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  • Value objects in DDD - Why immutable?

    - by Hobbes
    I don't get why value objects in DDD should be immutable, nor do I see how this is easily done. (I'm focusing on C# and Entity Framework, if that matters.) For example, let's consider the classic Address value object. If you needed to change "123 Main St" to "123 Main Street", why should I need to construct a whole new object instead of saying myCustomer.Address.AddressLine1 = "123 Main Street"? (Even if Entity Framework supported structs, this would still be a problem, wouldn't it?) I understand (I think) the idea that value objects don't have an identity and are part of a domain object, but can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing? EDIT: My final question here really should be "Can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing as applied to Value Objects?" Sorry for the confusion! EDIT: To clairfy, I am not asking about CLR value types (vs reference types). I'm asking about the higher level DDD concept of Value Objects. For example, here is a hack-ish way to implement immutable value types for Entity Framework: http://rogeralsing.com/2009/05/21/entity-framework-4-immutable-value-objects. Basically, he just makes all setters private. Why go through the trouble of doing this?

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  • Can't connect to MySql database from server using Devart

    - by annelie
    Hello, I'm having trouble connecting to a MySql database from a server. I'm using Devart to connect, and I'm not sure if I need to do something more than to simply reference the dlls. When I started working on this project it was referencing the CoreLabs dlls, which if I've understood is the previous name for Devart. That didn't work, so I downloaded the new Devart dlls instead. It works on my local machine, but when uploading to the server it crashes. I made a tiny console app to test the connection, and it fails when initialising, before I've even assigned a host etc. Do I need to do anything more than just upload my .exe file to the server? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using Devart.Data; using Devart.Data.MySql; namespace TestDatabaseConnection { public class Program { public static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("about to connect"); ConnectToDatabase(); Console.ReadLine(); } public static void ConnectToDatabase() { MySqlConnection connection = new MySqlConnection(); } } } UPDATE: I can't see what the error is, I had a try catch around MySqlConnection connection = new MySqlConnection(); but no exception is thrown, it just crashes. Thanks, Annelie

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  • Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

    - by erlord
    Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

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  • [Cocoa] Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

    - by ndg
    I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but is extremely patch. On occasion, clicking to edit a row will cause its value to nullify. On other occasions, the value you enter on one row will populate other rows within the table. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • SCD2 + Merge Statement + SQL Server

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My MERGE statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My MERGE Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am I doing wrong ?

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  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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  • Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

    - by Shaul
    I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

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  • How to exit grid with ctrl-TAB when grid is on a tabpage (onkeydown works when grid not on tabpage)

    - by Charles Hankey
    winforms .net 3.5 Ultrawingrid 9.2 In my subclass of Ultrawingrid.Ultragrid : Protected Overrides Sub OnKeyDown(ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventArgs) If e.KeyCode = Windows.Forms.Keys.Tab andalso e.control = True then SetFocusToNextControl(True) End if Mybase.OnKeyDown(e) End Sub This works fine. But when the grid is dropped on a TabControl tabpage, the ctrl-tab looks very different to the sub above. e.keycode is seen as controlkey {17} I realize that by default cntrl-Tab moves between tabpages. I need to override this behavior. My thought is I probably need a subclass of the tabControl which will pass the keycombo through just as the form does but I confess to being clueless as to how to accomplish that. I tried to override the onkeydown of a tabcontrol subclass and just issuing a return and not and base call to onkeydown if the ctrl-tab combo was pressed but it seemed to see the e.keycode as controlkey as well. FWIW I tried a different combination like ctrl-E and got pretty much the same result with focus disappearing from the grid but not going anywhere I could detect. The sub still saw the e.control as controlkey. Oddly, ctrl-X, ctrl-A etc all work in the grid and a ctrl-Delete combo I put in the subclass for deleting a row works fine. Once again - grid directly on form and it all works. I'm definitely over my head on this one. Guidance much appreciated. vb or c# fine. TIA

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  • Passing data back from detailViewController to Uitableview

    - by jsetting32
    I am currently at the issue where I have a UITableviewCell that needs to be updated. When the user presses on the uitableviewcell - THERES ONLY 1!!, the user is pushed to a UITABLEVIEWCONTROLLER where the user is allowed to select 1 of multiple cells with their own titles. I need to get the clicked tableviewcells title and pass the value back to the parentviewcontroller and update the 1 tableviewcell's name to the one the user clicked in the pushed uitableivewcontroller. Here is a picture of the parent viewcontroller... And heres the picture of the pushed viewcontroller.... I was told earlier yesterday that delegation would be needed but I am unsure what to do at this point :/. Heres some code I use in the parent viewcontroller... - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; ProblemTypes *view = [[ProblemTypes alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:view animated:YES]; } I am also NOT USING storyboards, just a few xibs. Also heres the code for the pushedviewcontroller to pop to the parent viewcontroller when a cell is selected... #pragma mark - Table view delegate - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; NSLog(@"Cell's text: %@",cell.textLabel.text); [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } Thank you guys!

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  • Error Converting PIL B&W images to Numpy Arrays

    - by Elliot
    I am getting weird errors when I try to convert a black and white PIL image to a numpy array. An example of the code I am working with is below. if image.mode != '1': image = image.convert('1') #convert to B&W data = np.array(image) #convert data to a numpy array n_lines = data.shape[0] #number of raster passes line_range = range(data.shape[1]) for l in range(n_lines): # process one horizontal line of the image line = data[l] for n in line_range: if line[n] == 1: write_line_to(xl, z+scale*n, speed) #conversion to other program code elif line[n] == 0: run_to(xl, z+scale*n) #conversion to other program code I have tried this using both array and asarray for the conversion, and gotten different errors. If I use array, then the data I get out is nothing like what I put in. It looks like several very shrunken partial images side by side, with the remainder of the image space filled in in black. If I use asarray, then the entirety of python crashes during the raster step (on a random line). If I work with a greyscale image ('L'), then neither of these errors occurs for either array or asarray. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong? Is there something odd about the way PIL encodes B&W images, or something special I need to pass numpy to make it convert properly?

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  • Httaccess Rewriting URL issue: how to distinguish Listing and detail page

    - by Asad kamran
    I am developing an commerce site, Where users can post items in any categories( categories can be 2 to 4 levels) I want to generate URL for listing and details pages: Listing page will show list of items in inner category Detail Page will show all information for item in inner category (Inner category means Last Category in hierarchic i.e. in classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/ inner mean "lancer" Here are the Links i want to generate 1) www.example.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/ (for Listing) 2) www.example.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/2011/3/12/lanc er-2002-in-good-condition-14/ (for detail) I want to redirect to ads.php if just 4 categories exist in url and to detail.php if 6 items are passed(4 category name + 2 date and title) I write these rules: listing ads RewriteRule ^(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ ads.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4 [NC,L] Detail pages RewriteRule ^(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ detail.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4&dt=$5&at=$6 [NC,L] But all the sites page redirect to ads.php (Listing page) even home page. I changes the rules as follow: (Even though i donot want to Use Listing and Detail in start of url Why as i see on some site as i want:: dubai.dubizzle.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/2011/3/12/l ancer-2002-in-good-condition-14/) Listing pages RewriteRule ^Listing/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ ads.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4 [NC,L] Detail pages RewriteRule ^Detail/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ detail.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4&dt=$5&at=$6 [NC,L] Now all other pages are fine, but when i pass www.example.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/2011/3/12/lanc er-2002-in-good-condition-14/ it always goes to Listing page (ads.php) not to detail page. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Embedded Jetty resourceBase classpath URL

    - by drewzilla
    I'm embedding Jetty in a Spring based application. I configure my Jetty server in a Spring context file. The specific part of the configuration I'm having trouble with is this: <bean class="org.eclipse.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <property name="contextPath" value="/" /> <property name="resourceBase" value="????????" /> <property name="parentLoaderPriority" value="true" /> </bean> If you see above, where I've put the ????????, I ideally want the resourceBase to reference a folder on my classpath. I'm deploying my application in a single executable JAR file and have a folder config/web/WEB-INF on my classpath. Jetty seems to be able to handle URLs defined in the resourceBase (e.g. jar:file:/myapp.jar!/config/web) but it doesn't seem to support classpath URLs. I get an IllegalArgumentException if I define something like classpath:config/web. This is a real pain for me. Does anyone know of anyway to achieve this functionality? Thanks, Andrew

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  • JS: capture a static snapshot of an object at a point in time with a method

    - by Barney
    I have a JS object I use to store DOM info for easy reference in an elaborate GUI. It starts like this: var dom = { m:{ old:{}, page:{x:0,y:0}, view:{x:0,y:0}, update:function(){ this.old = this; this.page.x = $(window).width(); this.page.y = $(window).height(); this.view.x = $(document).width(); this.view.y = window.innerHeight || $(window).height(); } I call the function on window resize: $(window).resize(function(){dom.m.update()}); The problem is with dom.m.old. I would have thought that by calling it in the dom.m.update() method before the new values for the other properties are assigned, at any point in time dom.m.old would contain a snapshot of the dom.m object as of the last update – but instead, it's always identical to dom.m. I've just got a pointless recursion method. Why isn't this working? How can I get a static snapshot of the object that won't update without being specifically told to? Comments explaining how I shouldn't even want to be doing anything remotely like this in the first place are very welcome :)

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  • Separating columnName and Value in C#

    - by KungfuPanda
    hi, I have a employee object as shown below class emp { public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } I need to create a mapping either in this class or a different class to map the properties with column name of my SQL for eg. EmpdID="employeeID" EmpName="EmployeeName" deptID="DepartmentID" When from my asp.net page when I create the employee class and pass it to a function: for eg: emp e=new emp(); e.EmpID=1; e.EmpName="tommy"; e.deptID=10; When the emp object is populated and passed to the buildValues function it should return array of ComumnName(e.g.employeeID):Value(e.g.1),EmployeeName:tommy,DepartmentID:10) string[] values=buildValues(emp); public string[] buildValues(emp e) { string[] values=null; return values; } I have 2 questions: 1. Where do I specify the mappings 2. How do I use the mappings in my buildValues function shown above and build the values string array. I would really appreciate if you can help me with this

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  • Passing data structures to different threads

    - by Robb
    I have an application that will be spawning multiple threads. However, I feel there might be an issue with threads accessing data that they shouldn't be. I'm relatively new to threading so bare with me. Here is the structure of the threaded application (sorry for the crudeness): MainThread / \ / \ / \ Thread A Thread B / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ Thread A_1 Thread A_2 Thread B_1 Thread B_2 Under each lettered thread (which could be many), there will only be two threads and they are fired of sequentially. The issue i'm having is I'm not entirely sure how to pass in a datastructure into these threads. So, the datastructure is created in MainThread, will be modified in the lettered thread (Thread A, etc) specific to that thread and then a member variable from that datastructure is sent to Letter_Numbered threads. Currently, the lettered thread class has a member variable and when the class is constructed, the datastructure from mainthread is passed in by reference, invoking the copy constructor so the lettered thread has it's own copy to play with. The lettered_numbered thread simply takes in a string variable from the data structure within the lettered thread. My question is, is this accceptable? Is there a much better way to ensure each lettered thread gets its own data structure to play with? Sorry for the somewhat poor explanation, please leave comments and i'll try to clarify.

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  • Template operator linker error

    - by Dani
    I have a linker error I've reduced to a simple example. The build output is: debug/main.o: In function main': C:\Users\Dani\Documents\Projects\Test1/main.cpp:5: undefined reference tolog& log::operator<< (char const (&) [6])' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status It looks like the linker ignores the definition in log.cpp. I also cant put the definition in log.h because I include the file alot of times and it complains about redefinitions. main.cpp: #include "log.h" int main() { log() << "hello"; return 0; } log.h: #ifndef LOG_H #define LOG_H class log { public: log(); template<typename T> log &operator <<(T &t); }; #endif // LOG_H log.cpp: #include "log.h" #include <iostream> log::log() { } template<typename T> log &log::operator <<(T &t) { std::cout << t << std::endl; return *this; }

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  • new Facebook Like button for Blogger

    - by David
    I want to add the new facebook like button to my blogger website. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/plugins/like I have to pass the url to the blog posts in the iframe src tag. I can get the blogger posts url from <data:post.url/> but I can't put that in a src string because Bloggers template system is weird. I want to do this:<iframe allowTransparency='true' frameborder='0' scrolling='no' src='http://www.facebook.com/plugins/like.php?href=<data:post.url/>&amp;layout=standard&amp;show-faces=true&amp;width=450&amp;action=like&amp;colorscheme=light' style='border:none; overflow:hidden; width:450px; height:px'/>but blogger complains: "Your template could not be parsed as it is not well-formed. Please make sure all XML elements are closed properly. XML error message: The value of attribute "src" associated with an element type "null" must not contain the '<' character." Anybody have this working yet?

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  • JavaScript: Achieving precise animation end values?

    - by bobthabuilda
    I'm currently trying to write my own JavaScript library. I'm in the middle of writing an animation callback, but I'm having trouble getting precise end values, especially when animation duration times are smaller. Right now, I'm only targeting positional animation (left, top, right, bottom). When my animations complete, they end up having an error margin of 5px~ on faster animations, and 0.5px~ on animations 1000+ ms or greater. Here's the bulk of the callback, with notes following. var current = parseFloat( this[0].style[prop] || 0 ) // If our target value is greater than the current , gt = !!( value > current ) , delta = ( Math.abs(current - value) / (duration / 13) ) * (gt ? 1 : -1) , elem = this[0] , anim = setInterval( function(){ elem.style[prop] = ( current + delta ) + 'px'; current = parseFloat( elem.style[prop] ); if ( gt && current >= value || !gt && current <= value ) clearInterval( anim ); }, 13 ); this[0] and elem both reference the target DOM element. prop references the property to animate, left, top, bottom, right, etc. current is the current value of the DOM element's property. value is the desired value to animate to. duration is the specified duration (in ms) that the animation should last. 13 is the setInterval delay (which should roughly be the absolute minimal for all browsers). gt is a var that is true if value exceeds the initial current, else it is false. How can I resolve the error margin?

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  • C# How to perform a live xslt transformation on an in memory object?

    - by JL
    I have a function that takes 2 parameters : 1 = XML file, 2 = XSLT file, then performs a transformation and returns the resulting HTML. Here is the function: /// <summary> /// Will apply an XSLT style to any XML file and return the rendered HTML. /// </summary> /// <param name="xmlFileName"> /// The file name of the XML document. /// </param> /// <param name="xslFileName"> /// The file name of the XSL document. /// </param> /// <returns> /// The rendered HTML. /// </returns> public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } I want to change the function not to accept a file for the XML, but instead just an object. The object is exactly compatible with the xslt, if it was serialized to file. But I don't want to have to serialize it to a file first. So to recap : keep the xslt coming from a file, but the xml input should an object I pass and would like to generate the xml from without any file system interaction.

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  • Rspec Selenium. Test to check certain Ajax functions passes when i expect it to fail.

    - by alokswain
    I am testing a Ajax action using Rspec and Selenium. My story is as follows: it "should create a new User with any input" do @browser.open "/people" @browser.wait_for_page_to_load "2000" @browser.type "user_name", "Alok Swain" @browser.click "user_submit" @browser.text?("Alok Swain").should be_true end The action i am testing is: def add_user @users = User.all User.create(params[:user]) render :update do |page| page.alert "Created User" page.replace_html "users", :partial => '/people/users_list', :locals => {:users => @users} end end The test fails and the error I get is: 'User should create a new User with any input' FAILED expected false to be true. This test should pass right ? I also kept an alert and tried @browser.is_alert_present.should be_true but i got the same error. I tried @browser.is_text_present("test") and this test succeeded. In the test database a record was created for Alok Swain but when I tried the above assertion it passed when i expected it to fail. Is there any thing else to be done here. What am I missing ?

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  • Super simple CSS tooltip in a table, why is it not displaying and can I make it work?

    - by Kyle Sevenoaks
    Hi, I have been trying to implement many different tooltips on this page for my client, he's adamant that we have a picture of the product show up when you hover over the product name in the order page. I decided to use the super simple CSS tooltip, it's very easy to implement and does exactly what we want. It works on a dynamic page, the others I tried didn't. I have made an example here: CSS tooltip in table example. This page used to be displayed using divs, I have since changed it to a table, as it's tabular data and easier to work with. It worked fine when it used divs, now it's in a table, it won't display the span on hover. My questions are: Why is it not working? How can I make it work? If not, does anyone know another super easy to implement tooltip that can work properly on a dynamic page? Here's the DIV tooltip for reference: DIV display tooltip. Edit: Just noticed it kinda half works in IE8. Thanks.

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  • How do I add and remove an event listener using a function with parameters?

    - by Bungle
    Sorry if this is a common question, but I couldn't find any answers that seemed pertinent through searching. If I attach an event listener like this: window.addEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); it doesn't seem to work to try to remove it later, like this: window.removeEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); I assume this is because the addEventListener and removeEventListener methods want a reference to the same function, while I've provided them with anonymous functions, which, while identical in code, are not literally the same. How can I change my code to get the call to removeEventListener to work? The "box" argument refers to the name of an <iframe> that I'm tracking on the screen; that is, I want to be able to subscribe to the scroll event once for each <iframe> that I have (the quantity varies), and once the check_pos() function measures a certain position, it will call another function and also remove the event listener to free up system resources. My hunch is that the solution will involve a closure and/or naming the anonymous function, but I'm not sure exactly what that looks like, and would appreciate a concrete example. Hope that makes sense. Thanks for any help!

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  • JDO difficulties in retrieving persistent vector

    - by Michael Omer
    I know there are already some posts regarding this subject, but although I tried using them as a reference, I am still stuck. I have a persistent class as follows: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObject implements IMySerializable{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) protected Key m_databaseKey; @NotPersistent private final static int END_GAME_VAR = -1000; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") protected GameObjectSet m_set; @Persistent protected int m_databaseType = IDatabaseAccess.TYPE_NONE; where GameObjectSet is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) @FetchGroup(name = "mySet", members = {@Persistent(name = "m_set")}) public class GameObjectSet { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private Vector<GameObjectSetPair> m_set; and GameObjectSetPair is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObjectSetPair { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private String key; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") private GameObjectVar value; When I try to fetch the entire structure by fetching the GameObject, the set doesn't have any elements (they are all null) I tried adding the fetching group to the PM, but to no avail. This is my fetching code Vector<GameObject> ret = new Vector<GameObject>(); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); pm.getFetchPlan().setMaxFetchDepth(-1); pm.getFetchPlan().addGroup("mySet"); Query myQuery = pm.newQuery(GameObject.class); myQuery.setFilter("m_databaseType == objectType"); myQuery.declareParameters("int objectType"); try { List<GameObject> res = (List<GameObject>)myQuery.execute(objectType); ret = new Vector<GameObject>(res); for (int i = 0; i < ret.size(); i++) { ret.elementAt(i).getSet(); ret.elementAt(i).getSet().touchSet(); } } catch (Exception e) { } finally { pm.close(); } Does anyone have any idea? Thanks Mike

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  • OOP 101 - quick question.

    - by R Bennett
    I've used procedural for sometime now and trying to get a better understanding of OOP in Php. Starting at square 1 and I have a quick question ot get this to gel. Many of the basic examples show static values ( $bob-name = "Robert";) when assigning a value, but I want to pass values... say from a form ( $name = $_POST['name']; ) class Person { // define properties public $name; public $weight; public $age; public function title() { echo $this->name . " has submitted a request "; } } $bob = new Person; // want to plug the value in here $bob->name = $name; $bob->title(); I guess I'm getting a little hung up in some areas as far as accessing variables from within the class, encapsulation & "rules", etc., can $name = $_POST['name']; reside anywhere outside of the class or am I missing an important point? Thanks

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  • Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

    - by ahsteele
    I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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