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  • Passing a paramter/object to a ruby unit/test before running it using TestRunner

    - by Nahir Khan
    I'm building a tool that automates a process then runs some tests on it's own results then goes to do some other stuff. In trying to clean up my code I have created a separate file that just has the test cases class. Now before I can run these tests, I have to pass the class a couple of parameters/objects before they can be run. Now the problem is that I can't seem to find a way to pass a parameter/object to the test class. Right now I am thinking to generate a Yaml file and read it in the test class but it feels "wrong" to use a temporary file for this. If anyone has a nicer solution that would be great! *********Edit******* Example Code of what I am doing right now: #!/usr/bin/ruby require 'test/unit/ui/console/testrunner' require 'yaml' require 'TS_SampleTestSuite' automatingSomething() importantInfo = getImportantInfo() File.open('filename.yml', 'w') do |f| f.puts importantInfo.to_yaml end Test::Unit::UI::Console::TestRunner.run(TS_SampleTestSuite) Now in the example above TS_SampleTestSuite needs importantInfo, so the first "test case" is a method that just reads in the information from the Yaml file filname.yml. I hope that clears up some confusion.

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  • Programming logic best practice - redundant checks

    - by eldblz
    I'm creating a large PHP project and I've a trivial doubt about how to proceed. Assume we got a class books, in this class I've the method ReturnInfo: function ReturnInfo($id) { if( is_numeric($id) ) { $query = "SELECT * FROM books WHERE id='" . $id . "' LIMIT 1;"; if( $row = $this->DBDrive->ExecuteQuery($query, $FetchResults=TRUE) ) { return $row; } else { return FALSE; } } else { throw new Exception('Books - ReturnInfo - id not valid.'); } } Then i have another method PrintInfo function PrintInfo($id) { print_r( $this->ReturnInfo($id) ); } Obviously the code sample are just for example and not actual production code. In the second method should I check (again) if id is numeric ? Or can I skip it because is already taken care in the first method and if it's not an exception will be thrown? Till now I always wrote code with redundant checks (no matter if already checked elsewhere i'll check it also here) Is there a best practice? Is just common sense? Thank you in advance for your kind replies.

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  • PHP: MySQL query duplicating update for no reason

    - by ThinkingInBits
    The code below is first the client code, then the class file. For some reason the 'deductTokens()' method is calling twice, thus charging an account double. I've been programming all night, so I may just need a second pair of eyes: if ($action == 'place_order') { if ($_REQUEST['unlimited'] == 200) { $license = 'extended'; } else { $license = 'standard'; } if ($photograph->isValidPhotographSize($photograph_id, $_REQUEST['size_radio'])) { $token_cost = $photograph->getTokenCost($_REQUEST['size_radio'], $_REQUEST['unlimited']); $order = new ImageOrder($_SESSION['user']['id'], $_REQUEST['size_radio'], $license, $token_cost); $order->saveOrder(); $order->deductTokens(); header('location: account.php'); } else { die("Please go back and select a valid photograph size"); } } ######CLASS CODE####### <?php include_once('database_classes.php'); class Order { protected $account_id; protected $cost; protected $license; public function __construct($account_id, $license, $cost) { $this->account_id = $account_id; $this->cost = $cost; $this->license = $license; } } class ImageOrder extends Order { protected $size; public function __construct($account_id, $size, $license, $cost) { $this->size = $size; parent::__construct($account_id, $license, $cost); } public function saveOrder() { //$db = Connect::connect(); //$account_id = $db->real_escape_string($this->account_id); //$size = $db->real_escape_string($this->size); //$license = $db->real_escape_string($this->license); //$cost = $db->real_escape_string($this->cost); } public function deductTokens() { $db = Connect::connect(); $account_id = $db->real_escape_string($this->account_id); $cost = $db->real_escape_string($this->cost); $query = "UPDATE accounts set tokens=tokens-$cost WHERE id=$account_id"; $result = $db->query($query); } } ?> When I die("$query"); directly after the query, it's printing the proper statement, and when I run that query within MySQL it works perfectly.

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  • iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

    - by Omnipresent
    I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

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  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

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  • What's the best way of accessing a DRb object (e.g. Ruby Queue) from Scala (and Java)?

    - by Tom Morris
    I have built a variety of little scripts using Ruby's very simple Queue class, and share the Queue between Ruby and JRuby processes using DRb. It would be nice to be able to access these from Scala (and maybe Java) using JRuby. I've put together something Scala and the JSR-223 interface to access jruby-complete.jar. import javax.script._ class DRbQueue(host: String, port: Int) { private var engine = DRbQueue.factory.getEngineByName("jruby") private var invoker = engine.asInstanceOf[Invocable] engine.eval("require \"drb\" ") private var queue = engine.eval("DRbObject.new(nil, \"druby://" + host + ":" + port.toString + "\")") def isEmpty(): Boolean = invoker.invokeMethod(this.queue, "empty?").asInstanceOf[Boolean] def size(): Long = invoker.invokeMethod(this.queue, "length").asInstanceOf[Long] def threadsWaiting: Long = invoker.invokeMethod(this.queue, "num_waiting").asInstanceOf[Long] def offer(obj: Any) = invoker.invokeMethod(this.queue, "push", obj.asInstanceOf[java.lang.Object]) def poll(): Any = invoker.invokeMethod(this.queue, "pop") def clear(): Unit = { invoker.invokeMethod(this.queue, "clear") } } object DRbQueue { var factory = new ScriptEngineManager() } (It conforms roughly to java.util.Queue interface, but I haven't declared the interface because it doesn't implement the element and peek methods because the Ruby class doesn't offer them.) The problem with this is the type conversion. JRuby is fine with Scala's Strings - because they are Java strings. But if I give it a Scala Int or Long, or one of the other Scala types (List, Set, RichString, Array, Symbol) or some other custom type. This seems unnecessarily hacky: surely there has got to be a better way of doing RMI/DRb interop without having to use JSR-223 API. I could either make it so that the offer method serializes the object to, say, a JSON string and takes a structural type of only objects that have a toJson method. I could then write a Ruby wrapper class (or just monkeypatch Queue) to would parse the JSON. Is there any point in carrying on with trying to access DRb from Java/Scala? Might it just be easier to install a real message queue? (If so, any suggestions for a lightweight JVM-based MQ?)

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  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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  • Qt/C++ - confused about caller/callee, object ownership

    - by Isabel
    I am creating a GUI to manipulate a robot arm. The location of the arm can be described by 6 floats (describing the positions of the various arm joints. The interface consists of a QGraphicsView with a diagram of the arm (which can be clicked to change the arm position - adjusting the 6 floats). The interface also has 6 lineEdit boxes, to also adjust those values separately. When the graphics view is clicked, and when the line edit boxes are changed, I'd like the line edit boxes / graphics view to stay in synchronisation. This brings me to confusion about how to store the 6 floats, and trigger events when they're updated. My current idea is this: The robot arm's location should be represented by a class, RobotArmLocation. Objects of this class then have methods such as obj.ShoulderRotation() and obj.SetShoulderRotation(). The MainWindow has a single instance of RobotArmLocation. Next is the bit I'm more confused about, how to join everything up. I am thinking: The MainWindow has a ArmLocationChanged slot. This is signalled whenever the location object is changed. The diagram class will have a SetRobotArmLocation(RobotArmLocation &loc). When the diagram is changed, it's free to change the location object, and fire a signal to the ArmLocationChanged slot. Likewise, changing any of the text boxes will fire a signal to that ArmLocationChanged slot. The slot then has code to synchronise all the elements. This kind of seems like a mess to me, does anyone have any other suggestions? I've also thought of the following, does it have any merrit? The RobotArmLocation class has a ValueChanged slot, the diagram and textboxes can use that directly, and bypass the MainWindow directly (seems cleaner?) thanks for any wisdom!

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  • List overwriting data on all positions

    - by elvispt
    I created a class with 3 fields: class Gente { int _ID; string _nome, _sexo; public Gente() { _ID = 0; _nome = ""; _sexo = ""; } public int ID { set { _ID = value; } get { return _ID; } } public string Nome { set { _nome = value; } get { return _nome; } } public string Sexo { set { _sexo = value; } get { return _sexo; } } } Then I declared a List from that class and an object from that class so that I can be able to add to the List. List<Gente> Alunos = new List<Gente>(); Gente professor = new Gente(); The first time I do the Alunos.Add(professor); to the list it correctly sends the information to the 0 position. But when I do it second time it overwrites everything on position 0 with the new data besides adding the new data to a new position, 1.

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  • Measuring how "heavily linked" a node is in a graph

    - by Eduardo León
    I have posted this question at MathOverflow.com as well. I am no mathematician and English is not my first language, so please excuse me if my question is too stupid, it is poorly phrased, or both. I am developing a program that creates timetables. My timetable-creating algorithm, besides creating the timetable, also creates a graph whose nodes represent each class I have already programmed, and whose arcs represent which pairs of classes should not be programmed at the same time, even if they have to be reprogrammed. The more "heavily linked" a node is, the more inflexible its associated class is with respect to being reprogrammed. Sometimes, in the middle of the process, there will be no option but to reprogram a class that has already been programmed. I want my program to be able to choose a class that, if reprogrammed, affects the least possible number of other already-programmed classes. That would mean choosing a node in the graph that is "not very heavily linked", subject to some constraints with respect to which nodes can be chosen. EDIT: The question was... Do you know any algorithm that measures how "heavily linked" a node is?

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  • MEF Import Composition Issues

    - by Tim
    I've read all the questions I can find regarding the issues of composing imports without exporting the containing class but I can't find a solution to my problem. Does anybody know a way to achieve what I'm trying to do? My module assemblies have forms and classes which they use internally. These forms need access to some of the exported contracts but imports are not loaded as they are not in the MEF 'composition tree' Host assembly: public class Host { public Host() { /* Compose parts here... */ } [Export(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } [Export(typeof(IModule))] public List<IModule> LoadedModules { get; set; } } Module assembly: [Export(typeof(IModule))] public class Module : IModule { public Module() { } public void DoSomething() { SubForm sub = new SubForm(); sub.ShowDialog(); } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This works here } public class SubForm : Form { public SubForm () { } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This doesn't work in here } As far as I can see, my options are: Pass parameters to constructors (pain) Use a dummy export on the classes that need imports satisfying? Any others?

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  • How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

    - by Lorenzo
    In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

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  • how to fetch more than 1000 entities NON keybased?

    - by user291071
    If I should be approaching this problem through a different method, please suggest so. I am creating an item based collaborative filter. I populate the db with the LinkRating2 class and for each link there are more than a 1000 users that I need to call and collect their ratings to perform calculations which I then use to create another table. So I need to call more than 1000 entities for a given link. For instance lets say there are over a 1000 users rated 'link1' there will be over a 1000 instances of this class for the given link property that I need to call. How would I complete this example? class LinkRating2(db.Model): user = db.StringProperty() link = db.StringProperty() rating2 = db.FloatProperty() query =LinkRating2.all() link1 = 'link string name' a = query.filter('link = ', link1) aa = a.fetch(1000)##how would i get more than 1000 for a given link1 as shown? ##keybased over 1000 in other post example i need method for a subset though not key class MyModel(db.Expando): @classmethod def count_all(cls): """ Count *all* of the rows (without maxing out at 1000) """ count = 0 query = cls.all().order('__key__') while count % 1000 == 0: current_count = query.count() if current_count == 0: break count += current_count if current_count == 1000: last_key = query.fetch(1, 999)[0].key() query = query.filter('__key__ > ', last_key) return count

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  • Validating Checkbox and Radio Button in C#

    - by Solution
    Hi, I am using c# for coding! Below is my html for checkbox and radion button <input type="radio" style="float: left;" name="documents" id="Checkbox9" value="yes" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 35px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGStudent")%> </label> <input type="radio" style="float: left;" name="documents" id="Checkbox10" value="no" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 25px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGParent")%> </label> <input type="radio" style="float: left;" cheked name="documents" id="Radio1" value="yes" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 35px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGStudent")%> </label> <input type="radio" style="float: left;" name="documents" id="Radio2" value="no" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 25px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGParent")%> </label> You can see I have two checkboxes and two radio buttons, My problem is that on my submit button click I want to check whether user have checked at-least one checkbox or radio button. It will be good if we can have .NET solution like (customvalidator). Please suggest! Thanks

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  • Selecting an option with given value

    - by Maven
    I am trying to select a particular option from a select list depending on the value, I have following markup: <select name="class" id="class"> <option value="1">679460ED-0B15-4ED9-B3C8-A8C276DF1C82</option> <option value="2">B99BF873-7DF0-4E7F-95FF-3F1FD1A26139</option> <option value="3">1DCD5AD7-F57C-414</option> <option value="4">6B0170AA-F044-4F9C-8BB8-31A51E452CE4</option> <option value="5">C6A8B</option> <option value="6">1BBD6FA4-335A-4D8F-8681-DFED317B8052</option> <option value="7">727D71AB-F7D1-4B83-9D6D-6BEEAAB</option> <option value="8">BC4DE8A2-C864-4C7C-B83C-EE2450AF11B1</option> <option value="9">AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM</option> <option value="10">POWER GENERATION SYSTEM</option> </select> <script> selectThisValue('#class',3); </script> in .js function selectThisValue(element,value) { console.log(value); var elem = $(element + ' option[value=' + value + ']'); console.log(elem); elem.attr("selected", "selected"); } Results for console.log are as follows: 3 [prevObject: i.fn.i.init[1], context: document, selector: "#class option[value=3]", jquery: "1.10.2", constructor: function…] But this is not working, no errors are given but nothing happens also. Please help identifying the where am I wrong.

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  • Processing more than one button click at Android Widget

    - by dive
    Hi, all. I saw this topic and implement IntentService as describes, but what if I want more that one button? How can I distinguish button from each other? I'm trying to setFlags, but cannot read it at onHandleIntent() method: public static class UpdateService extends IntentService { ... @Override public void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { ComponentName me = new ComponentName(this, ExampleProvider.class); AppWidgetManager manager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(this); manager.updateAppWidget(me, buildUpdate(this)); } private RemoteViews buildUpdate(Context context) { RemoteViews updateViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main_layout); Intent i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_refresh, pi); i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_about, pi); return updateViews; } } At this little piece of code I have two PendingIntent linked with setOnClickPendingIntent, can I distinguish this intent for different actions and processing? Thanks for help

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 - Custom route doesn't find controller action

    - by mcfroob
    For some reason my application isn't routing to my controller method correctly. I have a routelink like this in my webpage - <%= Html.RouteLink("View", "Blog", new { id=(item.BlogId), slug=(item.Slug) }) %> In global.asax.cs I have the following routes - routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "MoreBlogs", "Blog/Page/{page}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Blog", "Blog/View/{id}/{slug}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View"} ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); And then I have a class BlogController that has a method - public ActionResult View(int id, string slug) { ... etc. } I put a breakpoint in the first line of the View method but it's not getting hit at all. I checked with a route debugger for the format localhost/Blog/View/1/test and it matched my custom route. All I'm getting is a 404 while running this, I can't work out why the route won't post to the view method in my controller - any ideas?

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  • ItemUpdating called twice after ItemAdded in event receiver

    - by Jason
    I've created an event receiver to handle the ItemAdded and ItemUpdating events on a document library in SharePoint 2010. I've encountered a problem where when I add a document to the library (e.g. by saving it back from Word) the ItemAdded method is correctly called however this is then followed by two calls to ItemUpdating. I have removed all code from my handlers to ensure that it's not something I'm doing inside that is causing the problem. They literally look like: public override void ItemUpdating(SPItemEventProperties properties) { } public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { } Does anyone have a solution to this issue? Here is my elements.xml file for the event receiver: <Elements xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/"> <Receivers ListTemplateId="101"> <Receiver> <Name>DocumentsEventReceiverItemUpdating</Name> <Type>ItemUpdating</Type> <Assembly>$SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$</Assembly> <Class>My.Namespace.DocumentsEventReceiver</Class> <SequenceNumber>10000</SequenceNumber> <Synchronization>Synchronous</Synchronization> </Receiver> <Receiver> <Name>DocumentsEventReceiverItemAdded</Name> <Type>ItemAdded</Type> <Assembly>$SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$</Assembly> <Class>My.Namespace.DocumentsEventReceiver</Class> <SequenceNumber>10000</SequenceNumber> <Synchronization>Synchronous</Synchronization> </Receiver> </Receivers> </Elements>

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  • NHibernate many-to-many mapping

    - by Scozzard
    Hi, I am having an issue with many-to-many mapping using NHibernate. Basically I have 2 classes in my object model (Scenario and Skill) mapping to three tables in my database (Scenario, Skill and ScenarioSkill). The ScenarioSkills table just holds the IDs of the SKill and Scenario table (SkillID, ScenarioID). In the object model a Scenario has a couple of general properties and a list of associated skills (IList) that is obtained from the ScenarioSkills table. There is no associated IList of Scenarios for the Skill object. The mapping from Scenario and Skill to ScenarioSkill is a many-to-many relationship: Scenario * --- * ScenarioSkill * --- * Skill I have mapped out the lists as bags as I believe this is the best option to use from what I have read. The mappings are as follows: Within the Scenario class <bag name="Skills" table="ScenarioSkills"> <key column="ScenarioID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_ScenarioID"/> <many-to-many class="Domain.Skill, Domain" column="SkillID" /> </bag> And within the Skill class <bag name="Scenarios" table="ScenarioSkills" inverse="true" access="noop" cascade="all"> <key column="SkillID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_SkillID" /> <many-to-many class="Domain.Scenario, Domain" column="ScenarioID" /> </bag> Everything works fine, except when I try to delete a skill, it cannot do so as there is a reference constraint on the SkillID column of the ScenarioSkill table. Can anyone help me? I am using NHibernate 2 on an C# asp.net 3.5 web application solution.

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  • Is there an alias for 'this' in TypeScript?

    - by Todd
    I've attempted to write a class in TypeScript that has a method defined which acts as an event handler callback to a jQuery event. class Editor { textarea: JQuery; constructor(public id: string) { this.textarea = $(id); this.textarea.focusin(onFocusIn); } onFocusIn(e: JQueryEventObject) { var height = this.textarea.css('height'); // <-- This is not good. } } Within the onFocusIn event handler, TypeScript sees 'this' as being the 'this' of the class. However, jQuery overrides the this reference and sets it to the DOM object associated with the event. One alternative is to define a lambda within the constructor as the event handler, in which case TypeScript creates a sort of closure with a hidden _this alias. class Editor { textarea: JQuery; constructor(public id: string) { this.textarea = $(id); this.textarea.focusin((e) => { var height = this.textarea.css('height'); // <-- This is good. }); } } My question is, is there another way to access the this reference within the method-based event handler using TypeScript, to overcome this jQuery behavior?

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  • How to face observable object containing an observable field

    - by iseek
    Hello, I need a hint concerning MVC and Observer-Pattern. For example a model contains the classes "Address" and "Person". The Address class contains the fields street:String, zipcode:String, location:String. Whereas the Person class contains the fields name:String, firstName:String, address:Address. My approach so far looks something like this: Both, Address and Person are observable. If one of their setters is being called, I validate whether the current value and new value differ. Only in this case an update event is fired. The event contains the source, the name of the changed field, the old and the new value. The class for the view contains text fields to display and edit the information of a person: name, firstname, street, zipcode, location. It knows the Person model and is an subscribed observer for the person. So it gets the update events from the person object. My questions concerns the address field from type Address in the person class, since an address is observable on its own. If the view gets an update event from person when a new address has been set, I can update all of the address related fields in the view. But what if a field of the address changes? Should the view also register for update events from the address? Any hints about common design approaches would be appreciated. Greetings.

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  • JavaScript text slideshow not working?

    - by I Build Websites
    I'm making a Javascript slideshow for my blog yet the array doesn't seem to be working. Can someone please say what I've been doing wrong <SCRIPT type="text/javascript"> var blog = new Array() blog[0]= "<h4>Sunday 17 of June 2012</h4><p title='Blog'>Donec tempus risus eget ligula viverra eget placerat odio tincidunt. Duis nisl sem, scelerisque faucibus congue vitae, accumsan at lectus. Cras vestibulum arcu ut lorem luctus eu pharetra tortor ultricies. Nam iaculis orci mauris. Etiam luctus, mauris sed adipiscing ullamcorper, augue enim volutpat sem, ut sagittis ipsum nibh ac nulla. Nam ultrices, quam eget sollicitudin porta, sapien mauris pulvinar augue, posuere hendrerit erat ligula ut magna. Maecenas laoreet nisi vitae magna consectetur a mollis purus tristique. Pellentesque elementum arcu non urna convallis eleifend. Aliquam eu lorem sed risus tempus tempor. Donec malesuada velit in odio vulputate iaculis. In tristique neque quis velit posuere adipiscing. Nullam dui neque, scelerisque non egestas feugiat, pellentesque vitae mauris.</p><hr>" and so the array continues till function display1() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML( blog[0]) } function display2() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[1]) } function display3() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[2]) } function display4() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[3]) } function display5() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[4]) } </SCRIPT> <div id="blogShow"> <SCRIPT type="text/javascript">display1()</SCRIPT> </div> <div id="blogNav"> <input type="button" onClick="display2()" value="1" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display3()" value="2" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display4()" value="3" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display5()" value="4" class="button"> </div> I know it's all inline and i will clean up after it works

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  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

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  • C# + Querying XML with LINQ

    - by user336786
    Hello, I'm learning to use LINQ. I have seen some videos online that have really impressed me. In an effort to learn LINQ myself, I decided to try to write a query to the NOAA web service. If you put "http://www.weather.gov/forecasts/xml/sample_products/browser_interface/ndfdBrowserClientByDay.php?zipCodeList=20001&format=24+hourly&startDate=2010-06-10&numDays=5" in your browser's address bar, you will see some XML. I have successfully retrieved that XML in a C# program. I am loading the XML into a LINQable entity by doing the following: string xml = QueryWeatherService(); XDocument weather = XDocument.Parse(xml); I have a class called DailyForecast defined as follows: public class DailyForecast { public float HighTemperature { get; set; } public float LowTemperature { get; set; } public float PrecipitationPossibility { get; set; } public string WeatherSummary { get; set; } } I'm trying write a LINQ query that adheres to the structure of my DailyForecast class. At this time, I've only gotten to this far: var results = from day in response.Descendants("parameters") select day; Not very far I know. Because of the structure of the XML returned, I'm not sure it is possible to solely use a LINQ query. I think the only way to do this is via a loop and traverse the XML. I'm seeking someone to correct me if I'm wrong. Can someone please tell me if I can get results using purely LINQ that adhere to the structure of the DailyForecast class? If so, how? Thank you!

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  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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