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Software Company Library

- by dbemerlin

Hi. A few days ago i had the idea to create a company library since my company has no training and many developers still develop as they did when they learned it 5 years ago. My hope is that they can lend books, read them and hopefully learn something from them (for example: object oriented programming or unit testing, which noone here knows how to use). After asking around most agreed that it was a good idea, so i brought my books, made a simple printed sheet with "Book A belongs to B" and "Developer A took the Book on dd.mm.yyyy" to get it started. Now i want to get some ideas for Books that i could add to the shelf (sadly from my own money since 100€/month for training is too much money for this multi-million euro company). We develop mostly PHP & MySQL so books specific to this topic would be preferred but i think if people learn other languages they might get ideas on how to develop better with the current language so other books are ok, too. Which books would you recommend? PS: Personally i'd like to add some Project Management books, too, as it's a topic i'm interested in, eventhough i'm just a junior developer (We've got Peopleware already, great book btw).

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Add leading zeros to this javascript countdown script?

- by eddjedi

I am using the following countdown script which works great, but I can't figure out how to add leading zeros to the numbers (eg so it displays 09 instead of 9.) Can anybody help me out please? Here's the current script: function countDown(id, end, cur){ this.container = document.getElementById(id); this.endDate = new Date(end); this.curDate = new Date(cur); var context = this; var formatResults = function(day, hour, minute, second){ var displayString = [ '<div class="stat statBig">',day,'</div>', '<div class="stat statBig">',hour,'</div>', '<div class="stat statBig">',minute,'</div>', '<div class="stat statBig">',second,'</div>' ]; return displayString.join(""); } var update = function(){ context.curDate.setSeconds(context.curDate.getSeconds()+1); var timediff = (context.endDate-context.curDate)/1000; // Check if timer expired: if (timediff<0){ return context.container.innerHTML = formatResults(0,0,0,0); } var oneMinute=60; //minute unit in seconds var oneHour=60*60; //hour unit in seconds var oneDay=60*60*24; //day unit in seconds var dayfield=Math.floor(timediff/oneDay); var hourfield=Math.floor((timediff-dayfield*oneDay)/oneHour); var minutefield=Math.floor((timediff-dayfield*oneDay-hourfield*oneHour)/oneMinute); var secondfield=Math.floor((timediff-dayfield*oneDay-hourfield*oneHour-minutefield*oneMinute)); context.container.innerHTML = formatResults(dayfield, hourfield, minutefield, secondfield); // Call recursively setTimeout(update, 1000); }; // Call the recursive loop update(); }

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Delphi fsstayontop oddity

- by TallGuy

Here is the deal. Main form set to fsnormal. This main form is maximized full screen with a floating toolbar. Toolbar is normal form with style set to fsstayontop. Most fo the time this works as expected. The mainform displays and the toolbar floats over on top of it. Sometimes (this is a bugger to find a reproducable set of steps) when alt-tabbing to and from other apps (or when clicking the delphi app icon on the taskbar) the following symptoms can happen... When alt-tabbing away from the delphi app the floating topmost fsstayontop form stays on top of the other apps. So if I alt-tab to firefox then the floating menu stays on top of firefox too. When alt-tabbing from another app to the delphi app the flaoting menu is not visible (as it is behhind the fsnormal mainform). Is there a known bug or any hacks to force it to work? This also seems to happen most when mutliple copies of the app are running (they have no interaction between them and should be running in their own windows "sandbox"). It is as if delphi gets confused which window is meant to be on top and swaps them or changes the floating form to stayontopofeverything mode. Or have I misunderstood fsstayontop? I am assuming setting a form style to fsstayontop makes it stay on top of all other forms within the current app and not all windows across other running apps. Thanks for any tips or workarounds.

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Objective C map view delegate viewForAnnotation for MKAnnotation gets just called after click

- by user1185486

I have a simple Map view. It has a method -(void)loadAndDisplayPois{ NSLog(@"loadAndDisplayPois"); if(mapView.annotations.count > 0) [mapView removeAnnotations:mapView.annotations]; self.pois = [self loadPoisFromDatabase]; NSLog(@"self.pois.count: %i", self.pois.count); [mapView addAnnotations:self.pois]; NSLog(@"mapView.annotations.count: %i",mapView.annotations.count);} This method gets called, and I am sure that the method gets called because of the Log, after I downloaded data and saved it into the database. The class which handles the download executes after saving the data to the database [self.senderObj performSelector:@selector(loadAndDisplayPois)]; Where senderObj is the MapViewControlller. The count Log from the pois array shows 4 after the first time I clicked. But no Annotations on the view, because viewForAnnotation is not called (one Annotation in the array ( my current position)). After I execute the method again by clicking a TEST button shows everything on the map. The viewForAnnotation method gets called after viewWillAppear and after I clicked the TEST button. It is driving me nuts since 2 days. I cant anymore ...

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You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity

- by ProNeticas

I have a function that shows a map page so I can get the user to choose their current location. But if you run this function twice it crashes the App with the Single MapView in a MapActivity error (i.e. opening that settings view again). public void showMapSetterPage(View v) { Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "Settings screen, set map center launched"); // Set which view object we fired off from set_pv(v); // Show Map Settings Screen setContentView(R.layout.set_map_center); // Initiate the center point map if (mapView == null) { mapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); } mapView.setLongClickable(true); mapView.setStreetView(true); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(false); mapView.setSatellite(false); mapController = mapView.getController(); mapController.setZoom(18); LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location location = lm .getLastKnownLocation(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER); int lat = (int) (location.getLatitude() * 1E6); int lng = (int) (location.getLongitude() * 1E6); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "The LAT and LONG is: " + lat + " == " + lng); point = new GeoPoint(lat, lng); // mapController.setCenter(point); mapController.animateTo(point); } So I have a button that shows this View and onClick="showMapSetterPage". But if you go back to the settings screen out of the map and click the button again I get this error: 03-06 20:55:54.091: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(28014): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity How can I delete the MapView and recreate it?

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How do I switch out Views in a Cocoa application?

- by David Garcia

So I'm beginning to learn how to use Cocoa. I think I've pretty much got it but I'm hung up on creating and switching views. I'm rewriting a game I made a little bit ago for practice. All I want is one window (preferably not resizable) and I want to be able to switch out views for different screens in the game. First, I have the main menu (Start Game, High Scores, Exit). Then I need a window for each screen (Gameplay screen, Highscore screen). What I'm getting confused with is how to design this. I looked up NSViewController thinking it manages views but it doesn't. It only manages one view by loading it really. I don't understand why I'd need to use NSViewController then. Couldn't I just have a window class that contains multiple subclasses of NSView and load them like that? I'm not sure I understand the purpose of the ViewController. Does my Window Class really need to subclass NSWindowController? I was trying to follow the example of Apple's ViewController example and it has a window controller class that's a subclass of NSWindowController. I don't see what the purpose was of subclassing that. All NSWindowController seems to add is - initWithPath:(NSString *)newPath but I fail to see the use in that either when I can just edit the plist file to open the window on start up. Apple's example also has an NSView variable and an NSViewController variable. Don't you only need one variable to store the current view? Thanks in advance guys, I'm really confused as to how this works.

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Performance improvement of client server system

- by Tanuj

I have a legacy client server system where the server maintains a record of some data stored in a sqlite database. The data is related to monitoring access patterns of files stored on the server. The client application is basically a remote viewer of the data. When the client is launched, it connects to the server and gets the data from the server to display in a grid view. The data gets updated in real time on the server and the view in the client automatically gets refreshed. There are two problems with the current implementation: When the database gets too big, it takes a lot of time to load the client. What are the best ways to deal with this. One option is to maintain a cache at the client side. How to best implement a cache ? How can the server maintain a diff so that it only sends the diff during the refresh cycle. There can be multiple clients and each client needs to display the latest data available on the server. The server is a windows service daemon. Both the client and the server are implemented in C#

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c programming malloc question

- by user535256

Hello guys, Just got query regarding c malloc() function. I am read()ing x number of bytes from a file to get lenght of filename, like ' read(file, &namelen, sizeof(unsigned char)); ' . The variable namelen is a type unsigned char and was written into file as that type (1 byte). Now namelen has the lenght of filename ie namelen=8 if file name was 'data.txt', plus extra /0 at end, that working fine. Now I have a structure recording file info, ie filename, filelenght, content size etc. struct fileinfo { char *name; ...... other variable like size etc }; struct fileinfo *files; Question: I want to make that files.name variable the size of namelen ie 8 so I can successfully write the filename into it, like ' files[i].name = malloc(namelen) ' However, I dont want it to be malloc(sizeof(namelen)) as that would make it file.name[1] as the size of its type unsigned char. I want it to be the value thats stored inside variable &namelen ie 8 so file.name[8] so data.txt can be read() from file as 8 bytes and written straight into file.name[8? Is there a way to do this my current code is this and returns 4 not 8 files[i].name = malloc(namelen); //strlen(files[i].name) - returns 4 //perhaps something like malloc(sizeof(&namelen)) but does not work Thanks for any suggestions Have tried suggested suggestions guys, but I now get a segmentation fault error using: printf("\nsizeofnamelen=%x\n",namelen); //gives 8 for data.txt files[i].name = malloc(namelen + 1); read(file, &files[i].name, namelen); int len=strlen(files[i].name); printf("\nnamelen=%d",len); printf("\nname=%s\n",files[i].name); When I try to open() file with that files[i].name variable it wont open so the data does not appear to be getting written inside the read() &files[i].name and strlen() causes segemntation error as well as trying to print the filename

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Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

- by dbemerlin

Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

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Obtaining FontMetrics before getting a Graphics instance

- by Tom Castle

Typically, I'd obtain a graphics instance something like this: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB); Graphics2D g = img.createGraphics(); However, in the current project I'm working on, the width and height variables above are dependent upon the size of a number of text fragments that will later be drawn onto the graphics instance. But, to obtain the dimensions of the font being used I would usually use the FontMetrics that I get from the graphics object. FontMetrics metrics = g.getFontMetrics(); So, I have a nasty little dependency cycle. I cannot create the graphics object until I know the size of the text, and I cannot know the size of the text until I have a graphics object. One solution is just to create another BufferedImage/Graphics pair first in order to get the FontMetrics instance I need, but this seems unnecessary. So, is there a nicer way? Or is it the case that the width, height etc. properties for a Font are somehow dependent upon what (graphics, component...) the text is to be drawn on?

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Deleting While Iterating in Ruby?

- by Jesse J

I'm iterating over a very large set of strings, which iterates over a smaller set of strings. Due to the size, this method takes a while to do, so to speed it up, I'm trying to delete one of the strings from the smaller set that no longer needs to be used. Below is my current code: Ms::Fasta.foreach(@database) do |entry| all.each do |set| if entry.header[1..40].include? set[1] + "|" startVal = entry.sequence.scan_i(set[0])[0] if startVal != nil @locations << [set[0], set[1], startVal, startVal + set[1].length] all.delete(set) end end end end The problem I face is that the easy way, array.delete(string), effectively adds a break statement to the inner loop, which messes up the results. The only way I know how to fix this is to do this: Ms::Fasta.foreach(@database) do |entry| i = 0 while i < all.length set = all[i] if entry.header[1..40].include? set[1] + "|" startVal = entry.sequence.scan_i(set[0])[0] if startVal != nil @locations << [set[0], set[1], startVal, startVal + set[1].length] all.delete_at(i) i -= 1 end end i += 1 end end This feels kind of sloppy to me. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks.

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Qt/C++ - confused about caller/callee, object ownership

- by Isabel

I am creating a GUI to manipulate a robot arm. The location of the arm can be described by 6 floats (describing the positions of the various arm joints. The interface consists of a QGraphicsView with a diagram of the arm (which can be clicked to change the arm position - adjusting the 6 floats). The interface also has 6 lineEdit boxes, to also adjust those values separately. When the graphics view is clicked, and when the line edit boxes are changed, I'd like the line edit boxes / graphics view to stay in synchronisation. This brings me to confusion about how to store the 6 floats, and trigger events when they're updated. My current idea is this: The robot arm's location should be represented by a class, RobotArmLocation. Objects of this class then have methods such as obj.ShoulderRotation() and obj.SetShoulderRotation(). The MainWindow has a single instance of RobotArmLocation. Next is the bit I'm more confused about, how to join everything up. I am thinking: The MainWindow has a ArmLocationChanged slot. This is signalled whenever the location object is changed. The diagram class will have a SetRobotArmLocation(RobotArmLocation &loc). When the diagram is changed, it's free to change the location object, and fire a signal to the ArmLocationChanged slot. Likewise, changing any of the text boxes will fire a signal to that ArmLocationChanged slot. The slot then has code to synchronise all the elements. This kind of seems like a mess to me, does anyone have any other suggestions? I've also thought of the following, does it have any merrit? The RobotArmLocation class has a ValueChanged slot, the diagram and textboxes can use that directly, and bypass the MainWindow directly (seems cleaner?) thanks for any wisdom!

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How to map combinations of things to a relational database?

- by Space_C0wb0y

I have a table whose records represent certain objects. For the sake of simplicity I am going to assume that the table only has one row, and that is the unique ObjectId. Now I need a way to store combinations of objects from that table. The combinations have to be unique, but can be of arbitrary length. For example, if I have the ObjectIds 1,2,3,4 I want to store the following combinations: {1,2}, {1,3,4}, {2,4}, {1,2,3,4} The ordering is not necessary. My current implementation is to have a table Combinations that maps ObjectIds to CombinationIds. So every combination receives a unique Id: ObjectId | CombinationId ------------------------ 1 | 1 2 | 1 1 | 2 3 | 2 4 | 2 This is the mapping for the first two combinations of the example above. The problem is, that the query for finding the CombinationId of a specific Combination seems to be very complex. The two main usage scenarios for this table will be to iterate over all combinations, and the retrieve a specific combination. The table will be created once and never be updated. I am using SQLite through JDBC. Is there any simpler way or a best practice to implement such a mapping?

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What algorithm can I use to determine points within a semi-circle?

- by khayman218

I have a list of two-dimensional points and I want to obtain which of them fall within a semi-circle. Originally, the target shape was a rectangle aligned with the x and y axis. So the current algorithm sorts the pairs by their X coord and binary searches to the first one that could fall within the rectangle. Then it iterates over each point sequentially. It stops when it hits one that is beyond both the X and Y upper-bound of the target rectangle. This does not work for a semi-circle as you cannot determine an effective upper/lower x and y bounds for it. The semi-circle can have any orientation. Worst case, I will find the least value of a dimension (say x) in the semi-circle, binary search to the first point which is beyond it and then sequentially test the points until I get beyond the upper bound of that dimension. Basically testing an entire band's worth of points on the grid. The problem being this will end up checking many points which are not within the bounds.

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I can learn either C or Java, which one should I choose first? Should I take them concurrently?

- by GR1000

I realize this is a subject of hot debate, but I'm interested in opinions that relate to my specific situation. I want to learn the basics and fundamentals of programming, so I'm already taking a college course in general programming concepts. It isn't covering a specific language, but it's giving me a solid foundation that I can build upon when I move on to a class that teaches a specific language. My two options for a specific language are Java and C because those are the two languages taught at the college I want to take classes from. What I want to do is learn a complex language so that I can apply that knowledge to languages that I use, or will eventually use, in my current job building web pages: XHTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, XML, ActionScript. I'm not necessariy interested in becoming a Java developer or a C developer in the immediate future, but I do have aspirations of developing web applications and iPod/iPhone applications. So, basically, I'm looking for answers to these questions and the reasoning behind them: Do I take the introductory course in Java first, and then take the intro course in C, or Do I take C first and then take Java? Is there any reason not to take them concurrently? Should I skip C altogether as Java covers everything I need to know? EDIT: Thanks everyone for your thoughtful and insightful responses.

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How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

- by Rob

My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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is it better to test if a function is needed inside or outside of it?

- by b0x0rz

what is the best practice? call a function then return if you test for something, or test for something then call? i prefer the test inside of function because it makes an easier viewing of what functions are called. for example: protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.FixURLCosmetics(); } and private void FixURLCosmetics() { HttpContext context = HttpContext.Current; if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; string url = context.Request.RawUrl.ToString(); bool doRedirect = false; // remove > default.aspx if (url.EndsWith("/default.aspx", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { url = url.Substring(0, url.Length - 12); doRedirect = true; } // remove > www if (url.Contains("//www")) { url = url.Replace("//www", "//"); doRedirect = true; } // redirect if necessary if (doRedirect) { context.Response.Redirect(url); } } is this good: if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; or should that test be done in Application_BeginRequest? what is better? thnx

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Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

- by johncatfish

Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" />  </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" />  Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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HTML, CSS: overbar matching square root symbol

- by Pindatjuh

Is there a way in HTML and/or CSS to do the following, but then correctly: √¯¯¯¯¯¯φ·(2π−γ) Such that there is an overbar above the expression, which neatly aligns with the √? I know there is the Unicode ¯, that looks like the overbar I need (as used in the above example, though as you can see – it doesn't align well with the root symbol). The solution I'm looking for works at least for one standard font, on most sizes, and all modern browsers. I can't use images; I'd like to have a pure HTML4/CSS way, without client scripting. Here is my current code, thank you Matthew Jones (+1) for the text-decoration: overline! Still some problems <div style="font-family: Georgia; font-size: 200%"> <span style="vertical-align: -15%;">√</span><span style="text-decoration: overline;"> x + 1 </span> </div> The line doesn't match the √ because I lowered it with 15% baseline height. (Because the default placement is not nice) The line thickness doesn't match the thickness of the √. Thanks!

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Regarding the ViewModel

- by mizipzor

Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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Javascript to check if there is flash player installed and redirect to the neededn page.

- by themajiks

Hi. I have this script. This determines if there is a flash player installed in the browser, it redirects the browser to a flash website. if not, then it opens a non-flash website. The Code is here: <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScript">  </SCRIPT> What i want is to embed this code in the non-flash index page. it should just check if there is no flash then simply go with the current index file that already has been opened, or if there is no flash player, then load the index file from within the flash website. Currently, when index.html (non-flash) is opened, it goes into loop and keeps on checking for the flash player. Can I modify the window.location='index.html'; statement no to load any file here, just go on with the file already opened.??

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C# Type conversion between two similar Datatable objects

- by Ali

I have .NET project with sync framework and two separate Datasets for MS SQL and Compact SQL. in my base class I have a generic DataTable object. in my derived classed I assign Typed DataTable to the generic object based on whether the application is operating online or offline: example: if (online) _dataTable = new MSSQLDataSet.Customer; else _dataTable = new CompactSQLDataSet.Customer; Now every where in my code i have to check and do a cast based on the current network mode like this: public void changeCustomerID(int ID) { if (online) (MSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable)_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value; else (CompactMSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable)_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value; } but I don't think this is very efficient and I believe it can be done in a smarter way to only use one line of code by dynamically getting the Type of _dataTable on the run time. my problem is at the design time, in order to acess datatable porperties such as "CustomerID" it has to be casted to either MSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable or CompactMSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable. Is there a way to have a function or a operator to convert the _datatable to its runtime type but still be able to use it's design time properties which are the same between the two types? something like: ((aType)_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value; //or GetRuntimeType(_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value;

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How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

- by Chad Johnson

Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

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CompositionHost.Initialize() can not execute twice.

- by Khoa

I am currently try to integrate MEF and PRISM to work with each other. Everything is working fine so far. Now i would like to use MEF runtime module discovery (DeploymentCatalog) which will be used to download XAPs from server directory and then plug it into one of the Region inside my MAIN UI. I am using UnityBootStrapper and inside this class i also integrated MEF container. This sample application is based on Glenn Block (http://codebetter.com/glennblock/2010/01/03/mef-and-prism-exploration-mef-module-loading/). The following code is used to initialize CompositionContainer inside my Bootstrapper: // This is the host catalog which contains all parts of running assembly. var catalog = GetHostCatalog(); // Create MEF container which initial catalog var container = new CompositionContainer(catalog); // here we explicitly map a part to make it available on imports elsewhere, using // Unity to resolve the export so dependencies are resolved // We do this because region manager is third-party ... therefore, we need to // export explicitly because the implementation doesn't have its own [export] tag container.ComposeExportedValue<IRegionManager>(Container.Resolve<IRegionManager>()); container.ComposeExportedValue<IEventAggregator>(Container.Resolve<IEventAggregator>()); // Obtain CatalogService as a singleton // All dynamic modules will use this service to add its parts. Container.RegisterInstance<ICatalogService>(new CatalogService(catalog)); // Initialize the container CompositionHost.Initialize(container); Now i have another class called DeploymentCatalogService which is used to download the XAP from server. The current problem i am facing is that inside DeploymentCatalogService Initialize method, CompositionHost container is try to initialize its container with aggregateCatalog again. _aggregateCatalog = new AggregateCatalog(); _aggregateCatalog.Catalogs.Add(new DeploymentCatalog()); CompositionHost.Initialize(_aggregateCatalog); This causes an Exception which stated that The container has already been initialized. Is there a way to use the existing container and update it with the new aggregateCatalog? Hope this is not too confusing. Please be nice i am still new to MEF. Cheers,

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How to populate html combo box with mysql data

- by user225269

Please help, I'm having trouble loading mysql data on the combo box. The data that I'm loading is 1 column from a table. Here is my current code, and it crashed firefox for some reason: <td colspan=”2?>Religion</TD> <td> <select name="REL" onClick="submitCboSemester();"> <?php $query_disp="SELECT * FROM Religion ORDER BY RID"; $result_disp = mysql_query($query_disp, $conn); while($query_data = mysql_fetch_array($result_disp)) { ?> <option value="<? echo $query_data["RID"]; ?>"<?php if ($query_data["RID"]==$_POST['REL']) {?>selected<? } ?>><? echo $query_data["RELIGION"]; ?></option> <? } ?> </select> </td> The column is RELIGION and it ID is RID How do I populate the combo box with all the data in the column RELIGION

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