Search Results

Search found 32116 results on 1285 pages for 'object object mapping'.

Page 680/1285 | < Previous Page | 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687  | Next Page >

  • Execute files included in Resource folder

    - by Sumeet Pujari
    In WPF application where I have included some files in resources, I want to execute them on a button click. How do I specify a path in Process.Start(). private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Process.Start("test.txt"); } Or is there any other way? private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string path = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location) + @"\test.txt"; if (File.Exists(path)) { Process.Start(new ProcessStartInfo(path)); } else { MessageBox.Show("No file found"+path); } I added a message box and it showed No files found. :( EDIT: I Tried to check the path after publishing and this what i got. No File Found With a Path - C:\Users\Administrator\AppData\Local\Apps\2.0... test.txt Before I published the Application I got a path which id No File Found at ..project..\bin\Debug\test.txt which is obvious since my Resource file not included there its Under a Resource Folder and not Debug when i add a test file in debug it open without any problem. Can someone Help throwing some light on this case. EDIT: I want to open a file from Resource directory @ C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\FastFix\FastFix\Resources Which would be included in my project when i am going to publish it is going to run as a standalone application without installation.

    Read the article

  • How to merge two icons together? (overlay one icon on top of another)

    - by demoncodemonkey
    I've got two 16x16 RGB/A .ICO icon files, each loaded into a separate System.Drawing.Icon object. How would you create a new Icon object containing the merge of the two icons (one overlaid on top of the other)? Edit: I probably wasn't too clear, I don't want to blend two images into each other, I want to overlay one icon on top of another. I should add that the icons already contain transparent parts and I do not need any transparent "blending" to make both icons visible. What I need is to overlay the non-transparent pixels of one icon over the top of another icon. The transparent pixels should let the background icon show through. For example, look at the stackoverflow icon. It has some areas that are grey and orange, and some areas that are totally transparent. Imagine you want to overlay the SO icon on top of the Firefox icon. You would see the greys and oranges of the SO icon in full colour, and where the SO icon is transparent, you would see those parts of the Firefox icon.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 Entity with EntityState of Unchanged firing update

    - by Andy
    I am using EF 4, mapping all CUD operations for my entities using sprocs. I have two tables, ADDRESS and PERSON. A PERSON can have multiple ADDRESS associated with them. Here is the code I am running: Person person = (from p in context.People where p.PersonUID == 1 select p).FirstOrDefault(); Address address = (from a in context.Addresses where a.AddressUID == 51 select a).FirstOrDefault(); address.AddressLn2 = "Test"; context.SaveChanges(); The Address being updated is associated with the Person I am retrieveing - although they are not explicitly linked in any way in the code. When the context.SaveChanges() executes not only does the Update sproc for my Address entity get fired (like you would expect), but so does the Update sproc for the Person entity - even though you can see there was no change made to the Person entity. When I check the EntityState of both objects before the context.SaveChanges() call I see that my Address entity has an EntityState of "Modified" and my Person enity has an EntityState of "Unchanged". Why is the Update sproc being called for the Person entity? Is there a setting of some sort that I can set to prevent this from happening?

    Read the article

  • How to re-enable the idle timer in ios once it has been disabled (to allow the display to sleep again)?

    - by lindon fox
    I have figured out how to stop an iOS device from going to sleep (see below), but I am having troubles undoing that setting. According to the Apple Documentation, it should just be changing the value of the idleTimerDisabled property. But when I test this, it does not work. This is how I am initially stopping the device from going to sleep: //need to switch off and on for it to work initially [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = YES; I would have thought that the following would do the trick: [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; From the Apple Documentation: The default value of this property is NO. When most applications have no touches as user input for a short period, the system puts the device into a "sleep” state where the screen dims. This is done for the purposes of conserving power. However, applications that don't have user input except for the accelerometer—games, for instance—can, by setting this property to YES, disable the “idle timer” to avert system sleep. Important: You should set this property only if necessary and should be sure to reset it to NO when the need no longer exists. Most applications should let the system turn off the screen when the idle timer elapses. This includes audio applications. With appropriate use of Audio Session Services, playback and recording proceed uninterrupted when the screen turns off. The only applications that should disable the idle timer are mapping applications, games, or similar programs with sporadic user interaction. Has anyone come across this problem? I am testing on iOS6 and iOS5. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • XML digital signature interface

    - by yeekang
    I am trying to call a WebService and it requires me to prepare an XML digital signature interface. I came across this website and it shows how to sign an XML document. My problem now is that I do not create the XML document myself. My code is as follows: string myResult; GenericWS.ServicesService a = new GenericWS.ServicesService(); GenericWS.Service2 b = new GenericWS.Service2(); b.Something = "3"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("C:\\somepath\\somecert.cer"); a.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = delegate (object s, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; myResult= a.WSRequest(b).WSReturnValue.ToString(); Label1.Text = myResult; Basically, the WSRequest() will generate the body of the SOAP message. However, in order to sign the SOAP message, I need to pass in the XML file that needs to be signed. I tried to serialize the object and cast it as XML and pass it into the signature interface but I do not have another method that I can invoke to call the webmethod. Is there any other solution?

    Read the article

  • BufferedImage & ColorModel in Java

    - by spol
    I am using a image processing library in java to manipulate images.The first step I do is I read an image and create a java.awt.Image.BufferedImage object. I do it in this way, BufferedImage sourceImage = ImageIO.read( new File( filePath ) ); The above code creates a BufferedImage ojbect with a DirectColorModel: rmask=ff0000 gmask=ff00 bmask=ff amask=0. This is what happens when I run the above code on my macbook. But when I run this same code on a linux machine (hosted server), this creates a BufferedImage object with ColorModel: #pixelBits = 24 numComponents = 3 color space = java.awt.color.ICC_ColorSpace@c39a20 transparency = 1 has alpha = false isAlphaPre = false. And I use the same jpg image in both the cases. I don't know why the color model on the same image is different when run on mac and linux. The colormodel for mac has 4 components and the colormodel for linux has 3 components.There is a problem arising because of this, the image processing library that I use always assumes that there are always 4 components in the colormodel of the image passed, and it throws array out of bounds exception when run on linux box. But on macbook, it runs fine. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong or there is a problem with the library. Please let me know your thoughts. Also ask me any questions if I am not making sense!

    Read the article

  • Reflection and Generics get value of property

    - by GigaPr
    Hi i am trying to implement a generic method which allows to output csv file public static void WriteToCsv<T>(List<T> list) where T : new() { const string attachment = "attachment; filename=PersonList.csv"; HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); HttpContext.Current.Response.ClearHeaders(); HttpContext.Current.Response.ClearContent(); HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", attachment); HttpContext.Current.Response.ContentType = "text/csv"; HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Pragma", "public"); bool isFirstRow = true; foreach (T item in list) { //Get public properties PropertyInfo[] propertyInfo = item.GetType().GetProperties(); while (isFirstRow) { WriteColumnName(propertyInfo); isFirstRow = false; } Type type = typeof (T); StringBuilder stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); foreach (PropertyInfo info in propertyInfo) { //string value ???? I am trying to get the value of the property info for the item object } HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(stringBuilder.ToString()); HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(Environment.NewLine); } HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } but I am not able to get the value of the object's property Any suggestion? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How would I associate a "Note" class to 4+ classes without creating lookup table for each associatio

    - by Gthompson83
    Im creating a project tasklist application. I have project, section, task, issue classes, and would like to use one class to be able to add simple notes to any object instance of those classes. The task, issue tables both use a standard identity field as a primary key. The section table has a two field primary key. The project table has a single int primary key defined by the user. Is there a way to associate the note class with each of these without using a seperate lookup table for each class? I'm not so sure my original idea is a decent way to implement this. I considered the following (each variable mapping to a field n the notes table. Private _NoteId As Integer Private _ProjectId As Integer Private _SectionId As Integer Private _SectionId2 As Integer Private _TaskId As Integer Private _IssueId As Integer Private _Note As String Private _UserId As Guid Then I would be able to write seperate methods (getProjectNotes, getTaskNotes) to get notes attached to each class. I started writing this a few weeks ago but got pulled away before i could finish. When revisiting this code today my first thought "this is retarded". Thoughts on drawbacks to this design?

    Read the article

  • how do i make the app take correct input..?

    - by user1824343
    This is my windows app's one layout which converts Celsius to Fahrenheit. The problem is that when I try to input the temperature it shows some junk(for eg: if i enter '3' it displayin '3.0000009') and sometimes its even showing stack overflow exception. The output is also not shown properly : cel.text is the textbox for celsius. fahre.text is the textbox for fahrenheit. namespace PanoramaApp1 { public partial class FahretoCel : PhoneApplicationPage { public FahretoCel() { InitializeComponent(); } private void fahre_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (fahre.Text != "") { try { double F = Convert.ToDouble(fahre.Text); cel.Text = "" + ((5.0/9.0) * (F - 32)) ; //this is conversion expression } catch (FormatException) { fahre.Text = ""; cel.Text = ""; } } else { cel.Text = ""; } } private void cel_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (cel.Text != "") { try { Double c = Convert.ToDouble(cel.Text); fahre.Text = "" + ((c *(9.0 / 5.0 )) + 32); } catch (FormatException) { fahre.Text = ""; cel.Text = ""; } } else { fahre.Text = ""; } } } }

    Read the article

  • How to translate the fields of a database model?

    - by Tõnis M
    I have some tables/models in a web app that will have multilingual content. For example a university, with it's description in a default language(english) and the user wants he can see the same information in another language( if the object has it's fields translated). If there were only a few languages then I would just add fields like name_en and name_de and so on, but the number of languages isn't fixed, so that' would create a mess. I could also just create a new object with the translated data but then foreign keys wouldn't work, and only some of the fields can be translated so that would create duplicate data. Storing the translations in a file and using gettext or something similar is also not an option since the objects fields can be translated by the website user, not only developers/admins. What would be the best way to design/architect such a database? Searching from the translated data should also be not too complex - as it should not require creating complex joins which would make the queries slower I'm using PostgreSQL and Ruby of Rails but I'm not looking for a technical solution but for a general idea how to design it.

    Read the article

  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I make this simple C# generics factory work?

    - by Kevin Brassen
    I have this design: public interface IFactory<T> { T Create(); T CreateWithSensibleDefaults(); } public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... The fictitious Apple and Banana here do not necessarily share any common types (other than object, of course). I don't want clients to have to depend on specific factories, so instead, you can just ask a FactoryManager for a new type. It has a FactoryForType method: IFactory<T> FactoryForType<T>(); Now you can invoke the appropriate interface methods with something like FactoryForType<Apple>().Create(). So far, so good. But there's a problem at the implementation level: how do I store this mapping from types to IFactory<T>s? The naive answer is an IDictionary<Type, IFactory<T>>, but that doesn't work since there's no type covariance on the T (I'm using C# 3.5). Am I just stuck with an IDictionary<Type, object> and doing the casting manually?

    Read the article

  • how to fill missing values from a list

    - by Stephane
    I have an object containing a date and a count. public class Stat { public DateTime Stamp {get; set;} public int Count {get; set ;} } I have a Serie object that holds a list of thoses Stat plus some more info such as name and so on... public class Serie { public string Name { get; set; } public List<Stat> Data { get; set; } ... } Consider that I have a List of Serie but the series don't all contain the same Stamps. I need to fill in the missing stamps in all series with a default value. I thought of an extension method with signature like this (please provide better name if you find one :) ) : public static IEnumerable<Serie> Equalize(this IEnumerable<ChartSerie> series, int defaultCount) this question seems to treat the same problem, but when querying directly the DB. of course I could loop through the dates and create another list. But is there any more elegant way to achieve this? i.e.: Serie A: 01.05.2010 1 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 I should get : Serie A : 01.05.2010 1 02.05.2010 0 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 03.05.2010 0

    Read the article

  • Returning objects in php

    - by user220201
    I see similar questions asked but I seem to have problem with more basic stuff than were asked. How to declare a variable in php? My specific problem is I have a function that reads a DB table and returns the record (only one) as an object. class User{ public $uid; public $name; public $status; } function GetUserInfo($uid) { // Query DB $userObj = new User(); // convert the result into the User object. var_dump($userObj); return $userObj; } // In another file I call the above function. .... $newuser = GetUserInfo($uid); var_dump($newuser); What is the problem here, I cannot understand. Essentially the var_dump() in the function GetUserInfo() works fine. The var_dump() outside after the call to GetUserInfo() does not work. Thanks for any help. S

    Read the article

  • Problem FlashVars parameter asp.net

    - by sofie-vo
    Code for asp.net page <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="trainingupload.aspx.vb" Inherits="trainingupload" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div height> <object width="1000" height="800"> <param name="movie" value="player.swf" /> <param name="FlashVars" value='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" '/> <embed src="bin-release/trainingscentrum.swf" FlashVars='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" ' width="1500" height="800" /> </embed> </object> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind Public Function getuser() As Guid Dim user As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() Dim userid As Guid = (CType(user.ProviderUserKey, Guid)) Return userid End Function In the code above I use an function to return the userid. When I replace <%=String.Format(getuser())% with an actual userid, I get the value in my flex application. But this code returns nothing. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How do software events work internally?

    - by Duddle
    Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to update csv column names with database table header

    - by user1523311
    I am facing this problem some past days and now frustrate because I have to do it. I need to update my CSV file columns name with database table header. My database table fields are different from CSV file. Now the problem is that first I want to update column name of CSV file with database table headers and then import its data with field mapping into database. Please help me I don't know how I can solve this. This is my php code: $file = $_POST['fileName']; $filename = "../files/" . $file; $list = $_POST['str']; $array_imp = implode(',', $list); $array_exp = explode(',', $array_imp); $fp = fopen("../files/" . $file, "w"); $num = count($fp); for ($c = 0; $c < $num; $c++) { if ($fp[c] !== '') { fputcsv($fp, $array_exp); } } fclose($fp);

    Read the article

  • How can I prevent infinite recursion when using events to bind UI elements to fields?

    - by Billy ONeal
    The following seems to be a relatively common pattern (to me, not to the community at large) to bind a string variable to the contents of a TextBox. class MyBackEndClass { public event EventHandler DataChanged; string _Data; public string Data { get { return _Data; } set { _Data = value; //Fire the DataChanged event } } } class SomeForm : // Form stuff { MyBackEndClass mbe; TextBox someTextBox; SomeForm() { someTextBox.TextChanged += HandleTextBox(); mbe.DataChanged += HandleData(); } void HandleTextBox(Object sender, EventArgs e) { mbe.Data = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } void HandleData(Object sender, EventArgs e) { someTextBox.Text = ((MyBackEndClass) sender).Data; } } The problem is that changing the TextBox fires the changes the data value in the backend, which causes the textbox to change, etc. That runs forever. Is there a better design pattern (other than resorting to a nasty boolean flag) that handles this case correctly? EDIT: To be clear, in the real design the backend class is used to synchronize changes between multiple forms. Therefore I can't just use the SomeTextBox.Text property directly. Billy3

    Read the article

  • Dynamically change embedded video src in IE/Chrome (works in Firefox)

    - by macca1
    I'm trying to dynamically change an embedded video on a page. It's working in Firefox but for some reason it's not working in IE and Chrome (strange combination). Here's the HTML: <object id="viewer" width="575" height="344"> <param name="wmode" value="transparent" /> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/Lmn94kn08Lw&hl=en&fs=1&color1=0x006699&color2=0x54abd6&rel=0" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true" /> <embed id="embeddedPlayer" src="http://www.youtube.com/v/Lmn94kn08Lw&hl=en&fs=1&color1=0x006699&color2=0x54abd6&rel=0" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowfullscreen="true" width="575" height="344" wmode="transparent"></embed> </object> And here's my javascript code. A link is clicked to change the video: $("#video a").click( function() { var videoAddress = $(this).attr("href"); $("#embeddedPlayer").attr("src", videoAddress); return false; // stop the default link so it just reloads in the video player } ); Like I said the videos are changing perfectly in Firefox but in IE and Chrome nothing happens. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • xpath php attributes not working?

    - by Jared
    Getting this error Call to a member function attributes() on a non-object I have found multiple answers to this on SO, but none of them seem to solve my problem? Here is the XML: <Routes> <Route type="source" name="incoming"> </Route> <Routes> Here is the PHP: $doc = new SimpleXMLElement('routingConfig.xml', null, true); class traverseXML { function getData() { global $doc; $routeCount = count($doc -> xpath("Route")); //this value returns correctly $routeArr = array(); for ($i = 1; $i <= $routeCount; $i++) { $name = $doc -> Route[$i] -> attributes() -> name; array_push($routeArr, $name); } return $routeArr; } } $traverseXML = new traverseXML; var_dump($traverseXML -> getData()); I understand what the error means, but how is it a non-object? How do I return the name attribute of Routes/Route[1] ?

    Read the article

  • Which way to store this data is effective?

    - by Tattat
    I am writing a game, which need a map, and I want to store the map. The first thing I can think of, is using a 2D-array. But the problem is what data should I store in the 2D-array. The player can tap different place to have different reaction. So, I am thinking store a 2D-array with objects, when player click some position, and I find it in the array, and use the object in that array to execute a cmd. But I have a concern that storing lots of object may use lots of memory. So, I am think storing char/int only. But it seems that not enough for me. I want to store the data like that: { Type:1 Color:Green } No matter what color is, if they are all type 1, the have same reactions in logic, but the visual effect is based on the color. So, it is not easy to store using a prue char/int data, unless I make something like this: 1-5 --> all type 1. 1=color green , 2=color red, 3 = color yellow.... ... 6-10 --> all type 2. 2 = color green, 2 = color red ... ... So, do you have any ideas on how to minimize the ram use, but also easy for me to read... ...thx

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have WAMP run httpd.exe as user [myself] instead of local SYSTEM?

    - by Olivier H
    Hello! I run a django application over apache with mod_wsgi, using WAMP. A certain URL allows me to stream the content of image files, the paths of which are stored in database. The files can be located whether on local machine or under network drive (\my\network\folder). With the development server (manage.py runserver), I have no trouble at all reading and streaming the files. With WAMP, and with network drive files, I get a IOError : obviously because the httpd instance does not have read permission on said drive. In the task manager, I see that httpd.exe is run by SYSTEM. I would like to tell WAMP to run the server as [myself] as I have read and write permissions on the shared folder. (eventually, the production server should be run by a 'www-admin' user having the permissions) Mapping the network shared folder on a drive letter (Z: for instance) does not solve this at all. The User/Group directives in httpd.conf do not seem to have any kind of influence on Apache's behaviour. I've also regedited : I tried to duplicate the HKLM[...]\wampapache registry key under HK_CURRENT_USER\ and rename the original key, but then the new key does not seem to be found when I cmd this > httpd.exe -n wampapache -k start or when I run WAMP. I've run out of ideas :) Has anybody ever had the same issue?

    Read the article

  • Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Any techniques to interrupt, kill, or otherwise unwind (releasing synchronization locks) a single de

    - by gojomo
    I have a long-running process where, due to a bug, a trivial/expendable thread is deadlocked with a thread which I would like to continue, so that it can perform some final reporting that would be hard to reproduce in another way. Of course, fixing the bug for future runs is the proper ultimate resolution. Of course, any such forced interrupt/kill/stop of any thread is inherently unsafe and likely to cause other unpredictable inconsistencies. (I'm familiar with all the standard warnings and the reasons for them.) But still, since the only alternative is to kill the JVM process and go through a more lengthy procedure which would result in a less-complete final report, messy/deprecated/dangerous/risky/one-time techniques are exactly what I'd like to try. The JVM is Sun's 1.6.0_16 64-bit on Ubuntu, and the expendable thread is waiting-to-lock an object monitor. Can an OS signal directed to an exact thread create an InterruptedException in the expendable thread? Could attaching with gdb, and directly tampering with JVM data or calling JVM procedures allow a forced-release of the object monitor held by the expendable thread? Would a Thread.interrupt() from another thread generate a InterruptedException from the waiting-to-lock frame? (With some effort, I can inject an arbitrary beanshell script into the running system.) Can the deprecated Thread.stop() be sent via JMX or any other remote-injection method? Any ideas appreciated, the more 'dangerous', the better! And, if your suggestion has worked in personal experience in a similar situation, the best!

    Read the article

  • Can this line of code really throw an IndexOutOfRange exception?

    - by Jonathan M
    I am getting an IndexOutOfRange exception on the following line of code: var searchLastCriteria = (SearchCriteria)Session.GetSafely(WebConstants.KeyNames.SEARCH_LAST_CRITERIA); I'll explain the above here: SearchCriteria is an Enum with only two values Session is the HttpSessionState GetSafely is an extension method that looks like this: public static object GetSafely(this HttpSessionState source, string key) { try { return source[key]; } catch (Exception exc) { log.Info(exc); return null; } } WebConstants.KeyNames.SEARCH_LAST_CRITERIA is simply a constant I've tried everything to replicate this error, but I cannot reproduce it. I am beginning to think the stack trace is wrong. I thought perhaps the exception was actually coming from the GetSafely call, but it is swallowing the exceptions, so that can't be the case, and even if it was, it should show up in the stack trace. Is there anything in the line of code above that could possible throw an IndexOutOfRange exception? I know the line will throw an NullReferenceException if GetSafely returns null, and it will also throw an InvalidCastException if it returns anything that cannot be cast to SearchCriteria, but an IndexOutOfRange exception? I'm scratching my head here. Here is the stack trace: $LOG--> 2010-06-11 07:01:33,814 [ERROR] SERVERA (14) Web.Global - Index was outside the bounds of the array. System.Web.HttpUnhandledException: Exception of type 'System.Web.HttpUnhandledException' was thrown. ---> System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at IterateSearchResult(Boolean next) in C:\Projects\Web\UserControls\AccountHeader.ascx.cs:line 242 at nextAccountLink_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Projects\Web\UserControls\AccountHeader.ascx.cs:line 232

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687  | Next Page >