Search Results

Search found 61651 results on 2467 pages for 'function object'.

Page 686/2467 | < Previous Page | 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693  | Next Page >

  • Problems with objectatasource,giving attributes like delete insert and update

    - by kamal
    After going to the process of adding the various attributes like insert,delete and update.But when i run it through the browser ,editing works but updating and deleting doesn't !(for the update and shows the same thing for delete,my friends think i need to use codes to repair the problems,can you help me please.it shows this: Server Error in '/WebSite3' Application. ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.GetResolvedMethodData(Type type, String methodName, IDictionary allParameters, DataSourceOperation operation) +1119426 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +1008 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleUpdate(GridViewRow row, Int32 rowIndex, Boolean causesValidation) +907 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +704 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +123 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118

    Read the article

  • Chrome extension sendRequest from async callback not working?

    - by Eugene
    Can't figure out what's wrong. onRequest not triggered on call from async callback method, the same request from content script works. The sample code below. background.js ============= ... makeAsyncRequest(); ... chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { switch (request.id) { case "from_content_script": // This works console.log("from_content_script"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; case "from_async": // Not working! console.log("from_async"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; } }); methods.js ========== makeAsyncRequest = function() { ... var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xhr.readyState == 4) { ... // It works console.log("makeAsyncRequest callback"); chrome.extension.sendRequest({id: "from_async"}, function(response) { }); } } ... }; UPDATE: manifest configuration file. Don't no what's wrong here. { "name": "TestExt", "version": "0.0.1", "icons": { "48": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "description": "write it later", "background_page": "background.html", "options_page": "options.html", "browser_action": { "default_title": "TestExt", "default_icon": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "permissions": [ "tabs", "http://*/*", "https://*/*", "file://*/*", "webNavigation" ] }

    Read the article

  • safe placement new & explicit destructor call

    - by uray
    this is an example of my codes: ` template <typename T> struct MyStruct { T object; } template <typename T> class MyClass { MyStruct<T>* structPool; size_t structCount; MyClass(size_t count) { this->structCount = count; this->structPool = new MyStruct<T>[count]; for( size_t i=0 ; i<count ; i++ ) { //placement new to call constructor new (&this->structPool[i].object) T(); } } ~MyClass() { for( size_t i=0 ; i<this->structCount ; i++ ) { //explicit destructor call this->structPool[i].object.~T(); } delete[] this->structPool; } } ` my question is, is this a safe way to do? do I make some hidden mistake at some condition? will it work for every type of object (POD and non-POD) ?

    Read the article

  • C++ - passing references to boost::shared_ptr

    - by abigagli
    If I have a function that needs to work with a shared_ptr, wouldn't it be more efficient to pass it a reference to it (so to avoid copying the shared_ptr object)? What are the possible bad side effects? I envision two possible cases: 1) inside the function a copy is made of the argument, like in ClassA::take_copy_of_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) { ... m_sp_member=sp; //This will copy the object, incrementing refcount ... } 2) inside the function the argument is only used, like in Class::only_work_with_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) //Again, no copy here { ... sp->do_something(); ... } I can't see in both cases a good reason to pass the boost::shared_ptr by value instead of by reference. Passing by value would only "temporarily" increment the reference count due to the copying, and then decrement it when exiting the function scope. Am I overlooking something? Andrea. EDIT: Just to clarify, after reading several answers : I perfectly agree on the premature-optimization concerns, and I alwasy try to first-profile-then-work-on-the-hotspots. My question was more from a purely technical code-point-of-view, if you know what I mean.

    Read the article

  • Problem with OnSubmit in Validation plugin in jQuery

    - by novellino
    Hello, I an quite new to jQuery and I have a problem while trying to create a form. I am using the Validation plugin for validate the email (one the form's field). When I click the Submit button I want to call my own function because I want to save the data in an XML file. This is my button: (as I understood the plugin uses "submit" for understand the button) <input type="submit" name="submit" class="submit" id="submit_btn" value="Send"/> and here is the script for the validation: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //this is my form $("#contactForm").validate(); /*save the valid data in the xml*/ $(".submit").click(function() { var email = $("input#email").val(); var subject = $("input#subject").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); if (email == "" || !$("#contactForm").valid()) { return false; } var dataString = 'email='+ email + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message; //alert("DATA: " +dataString); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "SaveData.jsp", data: dataString, success: function(data){} }); return false; }); }); </script> In general it works ok but I have two basic problems. When I click the button in the beginning having all the form empty, I get no message for the field required. Also when the data are valid and I am doing the submit, the form does not become clear after the submit. If I deleted this script code, these actions are working properly but I can not save the data! Does anyone know what is wrong? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • jQuery removing elements from DOM put still reporting as present

    - by RyanP13
    Hi, I have an address finder system whereby a user enters a postcode, if postcode is validated then an address list is returned and displayed, they then select an address line, the list dissappears and then the address line is split further into some form inputs. The issue i am facing is when they have been through the above process then cleared the postcode form field, hit the find address button and the address list re-appears. Event though the list and parent tr have been removed from the DOM it is still reporting it is present as length 1? My code is as follows: jQuery // when postcode validated display box var $addressList = $("div#selectAddress > ul").length; // if address list present show the address list if ($addressList != 0) { $("div#selectAddress").closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } // address list hidden by default // if coming back to modify details then display address inputs var $customerAddress = $("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); var $addressInputs = $.cookies.get('cpqbAddressInputs'); if ($addressInputs) { if ($addressInputs == 'visible') { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } } else { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").addClass("hide"); } // Need to change form action URL to call post code web service $("input.findAddress").live('click', function(){ var $postCode = encodeURI($("input#customerPostcode").val()); if ($postCode != "") { var $formAction = "customerAction.do?searchAddress=searchAddress&custpc=" + $postCode; $("form#detailsForm").attr("action", $formAction); } else { alert($addressList);} }); // darker highlight when li is clicked // split address string into corresponding inputs $("div#selectAddress ul li").live('click', function(){ $(this).removeClass("addressHover"); //$("li.addressClick").removeClass("addressClick"); $(this).addClass("addressClick"); var $splitAddress = $(this).text().split(","); $($customerAddress).each(function(){ var $inputCount = $(this).index("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); $(this).val($splitAddress[$inputCount]); }); $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); $.cookies.set('cpqbAddressInputs', 'visible'); $(this).closest("tr").fadeOut(250, function() { $(this).remove(); }); });

    Read the article

  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

    Read the article

  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

    Read the article

  • Gdata JavaScript Authsub continues redirect

    - by Krustal
    I am using the JavaScript Google Data API and having issues getting the AuthSub script to work correctly. This is my script currently: google.load('gdata', '1'); function getCookie(c_name){ if(document.cookie.length>0){ c_start=document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if(c_start!=-1){ c_start=c_start + c_name.length+1; c_end=document.cookie.indexOf(";",c_start); if(c_end==-1) c_end=document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } function main(){ var scope = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/'; if(!google.accounts.user.checkLogin(scope)){ google.accounts.user.login(); } else { /* * Retrieve all calendars */ // Create the calendar service object var calendarService = new google.gdata.calendar.CalendarService('GoogleInc-jsguide-1.0'); // The default "allcalendars" feed is used to retrieve a list of all // calendars (primary, secondary and subscribed) of the logged-in user var feedUri = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/default/allcalendars/full'; // The callback method that will be called when getAllCalendarsFeed() returns feed data var callback = function(result) { // Obtain the array of CalendarEntry var entries = result.feed.entry; //for (var i = 0; i < entries.length; i++) { var calendarEntry = entries[0]; var calendarTitle = calendarEntry.getTitle().getText(); alert('Calendar title = ' + calendarTitle); //} } // Error handler to be invoked when getAllCalendarsFeed() produces an error var handleError = function(error) { alert(error); } // Submit the request using the calendar service object calendarService.getAllCalendarsFeed(feedUri, callback, handleError); } } google.setOnLoadCallback(main); However when I run this the page redirects me to the authentication page. After I authenticate it send me back to my page and then quickly sends me back to the authenticate page again. I've included alerts to check if the token is being set and it doesn't seem to be working. Has anyone has this problem?

    Read the article

  • Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

    - by perissf
    In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

    Read the article

  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

    Read the article

  • Iterate with binary structure over numpy array to get cell sums

    - by Curlew
    In the package scipy there is the function to define a binary structure (such as a taxicab (2,1) or a chessboard (2,2)). import numpy from scipy import ndimage a = numpy.zeros((6,6), dtype=numpy.int) a[1:5, 1:5] = 1;a[3,3] = 0 ; a[2,2] = 2 s = ndimage.generate_binary_structure(2,2) # Binary structure #.... Calculate Sum of result_array = numpy.zeros_like(a) What i want is to iterate over all cells of this array with the given structure s. Then i want to append a function to the current cell value indexed in a empty array (example function sum), which uses the values of all cells in the binary structure. For example: array([[0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0], [0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0], [0, 1, 2, 1, 1, 0], [0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0], [0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0], [0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0]]) # The array a. The value in cell 1,2 is currently one. Given the structure s and an example function such as sum the value in the resulting array (result_array) becomes 7 (or 6 if the current cell value is excluded). Someone got an idea?

    Read the article

  • Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

    - by user242153
    Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Reading only one row from table in model binder

    - by user281180
    I am filling a table dynamically. I can see the table filled with 3 rows, but in my model binder I can read only one value. How can I solve this problem? My code is as follows: function AddTableRow(jQtable, value, text){ var count = 0; jQtable.each(function() { var $table = $(this); var tds = '<tr>'; tds += '<td>' + '<input type="text" value = ' + text + ' disabled ="disabled" style="width:auto"/>' + '<input type="hidden" name="projectList[' + count + '].ID" value = ' + value + ' /></td>' + '<td><input type="button" value="Remove"/></td>'; tds += '</tr>'; if ($('tbody', this).length > 0) { $('tbody', this).append(tds); } else { $(this).append(tds); } count++;}); } function ReadSelectedProject() { $("#Selected option").each(function() { AddTableRow($('#projectTable'), $(this).val(), $(this).text()); }); }

    Read the article

  • jQuery validation with submit handler

    - by James
    I setup the form validation using jQuery validation plug-in's validate method and I have a submit handler that modifies the input element's value (I use YUI editor and it needs saveHTML() call to copy the iframe's content to the textarea element.). When submitting the form, I want the validator to validate the form after executing my submit handler. But it doesn't execute my submit handler if it is registered after the validate call. For example, <form id="form1" action="/test"> <input type="text" name="txt1" id="txt1" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); }); The form is validated after my submit handler so submit is canceled. $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); }); However if I change the order the form is validated before my submit handler.

    Read the article

  • using ini file in vb6, problem with path to file

    - by DrPut
    I have read many articles about how to use an INI file within my VB6 project. I don't have a problem with the methods, my problem is how to make the EXE file find the INI file. I don't want to hard code the path in the program. I simply want the EXE to expect the INI file to be present in the same folder the EXE is executed from. When I run the program from inside VB6 IDE, the INI is found and processed. When I compile the program and run the EXE, nothing is found. My code looks like: gServer = sGetINI(sINIFile, "TOOLBOM", "ServerName", "?") where TOOLBOM is the [Section] and "ServerName" is the key for the value. I obtained the following code for the API: Rem API DECLARATIONS Declare Function GetPrivateProfileString Lib "kernel32" Alias _ "GetPrivateProfileStringA" (ByVal lpApplicationName _ As String, ByVal lpKeyName As Any, ByVal lpDefault _ As String, ByVal lpReturnedString As String, ByVal _ nSize As Long, ByVal lpFileName As String) As Long Declare Function WritePrivateProfileString Lib "kernel32" Alias _ "WritePrivateProfileStringA" (ByVal lpApplicationName _ As String, ByVal lpKeyName As Any, ByVal lpString As Any, _ ByVal lpFileName As String) As Long Public Function sGetINI(sINIFile As String, sSection As String, sKey _ As String, sDefault As String) As String Dim sTemp As String * 256 Dim nLength As Integer sTemp = Space$(256) nLength = GetPrivateProfileString(sSection, sKey, sDefault, sTemp, _ 255, sINIFile) sGetINI = Left$(sTemp, nLength) End Function Public Sub writeINI(sINIFile As String, sSection As String, sKey _ As String, sValue As String) Dim n As Integer Dim sTemp As String sTemp = sValue Rem Replace any CR/LF characters with spaces For n = 1 To Len(sValue) If Mid$(sValue, n, 1) = vbCr Or Mid$(sValue, n, 1) = vbLf _ Then Mid$(sValue, n) = " " Next n n = WritePrivateProfileString(sSection, sKey, sTemp, sINIFile) End Sub

    Read the article

  • ecma script deleting in a <select> "list"

    - by Tyzak
    hello, i have following function: function delete_auswahl() { var anzahl =document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").length ; for (var i =0; i<=anzahl; i++) { if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].selected==true) { if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id == "Margherita" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 4; if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id=="Salami" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 4.50; if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id=="Hawaii" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 5.50; document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i]=null; i--;// auf der gleichen stelle bleiben, da dass nächste feld nachrückt } } document.getElementById('gesamtbetrag').innerHTML=gesamtbetrag ; } before i added values with function hinzu (pizza) { NeuerEintrag = new Option(pizza, pizza, false, false); document.getElementById("warenkorbfeld").options[document.getElementById("warenkorbfeld").length] = NeuerEintrag ; if (pizza=="Margherita") { gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag + 4; } if (pizza=="Salami") { gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag + 4.50; } if (pizza=="Hawaii") { gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag + 5.50; } document.getElementById('gesamtbetrag').innerHTML=gesamtbetrag ; } now, in the delete function doesn't substract the price. despite this, all works. what's wrong with this term? if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id == "Margherita" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 4; thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to force positioned elements to stay withing viewable browser area?

    - by jessegavin
    I have a script which inserts "popup" elements into the DOM. It sets their top and left css properties relative to mouse coordinates on a click event. It works great except that the height of these "popup" elements are variable and some of them extend beyond the viewable area of the browser window. I would like to avoid this. Here's what I have so far <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("area").click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); var offset = $(this).offset(); var relativeX = e.pageX - offset.left; var relativeY = e.pageY - offset.top; // 'responseText' is the "popup" HTML fragment $.get($(this).attr("href"), function (responseText) { $(responseText).css({ top: relativeY, left: relativeX }).appendTo("#territories"); // Need to be able to determine // viewable area width and height // so that I can check if the "popup" // extends beyond. $(".popup .close").click(function () { $(this).closest(".popup").remove(); }); }); }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • PHP/Javascript limiting amount of checkboxes

    - by Carl294
    Hi everyone Im trying to limit the amount of checkboxes that can be checked, in this case only 3 can be checked. When using plain HTML this works fine. The code can be seen below. HTML example <td ><input type=checkbox name=ckb value=2 onclick='chkcontrol()';></td><td>Perl</td> Javascript Function <script type="text/javascript"> function chkcontrol(j) { var total=0; for(var i=0; i < document.form1.ckb.length; i++){ if(document.form1.ckb[i].checked){ total =total +1;} if(total > 3){ alert("Please Select only three") document.form1.ckb[j].checked = false; return false; } } } </script> The problem appears when replacing the fixed HTML values with values from a MYSQL database. All the information appears correctly, and can be posted to another page via a submit button. However, it seems like the 'value' assigned to each record from the database is not making its way too the javascript function. <td><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" value="<?php echo $rows['TCA_QID'];?>" onclick="chkcontrol();"></td> I have tried changed the name in the javascript function to match the 'checkbox' name.Any advice would be greatly appreciated Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

    Read the article

  • Jquery Returning values to original

    - by Cam
    So my script works perfectly, but here is the issue, I have buttons (Sprite action here) that are 40px height, but the top 20 only shows perfectly. When you click the button ie img the bottom 20px show perfecto! but... Issue, i included in my script a way to return all others to there default (only one should be selected) now, how can I fix this issue that I seem unable to correct as I can select multiple of them ** USERS can switch ** The last part of the script that is the issue. Thanks $(document).ready(function() { $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').show(); $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').removeClass('active'); }); $('.sub_theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').hide(); $('.form_sub').show(); $('.theader').removeClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').addClass('active'); }); $('.top_head_img').click(function() { $(this).css({ position: 'relative', bottom: '20px' }).siblings().css( 'bottom', '0' ); }); }); <ul class="top_head"> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('top');"><img src="custom/images/top2.jpg" alt="Left" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('center');"><img src="custom/images/mid2.jpg" alt="Center" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('bottom');"><img src="custom/images/bot2.jpg" alt="Right" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> </ul>

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter - accessing variables from an array passed into a page.

    - by Matt
    Hello, I have a controller with an index function as follows: function index() { $this->load->model('products_model'); $data['product'] = $this->products_model->get(3); // 3 = product id $data['product_no'] = 3; $data['main_content'] = 'product_view'; //print_r($data['products']); $this->load->view('includes/template', $data); } This is the get function in the products_model file function get($id) { $results = $this->db->get_where('products', array('id' => $id))->result(); //get the first item $result = $results[0]; return $result; } The products table contains fields such as name, price etc. Please can you tell me how to output variables from $data['product'] after it is passed into the view? I have tried so many things but nothing is working, even though the print_r (commented out) shows the data - it is not being passed into the view. I thought it may have been because the view calls a template file which references the main_content variable: Template file contents: <?php $this->load->view('includes/header'); ?> <?php $this->load->view($main_content); ?> <?php $this->load->view('includes/footer'); ?> but i tried creating a flat view file and still couldn't access the variables. Many thanks,

    Read the article

  • ClassCastException in iterating list returned by Query using Hibernate Query Language

    - by Tushar Paliwal
    I'm beginner in hibernate.I'm trying a simplest example using HQL but it generates exception at line 25 ClassCastException when i try to iterate list.When i try to cast the object returned by next() methode of iterator it generates the same problem.I could not identify the problem.Kindly give me solution of the problem. Employee.java package one; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class Employee { @Id private Long id; private String name; public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public Employee(Long id, String name) { super(); this.id = id; this.name = name; } public Employee() { } } Main2.java package one; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.List; import org.hibernate.Query; import org.hibernate.Session; import org.hibernate.SessionFactory; import org.hibernate.Transaction; import org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration; public class Main2 { public static void main(String[] args) { SessionFactory sf=new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); Session s1=sf.openSession(); Query q=s1.createQuery("from Employee "); Transaction tx=s1.beginTransaction(); List l=q.list(); Iterator itr=l.iterator(); while(itr.hasNext()) { Object obj[]=(Object[])itr.next();//Line 25 for(Object temp:obj) { System.out.println(temp); } } tx.commit(); s1.close(); sf.close(); } }

    Read the article

  • php Warning: strtotime() Error

    - by Kavithanbabu
    I have changed my joomla and wordpress files from old server to new server. In the front end and admin side its working without any errors. But in the Database (phpmyadmin) Section it shows some warning messages like this.. Warning: strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are *required* to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'Asia/Calcutta' for 'IST/5.0/no DST' instead in /usr/share/phpmyadmin/libraries/db_info.inc.php on line 88 Warning: strftime() [function.strftime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are *required* to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'Asia/Calcutta' for 'IST/5.0/no DST' instead in /usr/share/phpmyadmin/libraries/common.lib.php on line 1483 Can you please suggest, how to hide these warning messages?? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693  | Next Page >