Search Results

Search found 20388 results on 816 pages for 'nvidia current'.

Page 679/816 | < Previous Page | 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686  | Next Page >

  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to split HTML using DOMDocument?

    - by Lynn Adrianna
    Using DOMDocument, is it possible to split a block of HTML by text wrapped in tags and those that are not, while maintaining the order? Sorry, if this doesn't make sense. My example should make it clear. Let's say I have the following block of HTML: text1<b style="color:pink">text2</b>text3<b>text4</b> <b style="font-weight:bold">text5</b> Is it possible create an array as such: array( [0] => text1 [1] => <b style="color:pink">text2</b> [2] => text3 [3] => <b>text4</b> [4] => [5] => <b style="font-weight:bold">text5</b> ) Below is my current working solution, which uses a regular expression, to split the HTML. $tokens = preg_split('/(<b\b[^>]*>.*?<\/b>)/i', $html, null, PREG_SPLIT_DELIM_CAPTURE); However, I always read that it is a bad idea to parse HTML using regular expressions, so was just wondering if there is a better way.

    Read the article

  • How do I detect proximity of the mouse pointer to a line in Flex?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I'm working on a charting UI in Flex. One of the features I want to implement is "snapping" of the mousepointer to the data points in the diagram. I. e., if the user hovers the mouse pointer over a line diagram and gets close to the data point, I want the pointer to move to the exact coordinates and show a marker, like this: Currently, the lines are drawn on a Shape, using the Graphics API. The Shape is a child DisplayObject of a custom UIComponent subclass with the exact same dimensions. This means, I already get mouseOver events on the parent of the diagram's canvas. Now I need a way to detect if the pointer is close to one of the data points. I. e. I need an answer to the question "Which data points lie within a radius of x pixels from my current position and which of them is closest?" upon each move of the mouse. I can think of the following possibilities: draw the lines not as simple lines in the graphics API, but as more advanced objects that can have their own mouseOver events. However, I want the snapping to trigger before the mouse is actually over the line. check the original data for possible candidates upon each mouse movement. Using binary search, I might be able to reduce the number of items I have to compare sufficently. prepare some kind of new data structure from the raw data that makes the above search more efficient. I don't know how that would look like. I'm guessing this is a pretty standard problem for a number of applications, but probably the actual code usually is inside of some framework. Is there anything I can read about this topic?

    Read the article

  • Why is TRest in Tuple<T1... TRest> not constrained?

    - by Anthony Pegram
    In a Tuple, if you have more than 7 items, you can provide an 8th item that is another tuple and define up to 7 items, and then another tuple as the 8th and on and on down the line. However, there is no constraint on the 8th item at compile time. For example, this is legal code for the compiler: var tuple = new Tuple<int, int, int, int, int, int, int, double> (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1d); Even though the intellisense documentation says that TRest must be a Tuple. You do not get any error when writing or building the code, it does not manifest until runtime in the form of an ArgumentException. You can roughly implement a Tuple in a few minutes, complete with a Tuple-constrained 8th item. I just wonder why it was left off the current implementation? Is it possibly a forward-compatibility issue where they could add more elements with a hypothetical C# 5? Short version of rough implementation interface IMyTuple { } class MyTuple<T1> : IMyTuple { public T1 Item1 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1) { Item1 = item1; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2> : MyTuple<T1> { public T2 Item2 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2) : base(item1) { Item2 = item2; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2, TRest> : MyTuple<T1, T2> where TRest : IMyTuple { public TRest Rest { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2, TRest rest) : base(item1, item2) { Rest = rest; } } ... var mytuple = new MyTuple<int, int, MyTuple<int>>(1, 1, new MyTuple<int>(1)); // legal var mytuple2 = new MyTuple<int, int, int>(1, 2, 3); // illegal

    Read the article

  • Should I invest in GraniteDS for Flex + Java development?

    - by Boden
    I'm new to Flex development, and RIAs in general. I've got a CRUD-style Java + Spring + Hibernate service on top of which I'm writing a Flex UI. Currently I'm using BlazeDS. This is an internal application running on a local network. It's become apparent to me that the way RIAs work is more similar to a desktop application than a web application in that we load up the entire model and work with it directly on the client (or at least the portion that we're interested in). This doesn't really jive well with BlazeDS because really it only supports remoting and not data management, thus it can become a lot of extra work to make sure that clients are in sync and to avoid reloading the model which can be large (especially since lazy loading is not possible). So it feels like what I'm left with is a situation where I have to treat my Flex application more like a regular old web application where I do a lot of fine grained loading of data. LiveCycle is too expensive. The free version of WebOrb for Java really only does remoting. Enter GraniteDS. As far as I can determine, it's the only free solution out there that has many of the data management features of LiveCycle. I've started to go through its documentation a bit and suddenly feel like it's yet another quagmire of framework that I'll have to learn just to get an application running. So my question(s) to the StackOverflow audience is: 1) do you recommend GraniteDS, especially if my current Java stack is Spring + Hibernate? 2) at what point do you feel like it starts to pay off? That is, at what level of application complexity do you feel that using GraniteDS really starts to make development that much better? In what ways?

    Read the article

  • Jquery Sorting by Letter

    - by Batfan
    I am using jquery to sort through a group of paragraph tags (kudos to Aaron Harun). It pulls the value "letter" (a letter) from the url string and displays only paragraphs that start with that letter. It hides all others and also consolidates the list so that there are no duplicates showing. See the code: var letter = '<?php echo(strlen($_GET['letter']) == 1) ? $_GET['letter'] : ''; ?>' function finish(){ var found_first = []; jQuery('p').each(function(){ if(jQuery(this).text().substr(0,1).toUpperCase() == letter){ if(found_first[jQuery(this).text()] != true){ jQuery(this).addClass('current-series'); found_first[jQuery(this).text()] = true; }else{ jQuery(this).hide(); } } else{ jQuery(this).hide();} }) } Been working with this all day and I have 2 Questions on this: Is there a way to get it to ignore the word 'The', if it's first? For example, if a paragraph starts with 'The Amazing', I would like it to show up on the 'A' page, not the 'T' page, like it currently is. Is there a way to have a single page for (all) numbers? For example, the url to the page would be something similar to domain.com/index.php?letter=0 and this would show only the paragraph tags that start with a number, any number. I can currently do this with single numbers but, I would like 1 page for all numbers.

    Read the article

  • http authentication fails in cucumber when adding @javascript tag

    - by JESii
    I have a feature in my Rials app that works just fine with the message "Responds to browser_basic_authorize" from the Background Given step. However, if I add a @javascript tag before the scenario, then my Background Given fails with "I don't know how to login". What's going wrong and how do I go about testing javascrpt interactions on my app? Background: Given I perform HTTP authentication as "<id>/<password>" When I go to the homepage Then I should see "Text-that-you-should-see-on-your-home-page" Scenario: Displaying injury causative factors Given I am on the new_incident_report page When I choose "incident_report_employee_following_procedures_true" Then I should see "Equipment failure?" Then I should not see "Lack of training" When /^I perform HTTP authentication as "([^\"]*)\/([^\"]*)"$/ do |username, password| puts "id/pswd: #{username}/#{password}" ### Following works ONLY if performed first before even going to a page!!! if page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_auth) puts 'Responds to basic_auth' page.driver.basic_auth(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to basic_authorize' page.driver.basic_authorize(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:browser) && page.driver.browser.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to browser_basic_authorize' page.driver.browser.basic_authorize(username, password) else raise "I don't know how to log in!" end end Rails 3.0.9, current gems, other tests passing.

    Read the article

  • How can I unit test a PHP class method that executes a command-line program?

    - by acoulton
    For a PHP application I'm developing, I need to read the current git revision SHA which of course I can get easily by using shell_exec or backticks to execute the git command line client. I have obviously put this call into a method of its very own, so that I can easily isolate and mock this for the rest of my unit tests. So my class looks a bit like this: class Task_Bundle { public function execute() { // Do things $revision = $this->git_sha(); // Do more things } protected function git_sha() { return `git rev-parse --short HEAD`; } } Of course, although I can test most of the class by mocking git_sha, I'm struggling to see how to test the actual git_sha() method because I don't see a way to create a known state for it. I don't think there's any real value in a unit test that also calls git rev-parse to compare the results? I was wondering about at least asserting that the command had been run, but I can't see any way to get a history of shell commands executed by PHP - even if I specify that PHP should use BASH rather than SH the history list comes up empty, I presume because the separate backticks executions are separate terminal sessions. I'd love to hear any suggestions for how I might test this, or is it OK to just leave that method untested and be careful with it when the app is being maintained in future?

    Read the article

  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

    Read the article

  • Calculating a consecutive streak in data

    - by Jura25
    I’m trying to calculate the maximum winning and losing streak in a dataset (i.e. the highest number of consecutive positive or negative values). I’ve found a somewhat related question here on StackOverflow and even though that gave me some good suggestions, the angle of that question is different, and I’m not (yet) experienced enough to translate and apply that information to this problem. So I was hoping you could help me out, even an suggestion would be great. My data set look like this: > subRes Instrument TradeResult.Currency. 1 JPM -3 2 JPM 264 3 JPM 284 4 JPM 69 5 JPM 283 6 JPM -219 7 JPM -91 8 JPM 165 9 JPM -35 10 JPM -294 11 KFT -8 12 KFT -48 13 KFT 125 14 KFT -150 15 KFT -206 16 KFT 107 17 KFT 107 18 KFT 56 19 KFT -26 20 KFT 189 > split(subRes[,2],subRes[,1]) $JPM [1] -3 264 284 69 283 -219 -91 165 -35 -294 $KFT [1] -8 -48 125 -150 -206 107 107 56 -26 189 In this case, the maximum (winning) streak for JPM is four (namely the 264, 284, 69 and 283 consecutive positive results) and for KFT this value is 3 (107, 107, 56). My goal is to create a function which gives the maximum winning streaks per instrument (i.e. JPM: 4, KFT: 3). To achieve that: R needs to compare the current result with the previous result, and if it is higher then there is a streak of at least 2 consecutive positive results. Then R needs to look at the next value, and if this is also higher: add 1 to the already found value of 2. If this value isn’t higher, R needs to move on to the next value, while remembering 2 as the intermediate maximum. I’ve tried cumsum and cummax in accordance with conditional summing (like cumsum(c(TRUE, diff(subRes[,2]) > 0))), which didn’t work out. Also rle in accordance with lapply (like lapply(rle(subRes$TradeResult.Currency.), function(x) diff(x) > 0)) didn’t work. How can I make this work?

    Read the article

  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

    Read the article

  • vb.net sqlite how to loop through selected records and pass each record as a parameter to another fu

    - by mazrabul
    Hi, I have a sqlite table with following fields: Langauge level hours German 2 50 French 3 40 English 1 60 German 1 10 English 2 50 English 3 60 German 1 20 French 2 40 I want to loop through the records based on language and other conditions and then pass the current selected record to a different function. So I have the following mixture of actual code and psudo code. I need help with converting the psudo code to actual code, please. I am finding it difficult to do so. Here is what I have: Private sub mainp() Dim oslcConnection As New SQLite.SQLiteConnection Dim oslcCommand As SQLite.SQLiteCommand Dim langs() As String = {"German", "French", "English"} Dim i as Integer = 0 oslcConnection.ConnectionString = "Data Source=" & My.Settings.dbFullPath & ";" oslcConnection.Open() oslcCommand = oslcConnection.CreateCommand Do While i <= langs.count If langs(i) = "German" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If If langs(i) = "French" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If Loop End Sub Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Javascript storing properties and functions in variables

    - by richard
    Hello, I'm having trouble with my programming style and I hope to get some feedback here. I recently bought Javascript: The Good Parts and while I find this a big help, I'm still having trouble designing this application. Especially when it comes to writing function and methods. Example: I have a function that let's the user switches games in my app. This function updates game-specific information in the current view. var games = { active: Titanium.App.Properties.getString('active_game'), gameswitcher_positions: { 'Game 1': 0, 'Game 2': 1, 'Game 3': 2, 'Game 4': 3, 'Game 5': 4 }, change: function(game) { if (active_game !== game) { gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage.replace('_selected', ''); gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[game]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[game]].backgroundImage.replace('.png', '_selected.png'); events.update(game); this.active = game; } }, init: function() { gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage.replace('.png', '_selected.png'); events.update(this.active); } }; gameswitcher is a container view which contains buttons to switch games. I am not satisfied with this approach but I cannot think of a better one. Should I place the gameswitcher_positions outside of the variable in a seperate variable instead of as a property? And what about the active game? Please give me feedback, what am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • jQuery/JavaScript Date form validation

    - by Victor Jackson
    I am using the jQuery date picker calendar in a form. Once submitted the form passes params along via the url to a third party site. Everything works fine, except for one thing. If the value inserted into the date field by the datepicker calendar is subsequently deleted, or if the default date, that is in the form on page load, is deleted and the form is submitted I get the following error: "Conversion from string "" to type 'Date' is not valid." The solution to my problem is really simple, I want to validate the text field where the date is submitted and send out a default date (current date) if the field is empty for any reason. The problem is I am terrible at Javascript and cannot figure out how to do this. Here is the form code for my date field. [var('default_date' = date)] <input type="text" id="datepicker" name="txtdate" value="[$default_date]" onfocus="if (this.value == '[$default_date]') this.value = '';" onchange="form.BeginDate.value = this.value; form.EndDate.value = this.value;" /> <input type="hidden" name="BeginDate" value="[$default_date]"/> <input type="hidden" name="EndDate" value="[$default_date]"/>

    Read the article

  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

    Read the article

  • Producing a static HTML site from XML content

    - by Skilldrick
    I have a long document in XML from which I need to produce static HTML pages (for distribution via CD). I know (to varying degrees) JavaScript, PHP and Python. The current options I've considered are listed here: I'm not ruling out JavaScript, so one option would be to use ajax to dynamically load the XML content into HTML pages. Learn some basic XSLT and produce HTML to the correct spec this way. Produce the site with PHP (for example) and then generate a static site. Write a script (in Python for example) to convert the XML into HTML. This is similar to the XSLT option but without having to learn XSLT. Useful information: The XML will likely change at some point, so I'd like to be able to easily regenerate the site. I'll have to produce some kind of menu for jumping around the document (so I'll need to produce some kind of index of the content). I'd like to know if anyone has any better ideas that I haven't thought of. If not, I'd like you to tell me which of my options seems the most sensible. I think I know what I'm going to do, but I'd like a second opinion. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • XSLT 1.0: restrict entries in a nodeset

    - by Mike
    Hi, Being relatively new to XSLT I have what I hope is a simple question. I have some flat XML files, which can be pretty big (eg. 7MB) that I need to make 'more hierarchical'. For example, the flat XML might look like this: <D0011> .... .... and it should end up looking like this: <D0011> .... .... I have a working XSLT for this, and it essentially gets a nodeset of all the b elements and then uses the 'following-sibling' axis to get a nodeset of the nodes following the current b node (ie. following-sibling::*[position() =$nodePos]). Then recursion is used to add the siblings into the result tree until another b element is found (I have parameterised it of course, to make it more generic). I also have a solution that just sends the position in the XML of the next b node and selects the nodes after that one after the other (using recursion) via a *[position() = $nodePos] selection. The problem is that the time to execute the transformation increases unacceptably with the size of the XML file. Looking into it with XML Spy it seems that it is the 'following-sibling' and 'position()=' that take the time in the two respective methods. What I really need is a way of restricting the number of nodes in the above selections, so fewer comparisons are performed: every time the position is tested, every node in the nodeset is tested to see if its position is the right one. Is there a way to do that ? Any other suggestions ? Thanks, Mike

    Read the article

  • jQuery: show an element from select drop down, hide it when other option selected

    - by Ricardo Zea
    I've tried looking around and there are similar problems, but mine is way more simple, but yet, I can't find a solution within these forums. While learning jQuery, I'm trying to show a DIV when an item/option from a select drop down is selected, and hide that same DIV when any other option in the select drop down is selected. select HTML: <select name="source" id="source"> <option value="null" selected="selected">&mdash;Select&mdash;</option> <option value="s1">Source 1</option> <option value="s2">Source 2</option> <option value="sother">Other</option> </select> DIV I need to show when 'Other' is selected: <div id="specify-source">Other source here...</div> When any other option in the select menu is selected, the above DIV shouldn't be visible. I've tried this jQuery but of course it doesn't work properly: $(function() { $.viewMap = { 'sother' : $('#specify-source') }; $('#source').change(function() { // hide all $.each($.viewMap, function() { this.hide(); }); // show current $.viewMap[$(this).val()].show(); }); }); Any help you can give me, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Enum exeeding the 65535 bytes limit of static initializer... what's best to do?

    - by Daniel Bleisteiner
    I've started a rather large Enum of so called Descriptors that I've wanted to use as a reference list in my model. But now I've come across a compiler/VM limit the first time and so I'm looking for the best solution to handle this. Here is my error : The code for the static initializer is exceeding the 65535 bytes limit It is clear where this comes from - my Enum simply has far to much elements. But I need those elements - there is no way to reduce that set. Initialy I've planed to use a single Enum because I want to make sure that all elements within the Enum are unique. It is used in a Hibernate persistence context where the reference to the Enum is stored as String value in the database. So this must be unique! The content of my Enum can be devided into several groups of elements belonging together. But splitting the Enum would remove the unique safety I get during compile time. Or can this be achieved with multiple Enums in some way? My only current idea is to define some Interface called Descriptor and code several Enums implementing it. This way I hope to be able to use the Hibernate Enum mapping as if it were a single Enum. But I'm not even sure if this will work. And I loose unique safety. Any ideas how to handle that case?

    Read the article

  • XMLHttpRequest() and outputting csv file

    - by sjw
    Initially, I developed a javascript function to use window.open to post contents of a form to a new window which simply opened the new window and initiated a csv file download. Now on reflection, I find the opening of the window superfluous and am trying to just execute a XMLHttpRequest() to download the csv. I am not getting what I want and I'm not 100% sure that I can so I thought I'd ask here for some assistance. When a form is submitted, I want to take all the form values and post them to another page which builds an SQL string and builds a csv based on the contents. (This I can do and works fine with XMLHttpRequest() as seen below) var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); var parameters = ""; for ( i=0; i<formObj.elements.length; i++ ) { parameters += formObj.elements[i].name + "=" + encodeURI( formObj.elements[i].value ) + "&"; } xhReq.open("POST", outputLocation, false); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xhReq.send(parameters); document.write(xhReq.responseText); The code above calls the page ok, builds the csv ok, but it outputs the contents into the current browser window instead of initiating a csv file download. Can I achieve what I need using XMLHttpRequest() or am I going it about it the wrong way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is sending a hashed password over the wire a security hole?

    - by Ubiquitous Che
    I've come across a system that is in use by a company that we are considering partnering with on a medium-sized (for us, not them) project. They have a web service that we will need to integrate with. My current understanding of proper username/password management is that the username may be stored as plaintext in the database. Every user should have a unique pseudo-random salt, which may also be stored in plaintext. The text of their password must be concatenated with the salt and then this combined string may be hashed and stored in the database in an nvarchar field. So long as passwords are submitted to the website (or web service) over plaintext, everything should be just lovely. Feel free to rip into my understanding as summarized above if I'm wrong. Anyway, back to the subject at hand. The WebService run by this potential partner doesn't accept username and password, which I had anticipated. Instead, it accepts two string fields named 'Username' and 'PasswordHash'. The 'PasswordHash' value that I have been given does indeed look like a hash, and not just a value for a mis-named password field. This is raising a red flag for me. I'm not sure why, but I feel uncomfortable sending a hashed password over the wire for some reason. Off the top of my head I can't think of a reason why this would be a bad thing... Technically, the hash is available on the database anyway. But it's making me nervous, and I'm not sure if there's a reason for this or if I'm just being paranoid.

    Read the article

  • passenger won't spawn more than 6 instances despite passenger_max_pool_size = 30

    - by mrD
    I have some problems with passenger + nginx and hope someone might be able help me and direct me in the right direction. I've set the passenger_max_pool_size to 30 but passenger never spawns more than 6 instances. I'm loading a webpage that uses ajax to load 30 sub pages from the server but because passenger only spawns 6 instances they are queued. What makes me confused is that Waiting on global queue is 0 but I can see in my browser that everything gets queued. When the first 6 ajax requests are done the next 6 starts loading. What am I missing? :) This is the output from passenger-status (I had about 24 requests in the browser waiting for response from the server when I checked this status) ----------- General information ----------- max = 30 count = 6 active = 6 inactive = 0 Waiting on global queue: 0 ----------- Domains ----------- /srv/rails/production/current: PID: 28428 Sessions: 1 Processed: 42 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28424 Sessions: 1 Processed: 23 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28422 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28420 Sessions: 1 Processed: 22 Uptime: 6m 0s PID: 28426 Sessions: 1 Processed: 39 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28430 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s These are my passenger related settings in nginx.conf http { passenger_root /opt/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /opt/ruby/bin/ruby; passenger_max_pool_size 30;

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework autoincrement key

    - by Tommy Ong
    I'm facing an issue of duplicated incremental field on a concurrency scenario. I'm using EF as the ORM tool, attempting to insert an entity with a field that acts as a incremental INT field. Basically this field is called "SequenceNumber", where each new record before insert, will read the database using MAX to get the last SequenceNumber, append +1 to it, and saves the changes. Between the getting of last SequenceNumber and Saving, that's where the concurrency is happening. I'm not using ID for SequenceNumber as it is not a unique constraint, and may reset on certain conditions such as monthly, yearly, etc. InvoiceNumber | SequenceNumber | DateCreated INV00001_08_14 | 1 | 25/08/2014 INV00001_08_14 | 1 | 25/08/2014 <= (concurrency is creating two SeqNo 1) INV00002_08_14 | 2 | 25/08/2014 INV00003_08_14 | 3 | 26/08/2014 INV00004_08_14 | 4 | 27/08/2014 INV00005_08_14 | 5 | 29/08/2014 INV00001_09_14 | 1 | 01/09/2014 <= (sequence number reset) Invoice number is formatted based on the SequenceNumber. After some research I've ended up with these possible solutions, but wanna know the best practice 1) Optimistic Concurrency, locking the table from any reads until the current transaction is completed (not fancy of this idea as I guess performance will be of a great impact?) 2) Create a Stored Procedure solely for this purpose, does select and insert on a single statement as such concurrency is at minimum (would prefer a EF based approach if possible)

    Read the article

  • How to make use of Grails Dependencies in your IDE

    - by raoulsson
    Hi All, So I finally got my dependencies working with Grails. Now, how can my IDE, eg IntelliJ or Eclipse, take advantage of it? Or do I really have to manually manage what classes my IDE knows about at "development time"? If the BuildConfig.groovy script is setup right (see here), you will be able to code away with vi or your favorite editor without any troubles, then run grails compile which will resolve and download the dependencies into the Ivy cache and off you go... If, however, you are using an IDE like Eclipse or IntelliJ, you will need the dependencies at hand while coding. Obviously - as these animals will need them for the "real time" error detection/compilation process. Now, while it is certainly possible to code with all the classes shining up in bright red all over the place that are unknown to your IDE, it is certainly not much fun... The Maven support or whatever it is officially called lives happily with the pom file, no extra "jar directory" pointers needed, at least in IntelliJ. I would like to be able to do the same with Grails dependencies. Currently I am defining them in the BuildConfig.groovy and additionally I copy/paste the current jars around on my local disk and let the IDE point to it. Not very satisfactory, as I am working in a highly volatile project module environment with respect to code change. And this situation ports me directly into "jar hell", as my "develop- and build-dependencies" easily get out of sync and I have to manage manually, that is, with my brain... And my brain should be busy with other stuff... Thanks! Raoul P.S: I'm currently using Grails 1.2M4 and IntelliJ 92.105. But feel free to add answers on future versions of Grails and different, future IDEs, as the come in...

    Read the article

  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686  | Next Page >