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• Strongly Typed Controls in .NET

  - by Tigraine

  I am working on a Windows Forms app for quite some time now, and I really find myself doing more typecasts in the GUI code than I ever did in my underlying business code. What I mean becomes apparent if you watch the ComboBox control that accepts some vague "object" as it's item. Then you go off and may display some DisplayMember and a ValueMember and so on. If I want to retrieve that value later I need to typecast my object back to what it was. Like with strings getting the value takes string value = (string)combobox1.SelectedItem; Since there are generics in the Framework for quite some time now, I still wonder why in the Hell not one control from the standard toolbox is generic. I also find myself using the .Tag property on ListViewItems all the time to keep the displayed domain object. But everytime I need to access that object I then need another typecast. Why cant I just create a ComboBox or ListView with items of type ListViewItem Am I missing something here or is this just another example of not perfectly well thought through controls?

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• ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

  - by anomareh

  I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

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• Highlight image borders with Ajax request.

  - by Tek

  First, some visualization of the code. I have the following images that are dynamically generated from jquery. They're made upon user request: <img id="i13133" src="someimage.jpg" /> <img id="i13232" src="someimage1.jpg" /> <img id="i14432" src="someimage2.jpg" /> <img id="i16432" src="someimage3.jpg" /> <img id="i18422" src="someimage4.jpg" /> I have an AJAX loop that repeats every 15 seconds using jQuery and it contains the following code: Note: The if statement is inside the Ajax loop. Where imgId is the requested ID from the Ajax call. //Passes the IDs retrieved from Ajax, if the IDs exist on the page the animation is triggered. if ( $('#i' + imgId ).length ) { var pickimage = '#i' + imgId; var stop = false; function highlight(pickimage) { $(pickimage).animate({color: "yellow"}, 1000, function () { $(pickimage ).animate({color: "black"}, 1000, function () { if (!stop) highlight(pickimage); }); }); } // Start the loop highlight(pickimage); } It works great, even with multiple images. But I had originally used this with one image. The problem is I need an interrupt. Something like: $(img).click(function () { stop = true; }); There's two problems: 1.)This obviously stops all animations. I can't wrap my head around how I could write something that only stops the animation of the image that's clicked. 2.)The Ajax retrieves IDs, sometimes those IDs appear more than once every few minutes, which means it would repeat the animations on top of each other if the image exists. I could use some help figuring out how to detect if an animation is already running on an image, and do nothing if the animation is already triggered on an image.

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• get html content of a page with Silverlight

  - by Yustme

  Hi, I'm trying to get the html content of a page using silverlight. Webresponse and request classes don't work in silverlight. I did some googling and I found something. This is what i tried: public partial class MainPage : UserControl { string result; WebClient client; public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); this.result = string.Empty; this.client = new WebClient(); this.client.DownloadStringCompleted += ClientDownloadStringCompleted; } private void btn1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string url = "http://www.nu.nl/feeds/rss/algemeen.rss"; this.client.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri(url, UriKind.Absolute)); if (this.result != string.Empty && this.result != null) { this.txbSummery.Text = this.result; } } private void ClientDownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { this.result = e.Result; //handle the response. } } It gives me a runtime error after pressing the button: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Unhandled Error in Silverlight Application An exception occurred during the operation, making the result invalid. Check InnerException for exception details. at System.ComponentModel.AsyncCompletedEventArgs.RaiseExceptionIfNecessary() at System.Net.DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs.get_Result() at JWTG.MainPage.ClientDownloadStringCompleted(Object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) at System.Net.WebClient.OnDownloadStringCompleted(DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) at System.Net.WebClient.DownloadStringOperationCompleted(Object arg) I've tried numerous things but all failed. What am i missing? Or does anyone know how i could achieve this in a different way? Thanks in advance!

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• _dl_runtime_resolve -- When do the shared objects get loaded in to memory?

  - by windfinder

  We have a message processing system with high performance demands. Recently we have noticed that the first message takes many times longer then subsequent messages. A bunch of transformation and message augmentation happens as this goes through our system, much of it done by way of external lib. I just profiled this issue (using callgrind), comparing a "run" of just one message with a "run" of many messages (providing a baseline of comparison). The main difference I see is the function "do_lookup_x" taking up a huge amount of time. Looking at the various calls to this function, they all seem to be called by the common function: _dl_runtime_resolve. Not sure what this function does, but to me this looks like the first time the various shared libraries are being used, and are then being loaded in to memory by the ld. Is this a correct assumption? That the binary will not load the shared libraries in to memory until they are being prepped for use, therefore we will see a massive slowdown on the first message, but on none of the subsequent? How do we go about avoiding this? Note: We operate on the microsecond scale.

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• Fill in word form field with more than 255 characters

  - by user1308743

  I am trying to programmaticly fill in a microsoft word form. I am successfully able to do so if the string is under 255 chars with the following code below, however it says the string is too long if i try and use a string over 255 chars... How do I get past this limitation? If I open the word doc in word I can type in more than 255 chars without a problem. Does anyone know how to input more characters via c# code? object fileName = strFileName; object readOnly = false; object isVisible = true; object missing = System.Reflection.Missing.Value; //open doc _oDoc = _oWordApplic.Documents.Open(ref fileName, ref missing, ref readOnly, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref isVisible, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); _oDoc.Activate(); //write string _oDoc.FormFields[oBookMark].Result = value; //save and close oDoc.SaveAs(ref fileName, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); _oWordApplic.Application.Quit(ref missing, ref missing, ref missing);

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• Clearing input text feilds when clicked on in Flash (AS 2.0)

  - by rickstyphilis

  I have a problem where I want a text field that by default has the word NAME in it, to become empty when a user clicks on it. The text field has the instance name 'nam' and is inside a movie with the instance name 'input_text'. I've searched around and found samples of code where everyone keeps suggesting this: textboxinstancename.onSetFocus = function() { textboxinstancename.text = ""; }; should work. It seems to work for everyone else but me. I've tried using the following on the first frame of the 'input_text' movie with no luck: this.input_text.nam.onSetFocus = function() { this.input_text.nam.text = "" } I've tried putting this on the first frame of the scene, again with no result: _root.input_text.nam.onSetFocus = function() { _root.input_text.nam.text = "" } I've tried this in the same manner as the last respectively with both 'this' on the instance and '_root' on the scene (denoted by x): x.input_text.nam.onSetFocus = function() { if (x.input_text.nam.text == "NAME") { x.input_text.nam.text = ""; } }; Still no luck. Can anyone tell me what I might be doing wrong?

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• Trying to draw a dynamic rectangle in SVG

  - by Shaun

  To be more specific, here are the steps I need: onmousedown - set x and y of rect as mouse coordinates onmousemove - using the current x and y mouse coordinates calculate height and width of the rect, set these and append onmouseup - remove the rectangle, and call a function based off some calculations from the rect. Here is what I have but isn't quite working (right now I have it drawing a line to make it simpler): onmousedown: startbox(evt) function startbox(evt) { if(evt.button === 0) { x1 = evt.clientX + div.scrollLeft-5; y1 = evt.clientY + div.scrollTop-30; obj.setAttributeNS(null, "x1", x1); obj.setAttributeNS(null, "y1", y1); Root.setAttributeNS(null, "onmousemove", "updatebox(evt)"); } } onmousemove: updatebox(evt) function updatebox(evt) { if(evt.button === 0) { x2 = evt.clientX + div.scrollLeft-5; y2 = evt.clientY + div.scrollTop-30; Root.appendChild(.obj); w = Math.abs(x2-x1); h = Math.abs(y2-y1); var strokecolor; if(w>20 && h>20) { strokecolor = "green"; validbox = true; } else { strokecolor = "red"; validbox = false; } var Attr={ x2:x2, y2:y2, stroke:strokecolor } assignAttr(obj, Attr); //just loops thru adding multiple attributes } } onmouseup: endbox() function endbox(evt) { if(evt.button===0) { Root.setAttributeNS(null, "onmousemove", ""); Root.removeChild(obj); if(validbox) { //do stuff validbox = !validbox; } } } Some of my problems with this are: Its slow in Chrome making drawing the line/rect feel sluggish. It won't work two times in a row. This is the real problem that I can't fix. Any and all feedback is welcome.

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• jQuery Cycle : Multiple Instances, detect end of each instance

  - by guylabbe.ca

  I am using multiple instances of Cycle for a portfolio; Only one is shown and the others are hidden. Each Cycle is a project with multiple images. The only thing I can't figure out is how to detect the end of the « current » Cycle instance. with after: function, it is triggered for all instances at once, impossible to get « local » events. Here is my code : $('.sldr_closeup').each(function() { var currId = $(this).attr('id'); window['num_'+currId] = 0; $(this).cycle({ timeout:0, speed:500, fx:'fade', next:'.nextimages', prev:'.previmages', fit:1, nowrap:1, autstop:0, after : function(c,n,o,f) { var currId = $(this).parent('div').attr('id'); (f) ? window['num_'+currId] ++ : window['num_'+currId] --; if ((o.slideCount == window['num_'+currId] )) { alert(currId); $('.nextimages').stop().fadeTo(400,0,function(){ if(currId != $('.projectList .projet').last().find('a').attr('rel')) $('.nextproject').stop().fadeTo(400,1); $(this).hide(); }); } } }).cycle('pause'); });

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• Cant' cast a class with multiple inheritance

  - by Jay S.

  I am trying to refactor some code while leaving existing functionality in tact. I'm having trouble casting a pointer to an object into a base interface and then getting the derived class out later. The program uses a factory object to create instances of these objects in certain cases. Here are some examples of the classes I'm working with. // This is the one I'm working with now that is causing all the trouble. // Some, but not all methods in NewAbstract and OldAbstract overlap, so I // used virtual inheritance. class MyObject : virtual public NewAbstract, virtual public OldAbstract { ... } // This is what it looked like before class MyObject : public OldAbstract { ... } // This is an example of most other classes that use the base interface class NormalObject : public ISerializable // The two abstract classes. They inherit from the same object. class NewAbstract : public ISerializable { ... } class OldAbstract : public ISerializable { ... } // A factory object used to create instances of ISerializable objects. template<class T> class Factory { public: ... virtual ISerializable* createObject() const { return static_cast<ISerializable*>(new T()); // current factory code } ... } This question has good information on what the different types of casting do, but it's not helping me figure out this situation. Using static_cast and regular casting give me error C2594: 'static_cast': ambiguous conversions from 'MyObject *' to 'ISerializable *'. Using dynamic_cast causes createObject() to return NULL. The NormalObject style classes and the old version of MyObject work with the existing static_cast in the factory. Is there a way to make this cast work? It seems like it should be possible.

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• The fastest way to iterate through a collection of objects

  - by Trev

  Hello all, First to give you some background: I have some research code which performs a Monte Carlo simulation, essential what happens is I iterate through a collection of objects, compute a number of vectors from their surface then for each vector I iterate through the collection of objects again to see if the vector hits another object (similar to ray tracing). The pseudo code would look something like this for each object { for a number of vectors { do some computations for each object { check if vector intersects } } } As the number of objects can be quite large and the amount of rays is even larger I thought it would be wise to optimise how I iterate through the collection of objects. I created some test code which tests arrays, lists and vectors and for my first test cases found that vectors iterators were around twice as fast as arrays however when I implemented a vector in my code in was somewhat slower than the array I was using before. So I went back to the test code and increased the complexity of the object function each loop was calling (a dummy function equivalent to 'check if vector intersects') and I found that when the complexity of the function increases the execution time gap between arrays and vectors reduces until eventually the array was quicker. Does anyone know why this occurs? It seems strange that execution time inside the loop should effect the outer loop run time.

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• Scheme: what are the benefits of letrec?

  - by Ixmatus

  While reading "The Seasoned Schemer" I've begun to learn about letrec. I understand what it does (can be duplicated with a Y-Combinator) but the book is using it in lieu of recurring on the already defined function operating on arguments that remain static. An example of an old function using the defined function recurring on itself (nothing special): (define (substitute new old lat) (cond ((null? l) '()) ((eq? (car l) old) (cons new (substitute new old (cdr l)))) (else (cons (car l) (substitute new old (cdr l)))))) Now for an example of that same function but using letrec: (define (substitute new old lat) (letrec ((replace (lambda (l) (cond ((null? l) '()) ((eq? (car l) old) (cons new (replace (cdr l)))) (else (cons (car l) (replace (cdr l)))))))) (replace lat))) Aside from being slightly longer and more difficult to read I don't know why they are rewriting functions in the book to use letrec. Is there a speed enhancement when recurring over a static variable this way because you don't keep passing it?? Is this standard practice for functions with arguments that remain static but one argument that is reduced (such as recurring down the elements of a list)? Some input from more experienced Schemers/LISPers would help!

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• Unboxing to unknown type

  - by Robert

  I'm trying to figure out syntax that supports unboxing an integral type (short/int/long) to its intrinsic type, when the type itself is unknown. Here is a completely contrived example that demonstrates the concept: // Just a simple container that returns values as objects struct DataStruct { public short ShortVale; public int IntValue; public long LongValue; public object GetBoxedShortValue() { return LongValue; } public object GetBoxedIntValue() { return LongValue; } public object GetBoxedLongValue() { return LongValue; } } static void Main( string[] args ) { DataStruct data; // Initialize data - any value will do data.LongValue = data.IntValue = data.ShortVale = 42; DataStruct newData; // This works if you know the type you are expecting! newData.ShortVale = (short)data.GetBoxedShortValue(); newData.IntValue = (int)data.GetBoxedIntValue(); newData.LongValue = (long)data.GetBoxedLongValue(); // But what about when you don't know? newData.ShortVale = data.GetBoxedShortValue(); // error newData.IntValue = data.GetBoxedIntValue(); // error newData.LongValue = data.GetBoxedLongValue(); // error } In each case, the integral types are consistent, so there should be some form of syntax that says "the object contains a simple type of X, return that as X (even though I don't know what X is)". Because the objects ultimately come from the same source, there really can't be a mismatch (short != long). I apologize for the contrived example, it seemed like the best way to demonstrate the syntax. Thanks.

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• HttpUnhandledException ASP.NET

  - by jweber

  Hi I have a ASP.NET website. If I make a request for a page it works most of the times, but sometimes I get an HttpUnhandledException. I have tried to log the errors, but from the errors messages I'm not able to solve the problem. StackTrace: at System.Web.UI.Page.HandleError(Exception e) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestWithNoAssert(HttpContext context) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at ASP.default_aspx.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) in c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\4e215a3c\72ef69da\App_Web_ylvnbciw.6.cs:line 0 at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Data: System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal BaseException: System.InvalidOperationException: The connection was not closed. The connection's current state is open. at DbCategory.getParentCategories() at _Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) TargetSite: Boolean HandleError(System.Exception) I have idea that it's something about my session og get variables, but i'm not sure about that. Does anybody have an idea about what it could be?

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• How to define a "complicated" ComputedColumn in SQL Server?

  - by Slauma

  SQL Server Beginner question: I'm trying to introduce a computed column in SQL Server (2008). In the table designer of SQL Server Management Studio I can do this, but the designer only offers me one single edit cell to define the expression for this column. Since my computed column will be rather complicated (depending on several database fields and with some case differentiations) I'd like to have a more comfortable and maintainable way to enter the column definition (including line breaks for formatting and so on). I've seen there is an option to define functions in SQL Server (scalar value or table value functions). Is it perhaps better to define such a function and use this function as the column specification? And what kind of function (scalar value, table value)? To make a simplified example: I have two database columns: DateTime1 (smalldatetime, NULL) DateTime2 (smalldatetime, NULL) Now I want to define a computed column "Status" which can have four possible values. In Dummy language: if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 0 else if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NOT NULL) set Status = 1 else if (DateTime1 IS NOT NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 2 else set Status = 3 Ideally I would like to have a function GetStatus() which can access the different column values of the table row which I want to compute the value of "Status" for, and then only define the computed column specification as GetStatus() without parameters. Is that possible at all? Or what is the best way to work with "complicated" computed column definitions? Thank you for tips in advance!

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• How to best future proof my application that needs to connect to Outlook?

  - by Troy

  I have a contact management application written in Delphi which has a “Sync with Outlook” feature that I developed 10 years ago. Now, I’m going back to add some features and fix some bugs. This sync feature uses the Outlook object model to get started, but it has an optional mode called “Use MAPI Enhancements” where it uses pure MAPI to speed up how it looks for changes, and it allows notes to be synced w/ RTF instead of just plain text. I'm wondering if supporting two parallel paths of execution is a good idea or not. If I went with all MAPI, I believe I'd avoid some security prompts, and I'd avoid situations where anti-virus has "script-blocking" features which block my app from connecting to Outlook. But I believe that on the down side, my 32-bit app would not be able to to connect with 64-bit Outlook 2010 using MAPI. And I wonder about the future of MAPI in general. If I stick with the Outlook object model, will my 32-bit app be able to connect to the Outlook object model (since it's out of process COM)? If so, this is a compelling reason to keep my Outlook object model execution path in place. But if not, and if my app needs to be compiled for x64, then why not just go with pure MAPI?

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• ul sortables get serialized data

  - by russp

  Hi folks Any ideas how to get the serilized data from this function? the html is first with the JQuery function last, I cannot get the serialization to appear in the alert. When I can do that I can finish this by sending via ajax etc... <div class="column" id="col1"> <div class="portlet"> <div class="portlet-header">Feeds</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> <div class="portlet"> <div class="portlet-header">News</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> Shopping Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit Links Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit Images Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit $(function() { $("#col1, #col2, #col3").sortable({ connectWith: '.column', receive : function () { serial = $('#col1').sortable('serialize'); //serial2 = $('#col2').sortable('serialize'); //serial3 = $('#col3').sortable('serialize'); alert(serial); } }); });

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• What's the boost way to create a functor that binds out an argument

  - by Mordachai

  I have need for a function pointer that takes two arguments and returns a string. I would like to pass an adapter that wraps a function that takes one argument, and returns the string (i.e. discard one of the arguments). I can trivially build my own adapter, that takes the 2 arguments, calls the wrapped function passing just the one argument through. But I'd much rather have a simple way to create an adapter on the fly, if there is an easy way to do so in C++/boost? Here's some details to make this a bit more concrete: typedef boost::function<CString (int,int)> TooltipTextFn; class MyCtrl { public: MyCtrl(TooltipTextFn callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetCellText, this, _1, _2)) : m_callback(callback) { } // QUESTION: how to trivially wrapper GetRowText to conform to TooltipTextFn by just discarding _2 ?! void UseRowText() { m_callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetRowText, this, _1, ??); } private: CString GetCellText(int row, int column); CString GetRowText(int row); TooltipTextFn m_callback; } Obviously, I can supply a member that adapts GetRowText to take two arguments and only passes the first to GetRowText() itself. But is there already a boost binder / adapter that lets me do that?

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• PEAR mail not sending to .eu email addresses

  - by andy-score

  I have a PEAR mailing script that is used to send newsletters from a clients website. I've used the same code before to produce another newsletter system and it has worked well and been used to send emails to various addresses, however our latest client has email addresses ending .eu and this seems to cause a problem. When the newsletter is sent from the site to the various subscribers, including gmail, hotmail, yahoo and our own company emails, the emails are received correctly by all but the clients email addresses, the ones ending in .eu. As there is nothing different between their mailing system and our own, which is run from the same hosting company, I have to conclude that it is something to do with the domain name. The emails are being sent to the addresses from the system, as I have a log file storing the email addresses when the mail out function is called, but the newsletter never appears in the inbox. I have created a new email account for the domain and that too isn't receiving the emails. It's not going into a spam folder as the webmail system marks spam by adding SPAM into the subject. I've tried to log if there are any errors using the following foreach($subscribers as $recipient) { $send_newsletter = $mail->send($recipient, $headers, $body); // LOG INFO $message = $recipient; if($send_newsletter) { $message .= ' SENT'; } elseif(PEAR::isError($send_newsletter)) { $message .= ' ERROR: '.$send_newsletter->getMessage(); } $message .= ' | '; fwrite($log_file,$message); } However this simple returns SENT for all recipients, so in theory there isn't anything wrong with the mailing function. I don't know a great deal about PEAR or the mailing function so I may be missing something important, but I'd have thought seeing the last thing to happen is sending the email out, and that seems to work, then it should reach the clients inbox. Is this something to do with the PEAR mailing function not liking .eu addresses or is it more likely to be something wrong in my code or with their domain? Any help is greatly appreciated as the client and myself are getting both confused and frustrated by the whole thing. Cheers

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• What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

  - by Soul_Master

  I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

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• Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

  - by Dan

  From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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• Get reference to all instances of jquery ui widget?

  - by Hailwood

  I am writing a jquery UI widget that simply wraps the bootstrap popover plugin, In the widget you can pass in the option 'singular', if this is passed in then it should call a function of all other instances of the plugin. something like $('#one').myWidget(); $('#two').myWidget(); $('#three').myWidget(); $('#four').myWidget(); $('#one').myWidget('show'); //stuff from widget one is now visible $('#two').myWidget('show'); //stuff from widget one and two are now visible $('#three').myWidget('show'); //stuff from widget one, two and three are now visible $('#two').myWidget('hide'); //stuff from widget one and three are now visible $('#four').myWidget('show', {singular:true}); //stuff from widget four is now visible So, I imagine the show function looking like: show: function(options){ options = options || {}; if(options.singular){ var instances = '????'; // how do I get all instances? $.each(instances, function(i, o){ o.myWidget('hide'); }); } this.element.popover('show'); } So, question being, how would I get a reference to all elements that have the myWidget widget on them?

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• Is it possible to unit test methods that rely on NHibernate Detached Criteria?

  - by Aim Kai

  I have tried to use Moq to unit test a method on a repository that uses the DetachedCriteria class. But I come up against a problem whereby I cannot actually mock the internal Criteria object that is built inside. Is there any way to mock detached criteria? Test Method [Test] [Category("UnitTest")] public void FindByNameSuccessTest() { //Mock hibernate here var sessionMock = new Mock<ISession>(); var sessionManager = new Mock<ISessionManager>(); var queryMock = new Mock<IQuery>(); var criteria = new Mock<ICriteria>(); var sessionIMock = new Mock<NHibernate.Engine.ISessionImplementor>(); var expectedRestriction = new Restriction {Id = 1, Name="Test"}; //Set up expected returns sessionManager.Setup(m => m.OpenSession()).Returns(sessionMock.Object); sessionMock.Setup(x => x.GetSessionImplementation()).Returns(sessionIMock.Object); queryMock.Setup(x => x.UniqueResult<SopRestriction>()).Returns(expectedRestriction); criteria.Setup(x => x.UniqueResult()).Returns(expectedRestriction); //Build repository var rep = new TestRepository(sessionManager.Object); //Call repostitory here to get list var returnR = rep.FindByName("Test"); Assert.That(returnR.Id == expectedRestriction.Id); } Repository Class public class TestRepository { protected readonly ISessionManager SessionManager; public virtual ISession Session { get { return SessionManager.OpenSession(); } } public TestRepository(ISessionManager sessionManager) { } public SopRestriction FindByName(string name) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Restriction>().Add<Restriction>(x => x.Name == name) return criteria.GetExecutableCriteria(Session).UniqueResult<T>(); } } Note I am using "NHibernate.LambdaExtensions" and "Castle.Facilities.NHibernateIntegration" here as well. Any help would be gratefully appreciated.

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• jQuery $.getJSON - How do I parse a flickr.photos.search REST API call?

  - by Chad

  Trying to adapt the $.getJSON Flickr example: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i,item){ $("<img/>").attr("src", item.media.m).appendTo("#images"); if ( i == 3 ) return false; }); }); to read from the flickr.photos.search REST API method, but the JSON response is different for this call. Click here to see the JSON response. This is what I've done so far: var url = "http://api.flickr.com/services/rest/?method=flickr.photos.search&api_key=9322c53dde3b36bda33f79c16bb99104&tags=yokota+air+base&safe_search=1&per_page=20"; var src; $.getJSON(url + "&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.photos, function(i,item){ src = "http://farm"+ item.photo.farm +".static.flickr.com/"+ item.photo.server +"/"+ item.photo.id +"_"+ item.photo.secret +"_m.jpg"; $("<img/>").attr("src", src).appendTo("#images"); if ( i == 3 ) return false; }); }); I guess I'm not building the image src correctly. Couldn't find any documentation on how to build the image src, based on what the JSON response is. How do you parse a flickr.photos.search REST API call?

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• Validating age field

  - by Marcelo

  Hi people, I'm trying to validate an age field in a form but I'm having some problem. First I tried to make sure that the field will not be send empty. I don't know JavaScript so I searched some scripts and adapted them to this: function isInteger (s) { var i; if (isEmpty(s)) if (isInteger.arguments.length == 1) return 0; else return (isInteger.arguments[1] == true); for (i = 0; i < s.length; i++) { var c = s.charAt(i); if (!isDigit(c)) return false; } return true; } function isEmpty(s) { return ((s == null) || (s.length == 0)) } function validate_required(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if ((validate_required(age,"Age must be filled out!")==false) || isInteger(age,"Age must be and int number")==false)) {email.focus();return false;} } } //html part <form action="doador.php" onsubmit="return validate_form(this)" method="post"> It's working fine for empty fields, but if I type any letters or characters in age field, it'll be sent and saved a 0 in my database. Can anyone help me? Sorry for any mistake in English, and thanks in anvance for your help.

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