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• How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

  - by Atomiton

  There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

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• Collapsed Visibility Within a WPF ComboBoxItem

  - by user832747

  I used a Style setter to stretch out my ComboBoxItem (and button) so that it spans the entire length of the ComboBox like so: <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> This works fine. Now, I add an additional button within the same ComboBoxItem, but have it set to Visibility Collapsed. <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> <Button Content="My Collapsed Button" Visibility="Collapsed" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> Now, the new button is invisible, but I expected my original button to still stretch the entire ComboBox, like it does with the above code. However, it does not. Why is this so? Is there a solution for this? I am using DataTriggers to edit the Visibility property. NOTE: I also get the same thing if I just set HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" in the ComboBox. UPDATE: Ok, this actually has something to do with the DockPanel. I changed it to a StackPanel, and it works as desired. However, I suppose I'm still curious as to why my first button would not stretch the entire DockPanel if the second button is collapsed?

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• Is One Tool or a Suite of Tools Better for Scrum?

  - by Rob Wells

  G'day, Edit: We've been using Scrum very successfully for several years on several projects of varying sizes. In fact, our team developed the successful iPlayer project for the BBC using a classical Scrum approach. After using various combinations of tools, some high-tech, some low-tech, across these projects we now wish to try adopting a suitable tool suite. Our manager is to some extent attempting to force the adoption of a single suite of tools for Scrum. I've looked at the SO question "Best Scrum tools" and most people seem to recommend either: a suite of low-tech solutions, e.g. whiteboards, post-its, index cards, etc., or a monolithic tool that tries to satisfy as much as possible of the process, e.g. Agilo, Mingle, ScrumWorks, Target Process, etc. Our team is currently evaluating several different Scrum tools. However, we are looking at selecting a single, monolithic tool, e.g. Agilo. All of the "one-stop" solutions have their strengths and weaknesses with the serious enterprise type solutions being the best sort of fit. But all have some short comings. After reading the paper "Peer Code Review: An Agile Process" over at SmartBear I started wondering if we were trying to force adoption of a tool on a "best fit" basis. I think you can take a couple of reference artefacts of the Scrum development process, say user stories, epics and themes, and the code base which must use a well-known SCM, e.g. SVN, Hg, etc. Then if we take that as the common reference points for the tools employed then we would be able to use a group of tools to handle the different aspects of the Scrum process rather than try forcing a fit of a single tool would is a bit like forcing a square peg into the round hole. In this way, providing you've agreed your common reference points, you can use several tools, each performing their role better than a could be done by a single component in a monolithic tool suite. Is this a more sensible approach? Are the two reference points I mentioned above suitable, or is their a better choice of points where the tools would meet? cheers,

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• jQuery CSS plugin that returns computed style of element to pseudo clone that element?

  - by Keith Bentrup

  I'm looking for a way using jQuery to return an object of computed styles for the 1st matched element. I could then pass this object to another call of jQuery's css method. For example, with width, I can do the following to make the 2 divs have the same width: $('#div2').width($('#div1').width()); It would be nice if I could make a text input look like an existing span: $('#input1').css($('#span1').css()); where .css() with no argument returns an object that can be passed to .css(obj). (I can't find a jQuery plugin for this, but it seems like it should exist. If it doesn't exist, I'll turn mine below into a plugin and post it with all the properties that I use.) Basically, I want to pseudo clone certain elements but use a different tag. For example, I have an li element that I want to hide and put an input element over it that looks the same. When the user types, it looks like they are editing the element inline. I'm also open to other approaches for this pseudo cloning problem for editing. Any suggestions? Here's what I currently have. The only problem is just getting all the possible styles. This could be a ridiculously long list. jQuery.fn.css2 = jQuery.fn.css; jQuery.fn.css = function() { if (arguments.length) return jQuery.fn.css2.apply(this, arguments); var attr = ['font-family','font-size','font-weight','font-style','color', 'text-transform','text-decoration','letter-spacing','word-spacing', 'line-height','text-align','vertical-align','direction','background-color', 'background-image','background-repeat','background-position', 'background-attachment','opacity','width','height','top','right','bottom', 'left','margin-top','margin-right','margin-bottom','margin-left', 'padding-top','padding-right','padding-bottom','padding-left', 'border-top-width','border-right-width','border-bottom-width', 'border-left-width','border-top-color','border-right-color', 'border-bottom-color','border-left-color','border-top-style', 'border-right-style','border-bottom-style','border-left-style','position', 'display','visibility','z-index','overflow-x','overflow-y','white-space', 'clip','float','clear','cursor','list-style-image','list-style-position', 'list-style-type','marker-offset']; var len = attr.length, obj = {}; for (var i = 0; i < len; i++) obj[attr[i]] = jQuery.fn.css2.call(this, attr[i]); return obj; } Edit: I've now been using the code above for awhile. It works well and behaves exactly like the original css method with one exception: if 0 args are passed, it returns the computed style object. As you can see, it immediately calls the original css method if that's the case that applies. Otherwise, it gets the computed styles of all the listed properties (gathered from Firebug's computed style list). Although it's getting a long list of values, it's quite fast. Hope it's useful to others.

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• Capture Highlighted Text from any window using C#

  - by dineshrekula

  How to read the highlighted/Selected Text from any window using c#. i tried 2 approaches. Send "^c" whenever user selects some thing. But in this case my clipboard is flooded with lots of unnecessary data. Sometime it copied passwords also. so i switched my approach to 2nd method, send message method. see this sample code [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern int GetFocus(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern bool AttachThreadInput(uint idAttach, uint idAttachTo, bool fAttach); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] static extern uint GetCurrentThreadId(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(int hWnd, int ProcessId); [DllImport("user32.dll") ] static extern int GetForegroundWindow(); [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = false)] static extern int SendMessage(int hWnd, int Msg, int wParam, StringBuilder lParam); // second overload of SendMessage [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern int SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, out int wParam, out int lParam); const int WM_SETTEXT = 12; const int WM_GETTEXT = 13; private string PerformCopy() { try { //Wait 5 seconds to give us a chance to give focus to some edit window, //notepad for example System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(500); int foregroundWindowHandle = GetForegroundWindow(); uint remoteThreadId = GetWindowThreadProcessId(foregroundWindowHandle, 0); uint currentThreadId = GetCurrentThreadId(); //AttachTrheadInput is needed so we can get the handle of a focused window in another app AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, true); //Get the handle of a focused window int focused = GetFocus(); //Now detach since we got the focused handle AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, false); //Get the text from the active window into the stringbuilder SendMessage(focused, WM_GETTEXT, builder.Capacity, builder); return builder.ToString(); } catch (System.Exception oException) { throw oException; } } this code working fine in Notepad. But if i try to capture from another applications like Mozilla firefox, or Visual Studio IDE, it's not returning the text. Can anybody please help me, where i am doing wrong? First of all, i have chosen the right approach?

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• Regex slow on Windows Server 2008

  - by pjmyburg

  Hi I have a situation where my regular expressions compile extremely slowly on Windows Server 2008. I wrote a small console application to highlight this issue. The app generates its own input and builds up a Regex from words in an XML file. I built a release version of this app and ran it both on my personal laptop (running XP) and the Windows 2008 server. The regular expression took 0.21 seconds to compile on my laptop, but 23 seconds to compile on the server. Any ideas what could be causing this? The problem is only on first use of the Regex (when it is first compiled - thereafter it is fine) I have also found another problem - when using \s+ in the regular expression on the same Windows 2008 server, the memory balloons (uses 4GB+) and the compilation of the Regex never finishes. Is there a known issue with Regex and 64 bit .net? Is there a fix/patch available for this? I cannot really find any info on the net, but I have found a few articles about this same issues in Framework 2.0 - surely this has been fixed by now? More info: The server is running the 64 bit version of the .net framework (3.5 SP1) and on my laptop I have Visual Studio 2008 and the 3.5 framework installed. The regular expression is of the following pattern: ^word$|^word$|^word$ and is constructed with the following flags: RegexOptions.IgnoreCase | RegexOptions.Compiled Edit: Here is a code snippet: StringBuilder regexString = new StringBuilder(); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(fileLocation)) { XmlTextReader textReader = new XmlTextReader(fileLocation); textReader.Read(); while (textReader.Read()) { textReader.MoveToElement(); if (textReader.Name == "word") { regexString.Append("^" + textReader.GetAttribute(0) + "$|"); } } ProfanityFilter = new Regex(regexString.ToString(0, regexString.Length - 1), RegexOptions.IgnoreCase | RegexOptions.Compiled); } DateTime time = DateTime.Now; Console.WriteLine("\nIsProfane:\n" + ProfanityFilter.IsMatch("test")); Console.WriteLine("\nTime: " + (DateTime.Now - time).TotalSeconds); Console.ReadKey(); This results in a time of 0.21 seconds on my laptop and 23 seconds on the 2008 server. The XML file consists of 168 words in the following format: <word text="test" />

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• PHP: How to find connections between users so I can create a closed friend circle?

  - by CuSS

  Hi all, First of all, I'm not trying to create a social network, facebook is big enough! (comic) I've chosen this question as example because it fits exactly on what I'm trying to do. Imagine that I have in MySQL a users table and a user_connections table with 'friend requests'. If so, it would be something like this: Users Table: userid username 1 John 2 Amalia 3 Stewie 4 Stuart 5 Ron 6 Harry 7 Joseph 8 Tiago 9 Anselmo 10 Maria User Connections Table: userid_request userid_accepted 2 3 7 2 3 4 7 8 5 6 4 5 8 9 4 7 9 10 6 1 10 7 1 2 Now I want to find circles between friends and create a structure array and put that circle on the database (none of the arrays can include the same friends that another has already). Return Example: // First Circle of Friends Circleid => 1 CircleStructure => Array( 1 => 2, 2 => 3, 3 => 4, 4 => 5, 5 => 6, 6 => 1, ) // Second Circle of Friends Circleid => 2 CircleStructure => Array( 7 => 8, 8 => 9, 9 => 10, 10 => 7, ) I'm trying to think of an algorithm to do that, but I think it will take a lot of processing time because it would randomly search the database until it 'closes' a circle. PS: The minimum structure length of a circle is 3 connections and the limit is 100 (so the daemon doesn't search the entire database) EDIT: I've think on something like this: function browse_user($userget='random',$users_history=array()){ $user = user::get($userget); $users_history[] = $user['userid']; $connections = user::connection::getByUser($user['userid']); foreach($connections as $connection){ $userid = ($connection['userid_request']!=$user['userid']) ? $connection['userid_request'] : $connection['userid_accepted']; // Start the circle array if(in_array($userid,$users_history)) return array($user['userid'] => $userid); $res = browse_user($userid, $users_history); if($res!==false){ // Continue the circle array return $res + array($user['userid'] => $userid); } } return false; } while(true){ $res = browse_user(); // Yuppy, friend circle found! if($res!==false){ user::circle::create($res); } // Start from scratch again! } The problem with this function is that it could search the entire database without finding the biggest circle, or the best match.

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• How to find minimum of nonlinear, multivariate function using Newton's method (code not linear algeb

  - by Norman Ramsey

  I'm trying to do some parameter estimation and want to choose parameter estimates that minimize the square error in a predicted equation over about 30 variables. If the equation were linear, I would just compute the 30 partial derivatives, set them all to zero, and use a linear-equation solver. But unfortunately the equation is nonlinear and so are its derivatives. If the equation were over a single variable, I would just use Newton's method (also known as Newton-Raphson). The Web is rich in examples and code to implement Newton's method for functions of a single variable. Given that I have about 30 variables, how can I program a numeric solution to this problem using Newton's method? I have the equation in closed form and can compute the first and second derivatives, but I don't know quite how to proceed from there. I have found a large number of treatments on the web, but they quickly get into heavy matrix notation. I've found something moderately helpful on Wikipedia, but I'm having trouble translating it into code. Where I'm worried about breaking down is in the matrix algebra and matrix inversions. I can invert a matrix with a linear-equation solver but I'm worried about getting the right rows and columns, avoiding transposition errors, and so on. To be quite concrete: I want to work with tables mapping variables to their values. I can write a function of such a table that returns the square error given such a table as argument. I can also create functions that return a partial derivative with respect to any given variable. I have a reasonable starting estimate for the values in the table, so I'm not worried about convergence. I'm not sure how to write the loop that uses an estimate (table of value for each variable), the function, and a table of partial-derivative functions to produce a new estimate. That last is what I'd like help with. Any direct help or pointers to good sources will be warmly appreciated. Edit: Since I have the first and second derivatives in closed form, I would like to take advantage of them and avoid more slowly converging methods like simplex searches.

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• Mock static method Activator.CreateInstance to return a mock of another class

  - by Jeep87c

  I have this factory class and I want to test it correctly. Let's say I have an abstract class which have many child (inheritance). As you can see in my Factory class the method BuildChild, I want to be able to create an instance of a child class at Runtime. I must be able to create this instance during Runtime because the type won't be know before runtime. And, I can NOT use Unity for this project (if so, I would not ask how to achieve this). Here's my Factory class that I want to test: public class Factory { public AnAbstractClass BuildChild(Type childType, object parameter) { AnAbstractClass child = (AnAbstractClass) Activator.CreateInstance(childType); child.Initialize(parameter); return child; } } To test this, I want to find a way to Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return my own mocked object of a child class. How can I achieve this? Or maybe if you have a better way to do this without using Activator.CreateInstance (and Unity), I'm opened to it if it's easier to test and mock! I'm currently using Moq to create my mocks but since Activator.CreateInstance is a static method from a static class, I can't figure out how to do this (I already know that Moq can only create mock instances of objects). I took a look at Fakes from Microsoft but without success (I had some difficulties to understand how it works and to find some well explained examples). Please help me! EDIT: I need to mock Activator.CreateInstance because I want to force this method to return another mocked object. The correct thing I want is only to stub this method (not to mock it). So when I test BuildChild like this: [TestMethod] public void TestBuildChild() { var mockChildClass = new Mock(AChildClass); // TODO: Stub/Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return mockChildClass when called with "type" and "parameter" as follow. var type = typeof(AChildClass); var parameter = "A parameter"; var child = this._factory.BuildChild(type, parameters); } Activator.CreateInstance called with type and parameter will return my mocked object instead of creating a new instance of the real child class (not yet implemented).

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• Justifying UIVIews on the iPhone: Algorithm Help

  - by coneybeare

  I have been messing around with a way to justify align a collection of UIView subclasses within a containing view. I am having a little bit of trouble with the algorithm and was hoping someone could help spot my errors. Here is pseudocode of where I am now: // 1 see how many items there are int count = [items count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left in the containing view float whitespace = [containingView width] - [items totalWidth]; // 3 Figure out the extra left margin to be applied to items[1] through items[count-1] float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 Figure out the size of every subcontainer if it was evenly split float subcontainerWidth = [containingView width]/count; // 5 Apply the margin, starting at the second item for (int i = 1; i < [items count]; i++) { UIView *item = [items objectAtIndex:i]; [item setLeftMargin:(margin + i*subcontainerWidth)]; } The items do not appear to be evenly spaced here. Not even close. Where am I going wrong? Here is a shot of this algorithm in action: EDIT: The code above is pseudocode. I added the actual code here but it might not make sense if you are not familiar with the three20 project. @implementation TTTabStrip (JustifiedBarCategory) - (CGSize)layoutTabs { CGSize size = [super layoutTabs]; CGPoint contentOffset = _scrollView.contentOffset; _scrollView.frame = self.bounds; _scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(size.width + kTabMargin, self.height); CGFloat contentWidth = size.width + kTabMargin; if (contentWidth < _scrollView.size.width) { // do the justify logic // see how many items there are int count = [_tabViews count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left float whitespace = _scrollView.size.width - contentWidth; // 3 increase the margin on those items somehow to reflect. it should be (whitespace) / count-1 float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 figure out starting point float itemWidth = (_scrollView.size.width-kTabMargin)/count; // apply the margin for (int i = 1; i < [_tabViews count]; i++) { TTTab *tab = [_tabViews objectAtIndex:i]; [tab setLeft:(margin + i*itemWidth)]; } } else { // do the normal, scrollbar logic _scrollView.contentOffset = contentOffset; } return size; } @end

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• How to update strongly typed Html.DropDownList using Jquery

  - by Remnant

  I have a webpage with two radiobuttons and a dropdownlist as follows: <div class="sectionheader">Course <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("CourseSelection", Model.CourseList, new { @class = "dropdown" })%> </div> <div class="radiobuttons"><label><%=Html.RadioButton("CourseType", "Advanced", false )%> Advanced </label></div> <div class="radiobuttons"><label><%=Html.RadioButton("CourseType", "Beginner", true )%> Beginner </label></div> </div> The dropdownlist is strongly typed and populated with Model.CourseList (NB - on the first page load, 'Beginner' is the default selection and the dropdown shows the beginner course options accordingly) What I want to be able to do is to update the DropDownList based on which radiobutton is selected i.e. if 'Advanced' selected then show one list of course options in dropdown, and if 'Beginner' selected then show another list of courses. The code I would like to call sits within my Controller: public JsonResult UpdateDropDown(string courseType) { IDropDownList dropdownlistRepository = new DropDownListRepository(); IEnumerable<SelectListItem> courseList = dropdownlistRepository.GetCourseList(courseType); return Json(courseList); } Edit - Updated below to show latest position Using examples provided in jQuery in Action, I now have the following jQuery code: $('.radiobuttons input:radio').click(function() { var courseType = $(this).val(); //Get selected courseType from radiobutton var dropdownList = $(".dropdown"); //Ref for dropdownlist $.getJSON("/ByCourse/UpdateDropDown", { courseType: courseType }, function(data) { $(dropdownList).loadSelect(data); }); }); The loadSelect function is taken straight from the book and is as follows: (function($) { $.fn.emptySelect = function() { return this.each(function() { if (this.tagName == 'SELECT') this.options.length = 0; }); } $.fn.loadSelect = function(optionsDataArray) { return this.emptySelect().each(function() { if (this.tagName == 'SELECT') { var selectElement = this; $.each(optionsDataArray, function(index, optionData) { var option = new Option(optionData.Text, optionData.Value); if ($.browser.msie) { selectElement.add(option); } else { selectElement.add(option, null); } }); } }); } })(jQuery); 1 day+ later I still cannot get this to work. Assuming the jQuery code is correct then I can only think that the issue is with retrieving the actual data with $getJSON. I have verified that JsonResult UpdateDropDown does actually retrieve valid data. What am I missing? Assembly reference? (NB: I have MicrosoftAjax.js and MicrosoftMvcAjax.js in my head tags of the master page Should JsonResult be ActionResult? (I have seen both used in samples on web) Do I need to register route Controller/UpdateDropDown in Global.asax? Any further guidance would be appreciated.

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• 'template' .SWF that uses other .swf's and .jpg's in it (by xml generated in .php) works only locall

  - by Andy

  My problem is that a .swf I would like to put on my website works only when requested locally. When requested from my home web server or company web server it doesn't work. I believe all files are in the proper folders and all links are well, otherwise it wouldn't work locally. Now, the SWF I place on the html page has several shapes, fonts, texts, buttons, scripts and frames. The scripts are in v1.0 and descrive how the SWF should behave. The SWF uses 2 different JPG's and 3 different SWF's. It also has a .php file with xml in it which tells the main SWF which JPG's and SWF's to use and where to find them. The main script in the main SWF also links to this .php file. So everything works properly when opening the SWF locally in IE like U:\common\templates\dynamic.swf Everythins shows perfectly. When requesting exactly the same file, but with a domain (as I can access the web server folder like a local drive) only the main .swf shows which is black with some test forms etc in it. PHP is enabled on the server. This is my code in the .php I just edited some links to conceal domains and file names: <?xml version="1.0" ?><dynamic_content> <item blurb="Text 1" content_timer="8000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0x000000" tab_border_color="0x000000" tab_color="0x000000" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/file.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="http://sub.domain.com" content_source="/template/images/file.swf" content_target="_self" ></item> <item blurb="Text 2" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/file.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="http://www.domain.com/" content_source="/template/images/file.swf" content_target="_self" ></item> <item blurb="Text 3" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/file.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="http://www.domain.com/page.html" content_source="/template/images/file.swf" content_target="_self" ></item></dynamic_content> So you understand, it's a dynamic SWF that is built up by other pics and swf's. It's easier to change the php and put new files on the server than build a new flash file everytime etc and it's quite difficult to built some functionality in one swf when using other swf files. What could be the problem here that it works well when incurred locally but not from a server (using the domain etc) Any help is much appreciated. Thanks! EDIT: When I open the .swf in firefox by using the direct link to the .swf, the status bars hangs on 'Waiting for www.domain.com... (domain = mydomain) Maybe this is of any help?

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• LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

  - by bradhe

  So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

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• How do I solve an AntiForgeryToken exception that occurs after an iisreset in my ASP.Net MVC app?

  - by Colin Newell

  I’m having problems with the AntiForgeryToken in ASP.Net MVC. If I do an iisreset on my web server and a user continues with their session they get bounced to a login page. Not terrible but then the AntiForgery token blows up and the only way to get going again is to blow away the cookie on the browser. With the beta version of version 1 it used to go wrong when reading the cookie back in for me so I used to scrub it before asking for a validation token but that was fixed when it was released. For now I think I’ll roll back to my code that fixed the beta problem but I can’t help but think I’m missing something. Is there a simpler solution, heck should I just drop their helper and create a new one from scratch? I get the feeling that a lot of the problem is the fact that it’s tied so deeply into the old ASP.Net pipeline and is trying to kludge it into doing something it wasn’t really designed to do. I had a look in the source code for the ASP.Net MVC 2 RC and it doesn't look like the code has changed much so while I haven't tried it, I don't think there are any answers there. Here is the relevant part of the stack trace of the exception. Edit: I just realised I didn't mention that this is just trying to insert the token on the GET request. This isn't the validation that occurs when you do a POST kicking off. System.Web.Mvc.HttpAntiForgeryException: A required anti-forgery token was not supplied or was invalid. ---> System.Web.HttpException: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. ---> System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. Client IP: 127.0.0.1 Port: 4991 User-Agent: scrubbed ViewState: scrubbed Referer: blah Path: /oursite/Account/Login ---> System.Security.Cryptography.CryptographicException: Padding is invalid and cannot be removed. at System.Security.Cryptography.RijndaelManagedTransform.DecryptData(Byte[] inputBuffer, Int32 inputOffset, Int32 inputCount, Byte[]& outputBuffer, Int32 outputOffset, PaddingMode paddingMode, Boolean fLast) at System.Security.Cryptography.RijndaelManagedTransform.TransformFinalBlock(Byte[] inputBuffer, Int32 inputOffset, Int32 inputCount) at System.Security.Cryptography.CryptoStream.FlushFinalBlock() at System.Web.Configuration.MachineKeySection.EncryptOrDecryptData(Boolean fEncrypt, Byte[] buf, Byte[] modifier, Int32 start, Int32 length, IVType ivType, Boolean useValidationSymAlgo) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.Deserialize(String inputString) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.UI.ViewStateException.ThrowError(Exception inner, String persistedState, String errorPageMessage, Boolean macValidationError) at System.Web.UI.ViewStateException.ThrowMacValidationError(Exception inner, String persistedState) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.Deserialize(String inputString) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.System.Web.UI.IStateFormatter.Deserialize(String serializedState) at System.Web.Mvc.AntiForgeryDataSerializer.Deserialize(String serializedToken) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Mvc.AntiForgeryDataSerializer.Deserialize(String serializedToken) at System.Web.Mvc.HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie(String salt, String domain, String path) at System.Web.Mvc.HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken(String salt, String domain, String path)

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• Using embedded resources in Silverlight (4) - other cultures not being compiled

  - by Andrei Rinea

  I am having a bit of a hard time providing localized strings for the UI in a small Silverlight 4 application. Basically I've put a folder "Resources" and placed two resource files in it : Statuses.resx Statuses.ro.resx I do have an enum Statuses : public enum Statuses { None, Working } and a convertor : public class StatusToMessage : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (!Enum.IsDefined(typeof(Status), value)) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("value"); } var x = Statuses.None; return Statuses.ResourceManager.GetString(((Status)value).ToString(), Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } in the view I have a textblock : <TextBlock Grid.Column="3" Text="{Binding Status, Converter={StaticResource StatusToMessage}}" /> Upon view rendering the converter is called but no matter what the Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture is set it always returns the default culture value. Upon further inspection I took apart the XAP resulted file, taken the resulted DLL file to Reflector and inspected the embedded resources. It only contains the default resource!! Going back to the two resource files I am now inspecting their properties : Build action : Embedded Resource Copy to output directory : Do not copy Custom tool : ResXFileCodeGenerator Custom tool namespace : [empty] Both resource (.resx) files have these settings. The .Designer.cs resulted files are as follows : Statuses.Designer.cs : //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace SilverlightApplication5.Resources { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] internal class Statuses { // ... yadda-yadda Statuses.ro.Designer.cs [empty] I've taken both files and put them in a console application and they behave as expected in it, not like in this silverlight application. What is wrong?

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• Personal Project - Next practical language/tech to learn

  - by Paul Nathan

  I'm working on a personal project doing some finance analysis. It's a totally new field for me, and I'm really having fun with it so far, plus working in the high-level language arena is a great break from my embedded systems daytime work. I have a MySQL backend on a non-local server with a pile of stock data. My task now is to do some analysis of the stocks and produce something approximating a useful result. There are a couple technical difficulties. (1) I have a lot of records. To be precise, I believe I'm near 100K records right now, and this number grows by 6.1K each weekday. I need to create a way to rummage through these fields and do data analysis - based on a given computation, go look at this other set. Fine and dandy, nothing too outre. But this means I could really use a straightforward API for talking to MySQL. (2) Ideally, it runs on OS X 10.4.11. No Windows/Linux machine at home. (3) I can use PHP, C++, Perl, etc. I even have an R installation. I'm pretty flexible with stuff, so long as it runs on OS X. (Lots of options here, pick water, H20, or dihydrogen monoxide ;-) ) (4)Lack of hassle. While I like clever and fun ways of doing things, I'm trying to get some analysis done, not spend ten hours doing installation work and scratching my head figuring out a theoretical syntax question needed to spout out "hello world". What's the question? I'd like to dig into something different than my usual PHP/C++/C toolset. I'm looking for recommendations for languages/technologies that will assist me and meet the above requirements. In particular, I've heard a lot of buzz about F# and Python on SO. I've used CLISP for small problems before, and kinda liked it. I'm seeking opinions about those in particular. edit:since I rent the DB server and have a limited amount of CPU time online, I'm trying to do the analysis on a local machine.

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• Catching an exception class within a template

  - by Todd Bauer

  I'm having a problem using the exception class Overflow() for a Stack template I'm creating. If I define the class regularly there is no problem. If I define the class as a template, I cannot make my call to catch() work properly. I have a feeling it's simply syntax, but I can't figure it out for the life of me. #include<iostream> #include<exception> using namespace std; template <class T> class Stack { private: T *stackArray; int size; int top; public: Stack(int size) { this->size = size; stackArray = new T[size]; top = 0; } ~Stack() { delete[] stackArray; } void push(T value) { if (isFull()) throw Overflow(); stackArray[top] = value; top++; } bool isFull() { if (top == size) return true; else return false; } class Overflow {}; }; int main() { try { Stack<double> Stack(5); Stack.push( 5.0); Stack.push(10.1); Stack.push(15.2); Stack.push(20.3); Stack.push(25.4); Stack.push(30.5); } catch (Stack::Overflow) { cout << "ERROR! The stack is full.\n"; } return 0; } The problem is in the catch (Stack::Overflow) statement. As I said, if the class is not a template, this works just fine. However, once I define it as a template, this ceases to work. I've tried all sorts of syntaxes, but I always get one of two sets of error messages from the compiler. If I use catch(Stack::Overflow): ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2316: 'Stack::Overflow' : cannot be caught as the destructor and/or copy constructor are inaccessible EDIT: I meant If I use catch(Stack<double>::Overflow) or any variety thereof: ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2061: syntax error : identifier 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2310: catch handlers must specify one type ch18pr01.cpp(95) : error C2317: 'try' block starting on line '75' has no catch handlers I simply can not figure this out. Does anyone have any idea?

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• SQL Server stored procedures - update column based on variable name..?

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I have a data driven site with many stored procedures. What I want to eventually be able to do is to say something like: For Each @variable in sproc inputs UPDATE @TableName SET @variable.toString = @variable Next I would like it to be able to accept any number of arguments. It will basically loop through all of the inputs and update the column with the name of the variable with the value of the variable - for example column "Name" would be updated with the value of @Name. I would like to basically have one stored procedure for updating and one for creating. However to do this I will need to be able to convert the actual name of a variable, not the value, to a string. Question 1: Is it possible to do this in T-SQL, and if so how? Question 2: Are there any major drawbacks to using something like this (like performance or CPU usage)? I know if a value is not valid then it will only prevent the update involving that variable and any subsequent ones, but all the data is validated in the vb.net code anyway so will always be valid on submitting to the database, and I will ensure that only variables where the column exists are able to be submitted. Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard Clarke Edit: I know about using SQL strings and the risk of SQL injection attacks - I studied this a bit in my dissertation a few weeks ago. Basically the website uses an object oriented architecture. There are many classes - for example Product - which have many "Attributes" (I created my own class called Attribute, which has properties such as DataField, Name and Value where DataField is used to get or update data, Name is displayed on the administration frontend when creating or updating a Product and the Value, which may be displayed on the customer frontend, is set by the administrator. DataField is the field I will be using in the "UPDATE Blah SET @Field = @Value". I know this is probably confusing but its really complicated to explain - I have a really good understanding of the entire system in my head but I cant put it into words easily. Basically the structure is set up such that no user will be able to change the value of DataField or Name, but they can change Value. I think if I were to use dynamic parameterised SQL strings there will therefore be no risk of SQL injection attacks. I mean basically loop through all the attributes so that it ends up like: UPDATE Products SET [Name] = '@Name', Description = '@Description', Display = @Display Then loop through all the attributes again and add the parameter values - this will have the same effect as using stored procedures, right?? I dont mind adding to the page load time since this is mainly going to affect the administration frontend, and will marginly affect the customer frontend.

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• ASP.NET MVC3 Custom Membership Provider - The membership provider name specified is invalid.

  - by David Lively

  I'm implementing a custom membership provider, and everything seems to go swimmingly until I create a MembershipUser object. At that point, I receive the error: The membership provider name specified is invalid. Parameter name: providerName In web.config the membership key is <membership defaultProvider="MembersProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MembersProvider" type="Members.Providers.MembersProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" applicationName="DeviceDatabase" /> </providers> </membership> When creating the MembershipUser object from my custom User class: public static MembershipUser ToMembershipUser(User user) { MembershipUser member = new MembershipUser ("MembersProvider" , user.Name , user.Id , user.EmailAddress , user.PasswordQuestion , user.Comment , user.IsApproved , user.IsLockedOut , user.DateCreated , user.LastLoginDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastActivityDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastPasswordChangedDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastLockoutDate ?? DateTime.MinValue ); return member; } (I realize I could probably just inherit my User class from MembershipUser, but it's already part of an existing class hierarchy. I honestly think this is the first time I've encountered a legitimate need for for multiple inheritance!) My feeling is that the new MembershipUser(...) providerName parameter is supposed to match what's set in web.config, but, since they match already, I'm at a loss as to how to proceed. Is there a convenient way to get the name of the active membership provider in code? I'm starting to think that using the built-in membership system is overkill and more trouble than it's worth. Edit Not sure if it's relevant, but the custom membership provider class is in a class library, not the main WAP project. Update Here's the contents of the System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider object as show in the VS2010 command window: >eval System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} [Members.Providers.MembersProvider]: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} base {System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderBase}: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} ApplicationName: null EnablePasswordReset: true EnablePasswordRetrieval: false MaxInvalidPasswordAttempts: 5 MinRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters: 0 MinRequiredPasswordLength: 6 PasswordAttemptWindow: 10 PasswordFormat: Function evaluation was aborted. PasswordStrengthRegularExpression: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresQuestionAndAnswer: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresUniqueEmail: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away .

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• DoubleAnimation in ScaleTransform

  - by Adam S

  I'm trying, as an exhibition, to use a DoubleAnimation on the ScaleX and ScaleY properties of a ScaleTransform. I have a rectangle (144x144) which I want to make rectangular over five seconds. My XAML: <Window x:Class="ScaleTransformTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <Rectangle Name="rect1" Width="144" Height="144" Fill="Aqua"> <Rectangle.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="1" /> </Rectangle.RenderTransform> </Rectangle> </Grid> </Window> My C#: private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; Duration mytime = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5)); Storyboard sb = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimation danim1 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 1.5, mytime); DoubleAnimation danim2 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 0.5, mytime); sb.Children.Add(danim1); sb.Children.Add(danim2); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim1, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim1, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty)); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim2, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim2, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty)); sb.Begin(); } Unfortunately, when I run this program, it does nothing. The rectangle stays at 144x144. If I do away with the animation, and just ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1.5, 0.5); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; it will elongate it instantly, no problem. There is a problem elsewhere. Any suggestions? I have read the discussion at http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/29220878/how-to-animate-tofrom-an.aspx in which someone seems to have gotten a pure-XAML version working, but the code is not shown there. EDIT: At http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2131797/applying-animated-scaletransform-in-code-problem it seems someone had a very similar problem, I am fine with using his method that worked, but what the heck is that string thePath = "(0).(1)[0].(2)"; all about? What are those numbers representing?

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• Using OpenID as the only authentication method

  - by iconiK

  I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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• Use a subdirectory as root with htaccess in Apache 1.3

  - by Andrew

  I'm trying to deploy a site generated with Jekyll and would like to keep the site in its own subfolder on my server to keep everything more organized. Essentially, I'd like to use the contents of /jekyll as the root unless a file similarly named exists in the actual web root. So something like /jekyll/sample-page/ would show as http://www.example.com/sample-page/, while something like /other-folder/ would display as http://www.example.com/other-folder. My test server runs Apache 2.2 and the following .htaccess (adapted from http://gist.github.com/97822) works flawlessly: RewriteEngine On # Map http://www.example.com to /jekyll. RewriteRule ^$ /jekyll/ [L] # Map http://www.example.com/x to /jekyll/x unless there is a x in the web root. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/jekyll/ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /jekyll/$1 # Add trailing slash to directories without them so DirectoryIndex works. # This does not expose the internal URL. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ # Disable auto-adding slashes to directories without them, since this happens # after mod_rewrite and exposes the rewritten internal URL, e.g. turning # http://www.example.com/about into http://www.example.com/jekyll/about. DirectorySlash off However, my production server runs Apache 1.3, which doesn't allow DirectorySlash. If I disable it, the server gives a 500 error because of internal redirect overload. If I comment out the last section of ReWriteConds and rules: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ …everything mostly works: http://www.example.com/sample-page/ displays the correct content. However, if I omit the trailing slash, the URL in the address bar exposes the real internal URL structure: http://www.example.com/jekyll/sample-page/ What is the best way to account for directory slashes in Apache 1.3, where useful tools like DirectorySlash don't exist? How can I use the /jekyll/ directory as the site root without revealing the actual URL structure? Edit: After a ton of research into Apache 1.3, I've found that this problem is essentially a combination of two different issues listed at the Apache 1.3 URL Rewriting Guide. I have a (partially) moved DocumentRoot, which in theory would be taken care of with something like this: RewriteRule ^/$ /e/www/ [R] I also have the infamous "Trailing Slash Problem," which is solved by setting the RewriteBase (as was suggested in one of the responses below): RewriteBase /~quux/ RewriteRule ^foo$ foo/ [R] The problem is combining the two. Moving the document root doesn't (can't?) use RewriteBase—fixing trailing slashes requires(?) it… Hmm…

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• Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

  - by Nix

  I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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• How do you unit test a unit test?

  - by FlySwat

  I was watching Rob Connerys webcasts on the MVCStoreFront App, and I noticed he was unit testing even the most mundane things, things like: public Decimal DiscountPrice { get { return this.Price - this.Discount; } } Would have a test like: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,80); } While, I am all for unit testing, I sometimes wonder if this form of test first development is really beneficial, for example, in a real process, you have 3-4 layers above your code (Business Request, Requirements Document, Architecture Document), where the actual defined business rule (Discount Price is Price - Discount) could be misdefined. If that's the situation, your unit test means nothing to you. Additionally, your unit test is another point of failure: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,90); } Now the test is flawed. Obviously in a simple test, it's no big deal, but say we were testing a complicated business rule. What do we gain here? Fast forward two years into the application's life, when maintenance developers are maintaining it. Now the business changes its rule, and the test breaks again, some rookie developer then fixes the test incorrectly...we now have another point of failure. All I see is more possible points of failure, with no real beneficial return, if the discount price is wrong, the test team will still find the issue, how did unit testing save any work? What am I missing here? Please teach me to love TDD, as I'm having a hard time accepting it as useful so far. I want too, because I want to stay progressive, but it just doesn't make sense to me. EDIT: A couple people keep mentioned that testing helps enforce the spec. It has been my experience that the spec has been wrong as well, more often than not, but maybe I'm doomed to work in an organization where the specs are written by people who shouldn't be writing specs.

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• Miller-rabin exception number?

  - by nightcracker

  Hey everyone. This question is about the number 169716931325235658326303. According to http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM it is prime. According to my miller-rabin implementation in python with 7 repetitions is is composite. With 50 repetitions it is still composite. With 5000 repetitions it is STILL composite. I thought, this might be a problem of my implementation. So I tried GNU MP bignum library, which has a miller-rabin primality test built-in. I tested with 1000000 repetitions. Still composite. This is my implementation of the miller-rabin primality test: def isprime(n, precision=7): if n == 1 or n % 2 == 0: return False elif n < 1: raise ValueError("Out of bounds, first argument must be > 0") d = n - 1 s = 0 while d % 2 == 0: d //= 2 s += 1 for repeat in range(precision): a = random.randrange(2, n - 2) x = pow(a, d, n) if x == 1 or x == n - 1: continue for r in range(s - 1): x = pow(x, 2, n) if x == 1: return False if x == n - 1: break else: return False return True And the code for the GMP test: #include <gmp.h> #include <stdio.h> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { mpz_t test; mpz_init_set_str(test, "169716931325235658326303", 10); printf("%d\n", mpz_probab_prime_p(test, 1000000)); mpz_clear(test); return 0; } As far as I know there are no "exceptions" (which return false positives for any amount of repetitions) to the miller-rabin primality test. Have I stumpled upon one? Is my computer broken? Is the Elliptic Curve Method wrong? What is happening here? EDIT I found the issue, which is http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM. I trusted this applet, I'll contact the author his applet's implementation of the ECM is faulty for this number. Thanks. EDIT2 Hah, the shame! In the end it was something that went wrong with copy/pasting on my side. NOR the applet NOR the miller-rabin algorithm NOR my implementation NOR gmp's implementation of it is wrong, the only thing that's wrong is me. I'm sorry.

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