have 10 objects : 9 is doc protocol and 1 pdf i wand to see in my DropDownList only 2 items: DOC and PDF and not all the 10 items. Sort this DropDownList in alphabet order

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• Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

  - by Vaibhav

  Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

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• Symfony 2 - Updating a table based on newly inserted record in another table

  - by W00d5t0ck

  I'm trying to create a small forum application using Symfony 2 and Doctrine 2. My ForumTopic entity has a last_post field (oneToOne mapping). Now when I persist my new post with $em->persist($post); I want to update my ForumTopic entity so its last_post field would reference this new post. I have just realised that it cannot be done with a Doctrine postPersist Listener, so I decided to use a small hack, and tried: $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); $topic->setLastPost($post); $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); but it doesn't seem to update my topics table. I also took a look at http://docs.doctrine-project.org/projects/doctrine-orm/en/2.1/reference/working-with-associations.html#transitive-persistence-cascade-operations hoping it will solve the problem by adding cascade: [ 'persist' ] to my Topic.orm.yml file, but it didn't help, either. Could anyone point me to a solution or an example class? My ForumTopic is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumTopic: type: entity table: forum_topics id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: title: type: string(100) nullable: false slug: type: string(100) nullable: false created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: text nullable: true oneToMany: posts: targetEntity: ForumPost mappedBy: topic manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: articles nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic_group: targetEntity: ForumTopicGroup inversedBy: topics nullable: false oneToOne: last_post: targetEntity: ForumPost nullable: true default: null cascade: [ persist ] uniqueConstraint: uniqueSlugByGroup: columns: [ topic_group, slug ] And my ForumPost is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumPost: type: entity table: forum_posts id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: string nullable: true text: type: text nullable: false manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: forum_posts nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic: targetEntity: ForumTopic inversedBy: posts

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• A better way of getting a data table with various column types into string array

  - by Vlad

  This should be an easy one, looks like I got myself too confused. I get a table from a database, data ranges from varchar to int to Null values. Cheap and dirty way of converting this into a tab-delimited file that I already have is this (shrunken to preserve space, ugliness is kept on par with original): da.Fill(dt) ' da - DataAdapter ' ' dt - DataTable ' Dim lColumns As Long = dt.Columns.Count Dim arrColumns(dt.Columns.Count) As String Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object Dim j As Long = 0 Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Count - 1 arrData = dt.Rows(i).ItemArray() For j = 0 To arrData.GetUpperBound(0) - 1 arrColumns(j) = arrData(j).ToString Next wrtOutput.WriteLine(String.Join(strFieldDelimiter, arrColumns)) Array.Clear(arrColumns, 0, arrColumns.GetLength(0)) Array.Clear(arrData, 0, arrData.GetLength(0)) Next Not only this is ugly and inefficient, it is also getting on my nerves. Besides, I want, if possible, to avoid the infamous double-loop through the table. I would really appreciate a clean and safe way of rewriting this piece. I like the approach that is used here - especially that is trying to solve the same problem that I have, but it crashes on me when I apply it to my case directly.

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• How to convert a rectangle to TRBL CSS rect value?

  - by VLostBoy

  I'm not quite sure how to put this, but here goes... The css clip attribute is defined like so: rect(top, right, bottom, left). However, I'm exploring the use of a custom Rectangle 'class' to encapsulate some operations. The rectangle class has the attributes height, width and x, y. The x and y values are encapsulated in a Point object, and the height and width are encapsulated in a Dimension object, the rectangle being a composite of a point (its top-left location) and a dimension (width and height). So far so good. I though it would be pretty simple on the basis of having the rectangles x, y, width and height values to define the css rect attribute in terms of top, right, bottom, left, but I've become hopelessly confused- I've been googling for a while, and I can't seem to find any documentation as to what the TRBL values actually are or what they represent. For example, should I be thinking in terms of co-ordinates, in which case, surely I can describe the rectangle as a css rect using the rectangles x position for Top, x position + width for Right, the rectangles height + y for Bottom and its y position for Left... but thats a load of BS, surely? Also, surely rect is actually an inset, or have I just inverted my understanding of clip? I'd appreciate some advice. What I want to be able to do is (i) Define a rectangle using x, y, width and height (ii)Express the rectangle in TRBL form so that I can manipulate a divs clipping behaviour (iii)Change x, y, width or height and recalculate in terms of TRBL and goto (ii) I appreciate there are some other factors here, and some intermediary transforms to be done, but I've confused myself pretty badly- Can anyone give me some pointers?

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• NUll exception in filling a querystring by mocing framework

  - by user564101

  There is a simple controller that a querystring is read in constructor of it. public class ProductController : Controller { parivate string productName; public ProductController() { productName = Request.QueryString["productname"]; } public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = productName; return View(); } } Also I have a function in unit test that create an instance of this Controller and I fill the querystring by a Mock object like below. [TestClass] public class ProductControllerTest { [TestMethod] public void test() { // Arrange var querystring = new System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection { { "productname", "sampleproduct"} }; var mock = new Mock<ControllerContext>(); mock.SetupGet(p => p.HttpContext.Request.QueryString).Returns(querystring); var controller = new ProductController(); controller.ControllerContext = mock.Object; // Act var result = controller.Index() as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.AreEqual("Index", result.ViewName); } } Unfortunately Request.QueryString["productname"] is null in constructor of ProductController when I run test unit. Is ther any way to fill a querystrin by a mocking and get it in constructor of a control?

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• problem with converting simple code from Winform to silverlight app.

  - by Sara

  Hi. I have this code for window form application and I have been attempting to convert it to a Silverlight application but it does not work!. There is a Textbox and I attached KeyDown event handler to it. when the user press the arrow key ( left or right) while the focus on the textbox, it will write . or -. When it is window form i used e.KeyCode and Keys.Right and its works great but when it is silverlight I used e.Key and key.Right and the program doesn't work good because the arrows do the 2 functions moving and write ./-. How I can work this out in Silverlight? (My English not good) The code ( window form): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left || e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } (and Silverlight): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.Key == Key.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } I don't understand, is there huge different effect between using Keycode/Keys and Key/Key or because something else?

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• [VB.Net] TreeView update bug in the .net framework

  - by CFP

  Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again.

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