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  • How to use multiple flatpages models in a django app?

    - by the_drow
    I have multiple models that can be converted to flatpages but have to have some extra information (For example I have an about us page but I also have a blog). However I understand that there must be only one flatpages model since the middleware only returns the flatpages instance and does not resolve the child models. What do I have to do? EDIT: It seems I need to change the views. Here's the current code: from django.contrib.flatpages.models import FlatPage from django.template import loader, RequestContext from django.shortcuts import get_object_or_404 from django.http import HttpResponse, HttpResponseRedirect from django.conf import settings from django.core.xheaders import populate_xheaders from django.utils.safestring import mark_safe from django.views.decorators.csrf import csrf_protect DEFAULT_TEMPLATE = 'flatpages/default.html' # This view is called from FlatpageFallbackMiddleware.process_response # when a 404 is raised, which often means CsrfViewMiddleware.process_view # has not been called even if CsrfViewMiddleware is installed. So we need # to use @csrf_protect, in case the template needs {% csrf_token %}. # However, we can't just wrap this view; if no matching flatpage exists, # or a redirect is required for authentication, the 404 needs to be returned # without any CSRF checks. Therefore, we only # CSRF protect the internal implementation. def flatpage(request, url): """ Public interface to the flat page view. Models: `flatpages.flatpages` Templates: Uses the template defined by the ``template_name`` field, or `flatpages/default.html` if template_name is not defined. Context: flatpage `flatpages.flatpages` object """ if not url.endswith('/') and settings.APPEND_SLASH: return HttpResponseRedirect("%s/" % request.path) if not url.startswith('/'): url = "/" + url # Here instead of getting the flat page it needs to find if it has a page with a child model. f = get_object_or_404(FlatPage, url__exact=url, sites__id__exact=settings.SITE_ID) return render_flatpage(request, f) @csrf_protect def render_flatpage(request, f): """ Internal interface to the flat page view. """ # If registration is required for accessing this page, and the user isn't # logged in, redirect to the login page. if f.registration_required and not request.user.is_authenticated(): from django.contrib.auth.views import redirect_to_login return redirect_to_login(request.path) if f.template_name: t = loader.select_template((f.template_name, DEFAULT_TEMPLATE)) else: t = loader.get_template(DEFAULT_TEMPLATE) # To avoid having to always use the "|safe" filter in flatpage templates, # mark the title and content as already safe (since they are raw HTML # content in the first place). f.title = mark_safe(f.title) f.content = mark_safe(f.content) # Here I need to be able to configure what I am passing in the context c = RequestContext(request, { 'flatpage': f, }) response = HttpResponse(t.render(c)) populate_xheaders(request, response, FlatPage, f.id) return response

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  • How can this C and PHP programmer learn Ruby and Rails?

    - by Winston
    I came from a C, php and bash background, it was easy to learn because they all have the same C structure, which I can associate with what I already know. Then 2 years ago I learned Python and I learned it quite well, Python is easier for me to learn than Ruby. Then since last year, I was trying to learn Ruby, then Rails, and I admit, until now I still couldn't get it, the irony is that those are branded as easy to learn, but for a seasoned programmer like me, I just couldn't associate it with what I learned before, I have 2 books on both Ruby and Rails, and when I'm reading it nothing is absorbed into my mind, and I'm close to giving up... In ruby, I'm having a hard time grasping the concepts of blocks, and why there's @variables that can be accessed by other functions, and what does $variable and :variable do? And in Rails, why there's function like this_is_another_function_that_do_this, so thus ruby, is it just a naming convention or it's auto-generated with thisvariable _can_do_this_function. I'm still puzzled that where all those magic concepts and things came from? And now, 1 year of trying and absorbing, but still no progress... Edit: To summarize: How can I learn about blocks, and how can it be related to concepts from PHP/C? Variables, what does does it mean when a variable is prefixed with: @ $ : "Magic concepts", suchs as rails declarations of Records, what happens behind the scenes when I write has_one X OK so, bear with me with my confusion, at least I'm honest with myself, and it's over a year now since I first trying to learn ruby, and I'm not getting younger.. so I learned this in Bash/C/PHP solve_problem($problem) { if [ -e $problem == "trivial" ]; then write_solution(); else breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems(\; define_relationship_between_subproblems; for i in $( command $each_subproblem ); do solve_problem $i done fi } write_solution(problem) { some_solution=$(command <parameters> "input" | command); command | command $some_solution > output_solved_problem_to_file } breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems($problems) { for i in $problems; do command $i | command > i_can_output_a_file_right_away done } define_relationship_between_subproblems($problems) { if [ -e $problem == "relationship" ]; then relationship=$(command; command | command; command;) elsif [ -e $problem == "another_relationship" ]; relationship=$(command; command | command; command;) fi } In C/PHP is something like this solve_problem(problem) { if (problem == trivial) write_solution; else { breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems; define_relationship_between_subproblems; for (each_subproblem) solve_problems(subproblem); } } And now, I just couldn't connect the dots with Ruby, |b|{ blocks }, using @variables, :variables, and variables_with_this_things..

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  • Objective-c - How to serialize audio file into small packets that can be played?

    - by vfn
    Hi there, So, I would like to get a sound file and convert it in packets, and send it to another computer. I would like that the other computer be able to play the packets as they arrive. I am using AVAudioPlayer to try to play this packets, but I couldn't find a proper way to serialize the data on the peer1 that the peer2 can play. The scenario is, peer1 has a audio file, split the audio file in many small packets, put them on a NSData and send them to peer2. Peer 2 receive the packets and play one by one, as they arrive. Does anyone have know how to do this? or even if it is possible? EDIT: Here it is some piece of code to illustrate what I would like to achieve. // This code is part of the peer1, the one who sends the data - (void)sendData { int packetId = 0; NSString *soundFilePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myAudioFile" ofType:@"wav"]; NSData *soundData = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:soundFilePath]; NSMutableArray *arraySoundData = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Spliting the audio in 2 pieces // This is only an illustration // The idea is to split the data into multiple pieces // dependin on the size of the file to be sent NSRange soundRange; soundRange.length = [soundData length]/2; soundRange.location = 0; [arraySoundData addObject:[soundData subdataWithRange:soundRange]]; soundRange.length = [soundData length]/2; soundRange.location = [soundData length]/2; [arraySoundData addObject:[soundData subdataWithRange:soundRange]]; for (int i=0; i // This is the code on peer2 that would receive an play the piece of audio on each packet - (void) receiveData:(NSData *)data { NSKeyedUnarchiver* unarchiver = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver alloc] initForReadingWithData:data]; if ([unarchiver containsValueForKey:PACKET_ID]) NSLog(@"DECODED PACKET_ID: %i", [unarchiver decodeIntForKey:PACKET_ID]); if ([unarchiver containsValueForKey:PACKET_SOUND_DATA]) { NSLog(@"DECODED sound"); NSData *sound = (NSData *)[unarchiver decodeObjectForKey:PACKET_SOUND_DATA]; if (sound == nil) { NSLog(@"sound is nil!"); } else { NSLog(@"sound is not nil!"); AVAudioPlayer *audioPlayer = [AVAudioPlayer alloc]; if ([audioPlayer initWithData:sound error:nil]) { [audioPlayer prepareToPlay]; [audioPlayer play]; } else { [audioPlayer release]; NSLog(@"Player couldn't load data"); } } } [unarchiver release]; } So, here is what I am trying to achieve...so, what I really need to know is how to create the packets, so peer2 can play the audio. It would be a kind of streaming. Yes, for now I am not worried about the order that the packet are received or played...I only need to get the sound sliced and them be able to play each piece, each slice, without need to wait for the whole file be received by peer2. Thanks!

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  • How to find minimum of nonlinear, multivariate function using Newton's method (code not linear algeb

    - by Norman Ramsey
    I'm trying to do some parameter estimation and want to choose parameter estimates that minimize the square error in a predicted equation over about 30 variables. If the equation were linear, I would just compute the 30 partial derivatives, set them all to zero, and use a linear-equation solver. But unfortunately the equation is nonlinear and so are its derivatives. If the equation were over a single variable, I would just use Newton's method (also known as Newton-Raphson). The Web is rich in examples and code to implement Newton's method for functions of a single variable. Given that I have about 30 variables, how can I program a numeric solution to this problem using Newton's method? I have the equation in closed form and can compute the first and second derivatives, but I don't know quite how to proceed from there. I have found a large number of treatments on the web, but they quickly get into heavy matrix notation. I've found something moderately helpful on Wikipedia, but I'm having trouble translating it into code. Where I'm worried about breaking down is in the matrix algebra and matrix inversions. I can invert a matrix with a linear-equation solver but I'm worried about getting the right rows and columns, avoiding transposition errors, and so on. To be quite concrete: I want to work with tables mapping variables to their values. I can write a function of such a table that returns the square error given such a table as argument. I can also create functions that return a partial derivative with respect to any given variable. I have a reasonable starting estimate for the values in the table, so I'm not worried about convergence. I'm not sure how to write the loop that uses an estimate (table of value for each variable), the function, and a table of partial-derivative functions to produce a new estimate. That last is what I'd like help with. Any direct help or pointers to good sources will be warmly appreciated. Edit: Since I have the first and second derivatives in closed form, I would like to take advantage of them and avoid more slowly converging methods like simplex searches.

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  • LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

    - by bradhe
    So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

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  • How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

    - by Atomiton
    There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

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  • Justifying UIVIews on the iPhone: Algorithm Help

    - by coneybeare
    I have been messing around with a way to justify align a collection of UIView subclasses within a containing view. I am having a little bit of trouble with the algorithm and was hoping someone could help spot my errors. Here is pseudocode of where I am now: // 1 see how many items there are int count = [items count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left in the containing view float whitespace = [containingView width] - [items totalWidth]; // 3 Figure out the extra left margin to be applied to items[1] through items[count-1] float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 Figure out the size of every subcontainer if it was evenly split float subcontainerWidth = [containingView width]/count; // 5 Apply the margin, starting at the second item for (int i = 1; i < [items count]; i++) { UIView *item = [items objectAtIndex:i]; [item setLeftMargin:(margin + i*subcontainerWidth)]; } The items do not appear to be evenly spaced here. Not even close. Where am I going wrong? Here is a shot of this algorithm in action: EDIT: The code above is pseudocode. I added the actual code here but it might not make sense if you are not familiar with the three20 project. @implementation TTTabStrip (JustifiedBarCategory) - (CGSize)layoutTabs { CGSize size = [super layoutTabs]; CGPoint contentOffset = _scrollView.contentOffset; _scrollView.frame = self.bounds; _scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(size.width + kTabMargin, self.height); CGFloat contentWidth = size.width + kTabMargin; if (contentWidth < _scrollView.size.width) { // do the justify logic // see how many items there are int count = [_tabViews count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left float whitespace = _scrollView.size.width - contentWidth; // 3 increase the margin on those items somehow to reflect. it should be (whitespace) / count-1 float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 figure out starting point float itemWidth = (_scrollView.size.width-kTabMargin)/count; // apply the margin for (int i = 1; i < [_tabViews count]; i++) { TTTab *tab = [_tabViews objectAtIndex:i]; [tab setLeft:(margin + i*itemWidth)]; } } else { // do the normal, scrollbar logic _scrollView.contentOffset = contentOffset; } return size; } @end

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  • Regex slow on Windows Server 2008

    - by pjmyburg
    Hi I have a situation where my regular expressions compile extremely slowly on Windows Server 2008. I wrote a small console application to highlight this issue. The app generates its own input and builds up a Regex from words in an XML file. I built a release version of this app and ran it both on my personal laptop (running XP) and the Windows 2008 server. The regular expression took 0.21 seconds to compile on my laptop, but 23 seconds to compile on the server. Any ideas what could be causing this? The problem is only on first use of the Regex (when it is first compiled - thereafter it is fine) I have also found another problem - when using \s+ in the regular expression on the same Windows 2008 server, the memory balloons (uses 4GB+) and the compilation of the Regex never finishes. Is there a known issue with Regex and 64 bit .net? Is there a fix/patch available for this? I cannot really find any info on the net, but I have found a few articles about this same issues in Framework 2.0 - surely this has been fixed by now? More info: The server is running the 64 bit version of the .net framework (3.5 SP1) and on my laptop I have Visual Studio 2008 and the 3.5 framework installed. The regular expression is of the following pattern: ^word$|^word$|^word$ and is constructed with the following flags: RegexOptions.IgnoreCase | RegexOptions.Compiled Edit: Here is a code snippet: StringBuilder regexString = new StringBuilder(); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(fileLocation)) { XmlTextReader textReader = new XmlTextReader(fileLocation); textReader.Read(); while (textReader.Read()) { textReader.MoveToElement(); if (textReader.Name == "word") { regexString.Append("^" + textReader.GetAttribute(0) + "$|"); } } ProfanityFilter = new Regex(regexString.ToString(0, regexString.Length - 1), RegexOptions.IgnoreCase | RegexOptions.Compiled); } DateTime time = DateTime.Now; Console.WriteLine("\nIsProfane:\n" + ProfanityFilter.IsMatch("test")); Console.WriteLine("\nTime: " + (DateTime.Now - time).TotalSeconds); Console.ReadKey(); This results in a time of 0.21 seconds on my laptop and 23 seconds on the 2008 server. The XML file consists of 168 words in the following format: <word text="test" />

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  • Using embedded resources in Silverlight (4) - other cultures not being compiled

    - by Andrei Rinea
    I am having a bit of a hard time providing localized strings for the UI in a small Silverlight 4 application. Basically I've put a folder "Resources" and placed two resource files in it : Statuses.resx Statuses.ro.resx I do have an enum Statuses : public enum Statuses { None, Working } and a convertor : public class StatusToMessage : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (!Enum.IsDefined(typeof(Status), value)) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("value"); } var x = Statuses.None; return Statuses.ResourceManager.GetString(((Status)value).ToString(), Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } in the view I have a textblock : <TextBlock Grid.Column="3" Text="{Binding Status, Converter={StaticResource StatusToMessage}}" /> Upon view rendering the converter is called but no matter what the Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture is set it always returns the default culture value. Upon further inspection I took apart the XAP resulted file, taken the resulted DLL file to Reflector and inspected the embedded resources. It only contains the default resource!! Going back to the two resource files I am now inspecting their properties : Build action : Embedded Resource Copy to output directory : Do not copy Custom tool : ResXFileCodeGenerator Custom tool namespace : [empty] Both resource (.resx) files have these settings. The .Designer.cs resulted files are as follows : Statuses.Designer.cs : //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace SilverlightApplication5.Resources { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] internal class Statuses { // ... yadda-yadda Statuses.ro.Designer.cs [empty] I've taken both files and put them in a console application and they behave as expected in it, not like in this silverlight application. What is wrong?

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  • Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

    - by Nix
    I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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  • 'template' .SWF that uses other .swf's and .jpg's in it (by xml generated in .php) works only locall

    - by Andy
    My problem is that a .swf I would like to put on my website works only when requested locally. When requested from my home web server or company web server it doesn't work. I believe all files are in the proper folders and all links are well, otherwise it wouldn't work locally. Now, the SWF I place on the html page has several shapes, fonts, texts, buttons, scripts and frames. The scripts are in v1.0 and descrive how the SWF should behave. The SWF uses 2 different JPG's and 3 different SWF's. It also has a .php file with xml in it which tells the main SWF which JPG's and SWF's to use and where to find them. The main script in the main SWF also links to this .php file. So everything works properly when opening the SWF locally in IE like U:\common\templates\dynamic.swf Everythins shows perfectly. When requesting exactly the same file, but with a domain (as I can access the web server folder like a local drive) only the main .swf shows which is black with some test forms etc in it. PHP is enabled on the server. This is my code in the .php I just edited some links to conceal domains and file names: <?xml version="1.0" ?><dynamic_content> <item blurb="Text 1" content_timer="8000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0x000000" tab_border_color="0x000000" tab_color="0x000000" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/file.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="http://sub.domain.com" content_source="/template/images/file.swf" content_target="_self" ></item> <item blurb="Text 2" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/file.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="http://www.domain.com/" content_source="/template/images/file.swf" content_target="_self" ></item> <item blurb="Text 3" content_timer="5000" cycle="true" content_border_color="0x" content_bg_image="" tab_hl_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_border_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_arrow_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_text_color="0xFFFFFF" tab_image="/template/images/file.jpg" tab_highlight_color="0x" tab_highlight_text_color="0x" tab_highlight_image="" content_url="http://www.domain.com/page.html" content_source="/template/images/file.swf" content_target="_self" ></item></dynamic_content> So you understand, it's a dynamic SWF that is built up by other pics and swf's. It's easier to change the php and put new files on the server than build a new flash file everytime etc and it's quite difficult to built some functionality in one swf when using other swf files. What could be the problem here that it works well when incurred locally but not from a server (using the domain etc) Any help is much appreciated. Thanks! EDIT: When I open the .swf in firefox by using the direct link to the .swf, the status bars hangs on 'Waiting for www.domain.com... (domain = mydomain) Maybe this is of any help?

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  • DoubleAnimation in ScaleTransform

    - by Adam S
    I'm trying, as an exhibition, to use a DoubleAnimation on the ScaleX and ScaleY properties of a ScaleTransform. I have a rectangle (144x144) which I want to make rectangular over five seconds. My XAML: <Window x:Class="ScaleTransformTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <Rectangle Name="rect1" Width="144" Height="144" Fill="Aqua"> <Rectangle.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="1" /> </Rectangle.RenderTransform> </Rectangle> </Grid> </Window> My C#: private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; Duration mytime = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5)); Storyboard sb = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimation danim1 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 1.5, mytime); DoubleAnimation danim2 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 0.5, mytime); sb.Children.Add(danim1); sb.Children.Add(danim2); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim1, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim1, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty)); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim2, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim2, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty)); sb.Begin(); } Unfortunately, when I run this program, it does nothing. The rectangle stays at 144x144. If I do away with the animation, and just ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1.5, 0.5); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; it will elongate it instantly, no problem. There is a problem elsewhere. Any suggestions? I have read the discussion at http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/29220878/how-to-animate-tofrom-an.aspx in which someone seems to have gotten a pure-XAML version working, but the code is not shown there. EDIT: At http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2131797/applying-animated-scaletransform-in-code-problem it seems someone had a very similar problem, I am fine with using his method that worked, but what the heck is that string thePath = "(0).(1)[0].(2)"; all about? What are those numbers representing?

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  • UpdateProgress with UpdatePanel not showing up in User control when page is loading

    - by Carter
    Is this typical behavior of the UpdateProgress for an ASP.Net UpdatePanel? I have an update panel with the UpdateProgress control inside of a user control window on a page. If I then make the page in the background do some loading and click a button in the user control update panel the UpdateProgress does not show up at all. It's like the UpdatePanels refresh request is not even registered until after the actual page is done doing it's business. It's worth noting that it will show up if nothing is happening in the background. The functionality I want is what you would expect. I want to loader to show up if it has to wait for anything to get it's refresh done when after the button is clicked. I know I can get this functionality if I just use jquery ajax with a static web method, but you can't have static web methods inside of a user control. I could have it in the page but it really doesn't belong there. A full-blown wcf wouldn't really be worth it in this case either. I'm trying to compromise with an UpdatePanel but these things always seem to cause me some kind of trouble. Maybe this is just the way it works? Edit:So I'll clarify a bit what I'm doing. What's happening is I have a page and all it has on it are some tools on the side and a big map. When the page initially loads it takes some time to load the map. Now if while it's loading I open up the tool (a user control) that has the update panel in question in it and click the button on this user control that should refresh the update panel with new data and show the loading sign (in the updateprogress) then the UpdateProgress loading image does not show up. However, the code run by the button click does run after the page is done loading (as expected) and The UpdateProgress will show up if nothing on the page containing the user control is loading. I just want the loader to show up while the page is loading. I thought my problem was that perhaps the map loading is in an update panel and my UpdateProgress was only being associated with the update panel for the user control's update panel. Hence, I would get no loading icon when the map was loading. This is not the case though.

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  • Use a subdirectory as root with htaccess in Apache 1.3

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to deploy a site generated with Jekyll and would like to keep the site in its own subfolder on my server to keep everything more organized. Essentially, I'd like to use the contents of /jekyll as the root unless a file similarly named exists in the actual web root. So something like /jekyll/sample-page/ would show as http://www.example.com/sample-page/, while something like /other-folder/ would display as http://www.example.com/other-folder. My test server runs Apache 2.2 and the following .htaccess (adapted from http://gist.github.com/97822) works flawlessly: RewriteEngine On # Map http://www.example.com to /jekyll. RewriteRule ^$ /jekyll/ [L] # Map http://www.example.com/x to /jekyll/x unless there is a x in the web root. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/jekyll/ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /jekyll/$1 # Add trailing slash to directories without them so DirectoryIndex works. # This does not expose the internal URL. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ # Disable auto-adding slashes to directories without them, since this happens # after mod_rewrite and exposes the rewritten internal URL, e.g. turning # http://www.example.com/about into http://www.example.com/jekyll/about. DirectorySlash off However, my production server runs Apache 1.3, which doesn't allow DirectorySlash. If I disable it, the server gives a 500 error because of internal redirect overload. If I comment out the last section of ReWriteConds and rules: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ …everything mostly works: http://www.example.com/sample-page/ displays the correct content. However, if I omit the trailing slash, the URL in the address bar exposes the real internal URL structure: http://www.example.com/jekyll/sample-page/ What is the best way to account for directory slashes in Apache 1.3, where useful tools like DirectorySlash don't exist? How can I use the /jekyll/ directory as the site root without revealing the actual URL structure? Edit: After a ton of research into Apache 1.3, I've found that this problem is essentially a combination of two different issues listed at the Apache 1.3 URL Rewriting Guide. I have a (partially) moved DocumentRoot, which in theory would be taken care of with something like this: RewriteRule ^/$ /e/www/ [R] I also have the infamous "Trailing Slash Problem," which is solved by setting the RewriteBase (as was suggested in one of the responses below): RewriteBase /~quux/ RewriteRule ^foo$ foo/ [R] The problem is combining the two. Moving the document root doesn't (can't?) use RewriteBase—fixing trailing slashes requires(?) it… Hmm…

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 Custom Membership Provider - The membership provider name specified is invalid.

    - by David Lively
    I'm implementing a custom membership provider, and everything seems to go swimmingly until I create a MembershipUser object. At that point, I receive the error: The membership provider name specified is invalid. Parameter name: providerName In web.config the membership key is <membership defaultProvider="MembersProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MembersProvider" type="Members.Providers.MembersProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" applicationName="DeviceDatabase" /> </providers> </membership> When creating the MembershipUser object from my custom User class: public static MembershipUser ToMembershipUser(User user) { MembershipUser member = new MembershipUser ("MembersProvider" , user.Name , user.Id , user.EmailAddress , user.PasswordQuestion , user.Comment , user.IsApproved , user.IsLockedOut , user.DateCreated , user.LastLoginDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastActivityDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastPasswordChangedDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastLockoutDate ?? DateTime.MinValue ); return member; } (I realize I could probably just inherit my User class from MembershipUser, but it's already part of an existing class hierarchy. I honestly think this is the first time I've encountered a legitimate need for for multiple inheritance!) My feeling is that the new MembershipUser(...) providerName parameter is supposed to match what's set in web.config, but, since they match already, I'm at a loss as to how to proceed. Is there a convenient way to get the name of the active membership provider in code? I'm starting to think that using the built-in membership system is overkill and more trouble than it's worth. Edit Not sure if it's relevant, but the custom membership provider class is in a class library, not the main WAP project. Update Here's the contents of the System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider object as show in the VS2010 command window: >eval System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} [Members.Providers.MembersProvider]: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} base {System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderBase}: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} ApplicationName: null EnablePasswordReset: true EnablePasswordRetrieval: false MaxInvalidPasswordAttempts: 5 MinRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters: 0 MinRequiredPasswordLength: 6 PasswordAttemptWindow: 10 PasswordFormat: Function evaluation was aborted. PasswordStrengthRegularExpression: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresQuestionAndAnswer: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresUniqueEmail: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away .

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  • How do I solve an AntiForgeryToken exception that occurs after an iisreset in my ASP.Net MVC app?

    - by Colin Newell
    I’m having problems with the AntiForgeryToken in ASP.Net MVC. If I do an iisreset on my web server and a user continues with their session they get bounced to a login page. Not terrible but then the AntiForgery token blows up and the only way to get going again is to blow away the cookie on the browser. With the beta version of version 1 it used to go wrong when reading the cookie back in for me so I used to scrub it before asking for a validation token but that was fixed when it was released. For now I think I’ll roll back to my code that fixed the beta problem but I can’t help but think I’m missing something. Is there a simpler solution, heck should I just drop their helper and create a new one from scratch? I get the feeling that a lot of the problem is the fact that it’s tied so deeply into the old ASP.Net pipeline and is trying to kludge it into doing something it wasn’t really designed to do. I had a look in the source code for the ASP.Net MVC 2 RC and it doesn't look like the code has changed much so while I haven't tried it, I don't think there are any answers there. Here is the relevant part of the stack trace of the exception. Edit: I just realised I didn't mention that this is just trying to insert the token on the GET request. This isn't the validation that occurs when you do a POST kicking off. System.Web.Mvc.HttpAntiForgeryException: A required anti-forgery token was not supplied or was invalid. ---> System.Web.HttpException: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. ---> System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. Client IP: 127.0.0.1 Port: 4991 User-Agent: scrubbed ViewState: scrubbed Referer: blah Path: /oursite/Account/Login ---> System.Security.Cryptography.CryptographicException: Padding is invalid and cannot be removed. at System.Security.Cryptography.RijndaelManagedTransform.DecryptData(Byte[] inputBuffer, Int32 inputOffset, Int32 inputCount, Byte[]& outputBuffer, Int32 outputOffset, PaddingMode paddingMode, Boolean fLast) at System.Security.Cryptography.RijndaelManagedTransform.TransformFinalBlock(Byte[] inputBuffer, Int32 inputOffset, Int32 inputCount) at System.Security.Cryptography.CryptoStream.FlushFinalBlock() at System.Web.Configuration.MachineKeySection.EncryptOrDecryptData(Boolean fEncrypt, Byte[] buf, Byte[] modifier, Int32 start, Int32 length, IVType ivType, Boolean useValidationSymAlgo) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.Deserialize(String inputString) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.UI.ViewStateException.ThrowError(Exception inner, String persistedState, String errorPageMessage, Boolean macValidationError) at System.Web.UI.ViewStateException.ThrowMacValidationError(Exception inner, String persistedState) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.Deserialize(String inputString) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.System.Web.UI.IStateFormatter.Deserialize(String serializedState) at System.Web.Mvc.AntiForgeryDataSerializer.Deserialize(String serializedToken) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Mvc.AntiForgeryDataSerializer.Deserialize(String serializedToken) at System.Web.Mvc.HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie(String salt, String domain, String path) at System.Web.Mvc.HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken(String salt, String domain, String path)

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  • PHP: How to find connections between users so I can create a closed friend circle?

    - by CuSS
    Hi all, First of all, I'm not trying to create a social network, facebook is big enough! (comic) I've chosen this question as example because it fits exactly on what I'm trying to do. Imagine that I have in MySQL a users table and a user_connections table with 'friend requests'. If so, it would be something like this: Users Table: userid username 1 John 2 Amalia 3 Stewie 4 Stuart 5 Ron 6 Harry 7 Joseph 8 Tiago 9 Anselmo 10 Maria User Connections Table: userid_request userid_accepted 2 3 7 2 3 4 7 8 5 6 4 5 8 9 4 7 9 10 6 1 10 7 1 2 Now I want to find circles between friends and create a structure array and put that circle on the database (none of the arrays can include the same friends that another has already). Return Example: // First Circle of Friends Circleid => 1 CircleStructure => Array( 1 => 2, 2 => 3, 3 => 4, 4 => 5, 5 => 6, 6 => 1, ) // Second Circle of Friends Circleid => 2 CircleStructure => Array( 7 => 8, 8 => 9, 9 => 10, 10 => 7, ) I'm trying to think of an algorithm to do that, but I think it will take a lot of processing time because it would randomly search the database until it 'closes' a circle. PS: The minimum structure length of a circle is 3 connections and the limit is 100 (so the daemon doesn't search the entire database) EDIT: I've think on something like this: function browse_user($userget='random',$users_history=array()){ $user = user::get($userget); $users_history[] = $user['userid']; $connections = user::connection::getByUser($user['userid']); foreach($connections as $connection){ $userid = ($connection['userid_request']!=$user['userid']) ? $connection['userid_request'] : $connection['userid_accepted']; // Start the circle array if(in_array($userid,$users_history)) return array($user['userid'] => $userid); $res = browse_user($userid, $users_history); if($res!==false){ // Continue the circle array return $res + array($user['userid'] => $userid); } } return false; } while(true){ $res = browse_user(); // Yuppy, friend circle found! if($res!==false){ user::circle::create($res); } // Start from scratch again! } The problem with this function is that it could search the entire database without finding the biggest circle, or the best match.

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  • Flex+JPA/Hibernate+BlazeDS+MySQL how to debug this monster?!

    - by Zenzen
    Ok so I'm making a "simple" web app using the technologies from the topic, recently I found http://www.adobe.com/devnet/flex/articles/flex_hibernate.html so I'm following it and I try to apply it to my app, the only difference being I'm working on a Mac and I'm using MAMP for the database (so no command line for me). The thing is I'm having some trouble with retrieving/connecting to the database. I have the remoting-config.xml, persistance.xml, a News.java class (my Entity), a NewsService.java class, a News.as class - all just like in the tutorial. I have of course this line in one of my .mxmls: <mx:RemoteObject id="loaderService" destination="newsService" result="handleLoadResult(event)" fault="handleFault(event)" showBusyCursor="true" /> And my remoting-config.xml looks like this (well part of it): <destination id="newsService"> <properties><source>com.gamelist.news.NewsService</source></properties> </destination> NewsService has a method: public List<News> getLatestNews() { EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(PERSISTENCE_UNIT); EntityManager em = emf.createEntityManager(); Query findLatestQuery = em.createNamedQuery("news.findLatest"); List<News> news = findLatestQuery.getResultList(); return news; } And the named query is in the News class: @Entity @Table(name="GLT_NEWS") @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name="news.findLatest", query="from GLT_NEWS order by new_date_added limit 5 ") }) The handledLoadResult looks like this: private function handleLoadResult(ev:ResultEvent):void { newsList = ev.result as ArrayCollection; newsRecords = newsList.length; } Where: [Bindable] private var newsList:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); But when I try to trigger: loaderService.getLatestNews(); nothing happens, newsList is empty. Few things I need to point out: 1) as I said I didn't install mysql manually, but I'm using MAMP (yes, the server's running), could this cause some trouble? 2) I already have a "gladm" database and I have a "GLT_NEWS" table with all the fields, is this bad? Basically the question is how am I suppose to debug this thing so I can find the mistake I'm making? I know that loadData() is executed (did a trace()), but I have no idea what happens with loaderService.getLatestNews()... @EDIT: ok so I see I'm getting an error in the "fault handler" which says "Error: Client.Error.MessageSend - Channel.Connect.Failed error NetConnection.Call.Failed: HTTP: Status 404: url: 'http://localhost:8080/WebContent/messagebroker/amf' - "

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  • Collapsed Visibility Within a WPF ComboBoxItem

    - by user832747
    I used a Style setter to stretch out my ComboBoxItem (and button) so that it spans the entire length of the ComboBox like so: <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> This works fine. Now, I add an additional button within the same ComboBoxItem, but have it set to Visibility Collapsed. <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> <Button Content="My Collapsed Button" Visibility="Collapsed" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> Now, the new button is invisible, but I expected my original button to still stretch the entire ComboBox, like it does with the above code. However, it does not. Why is this so? Is there a solution for this? I am using DataTriggers to edit the Visibility property. NOTE: I also get the same thing if I just set HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" in the ComboBox. UPDATE: Ok, this actually has something to do with the DockPanel. I changed it to a StackPanel, and it works as desired. However, I suppose I'm still curious as to why my first button would not stretch the entire DockPanel if the second button is collapsed?

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  • Personal Project - Next practical language/tech to learn

    - by Paul Nathan
    I'm working on a personal project doing some finance analysis. It's a totally new field for me, and I'm really having fun with it so far, plus working in the high-level language arena is a great break from my embedded systems daytime work. I have a MySQL backend on a non-local server with a pile of stock data. My task now is to do some analysis of the stocks and produce something approximating a useful result. There are a couple technical difficulties. (1) I have a lot of records. To be precise, I believe I'm near 100K records right now, and this number grows by 6.1K each weekday. I need to create a way to rummage through these fields and do data analysis - based on a given computation, go look at this other set. Fine and dandy, nothing too outre. But this means I could really use a straightforward API for talking to MySQL. (2) Ideally, it runs on OS X 10.4.11. No Windows/Linux machine at home. (3) I can use PHP, C++, Perl, etc. I even have an R installation. I'm pretty flexible with stuff, so long as it runs on OS X. (Lots of options here, pick water, H20, or dihydrogen monoxide ;-) ) (4)Lack of hassle. While I like clever and fun ways of doing things, I'm trying to get some analysis done, not spend ten hours doing installation work and scratching my head figuring out a theoretical syntax question needed to spout out "hello world". What's the question? I'd like to dig into something different than my usual PHP/C++/C toolset. I'm looking for recommendations for languages/technologies that will assist me and meet the above requirements. In particular, I've heard a lot of buzz about F# and Python on SO. I've used CLISP for small problems before, and kinda liked it. I'm seeking opinions about those in particular. edit:since I rent the DB server and have a limited amount of CPU time online, I'm trying to do the analysis on a local machine.

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  • Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

    - by Snorkpete
    We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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  • EJB client can't find a DataSource that tests successfully in WebLogic admin console

    - by suszterpatt
    Disclaimer: I'm completely new to JEE/EJB and all that, so bear with me. I have a simple EJB that I can successfully deploy using JDeveloper 11g's integrated WebLogic server and a remote database connection (JDBC). I have a DataSource named "PGY2" defined in WebLogic, and I can test it successfully from the admin console. Here's the code of the client I'm trying to test it with (generated entirely by JDev except for the three method calls on adminManager): public class AdminManagerClient { public static void main(String [] args) { try { final Context context = getInitialContext(); AdminManager adminManager = (AdminManager)context.lookup("Uran-AdminManager#hu.elte.pgy2.BACNAAI.UranEJB.AdminManager"); adminManager.addAdmin("root", "root", "Kovács Isten"); adminManager.addStudent("BACNAAI", "matt", "B Cs", 2005); adminManager.addTeacher("SIPKABT", "patt", "S P", "numanal", "Dr."); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } private static Context getInitialContext() throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); // WebLogic Server 10.x connection details env.put( Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, "weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory" ); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, "t3://127.0.0.1:7101"); return new InitialContext( env ); } } But when I try to run this, I get the following error on the line with adminManager.addAdmin (that is, after the lookup): javax.ejb.EJBException: EJB Exception: ; nested exception is: Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 1.0.2 (Build 20081024)): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Internal error: Cannot obtain XAConnection Creation of XAConnection for pool PGY2 failed after waitSecs:30 : java.sql.SQLException: Data Source PGY2 does not exist. Why can't the client find the data source, and how do I make it find it? EDIT: I took a closer look at WebLogic's output during deployment, and I found this. I have no idea what it means, but it may be relevant: <2010.05.20. 0:50:43 CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149231> <Unable to set the activation state to true for the application 'PGY2'. weblogic.application.ModuleException: at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:349) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$2.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:411) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.activate(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:74) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace weblogic.common.ResourceException: is already bound at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.RmiDataSource.start(RmiDataSource.java:387) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:136) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:97) at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:346) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace >

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  • Using OpenID as the only authentication method

    - by iconiK
    I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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  • List all possible combinations of k integers between 1...n (n choose k)

    - by Asaf R
    Hi, Out of no particular reason I decided to look for an algorithm that produces all possible choices of k integers between 1...n, where the order amongst the k integer doesn't matter (the n choose k thingy). From the exact same reason, which is no reason at all, I also implemented it in C#. My question is: Do you see any mistake in my algorithm or code? And, more importantly, can you suggest a better algorithm? Please pay more attention to the algorithm than the code itself. It's not the prettiest code I've ever written, although do tell if you see an error. EDIT: Alogirthm explained - We hold k indices. This creates k nested for loops, where loop i's index is indices[i]. It simulates k for loops where indices[i+1] belongs to a loop nested within the loop of indices[i]. indices[i] runs from indices[i - 1] + 1 to n - k + i + 1. CODE: public class AllPossibleCombination { int n, k; int[] indices; List<int[]> combinations = null; public AllPossibleCombination(int n_, int k_) { if (n_ <= 0) { throw new ArgumentException("n_ must be in N+"); } if (k_ <= 0) { throw new ArgumentException("k_ must be in N+"); } if (k_ > n_) { throw new ArgumentException("k_ can be at most n_"); } n = n_; k = k_; indices = new int[k]; indices[0] = 1; } /// <summary> /// Returns all possible k combination of 0..n-1 /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public List<int[]> GetCombinations() { if (combinations == null) { combinations = new List<int[]>(); Iterate(0); } return combinations; } private void Iterate(int ii) { // // Initialize // if (ii > 0) { indices[ii] = indices[ii - 1] + 1; } for (; indices[ii] <= (n - k + ii + 1); indices[ii]++) { if (ii < k - 1) { Iterate(ii + 1); } else { int[] combination = new int[k]; indices.CopyTo(combination, 0); combinations.Add(combination); } } } } I apologize for the long question, it might be fit for a blog post, but I do want the community's opinion here. Thanks, Asaf

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  • SQL Server stored procedures - update column based on variable name..?

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have a data driven site with many stored procedures. What I want to eventually be able to do is to say something like: For Each @variable in sproc inputs UPDATE @TableName SET @variable.toString = @variable Next I would like it to be able to accept any number of arguments. It will basically loop through all of the inputs and update the column with the name of the variable with the value of the variable - for example column "Name" would be updated with the value of @Name. I would like to basically have one stored procedure for updating and one for creating. However to do this I will need to be able to convert the actual name of a variable, not the value, to a string. Question 1: Is it possible to do this in T-SQL, and if so how? Question 2: Are there any major drawbacks to using something like this (like performance or CPU usage)? I know if a value is not valid then it will only prevent the update involving that variable and any subsequent ones, but all the data is validated in the vb.net code anyway so will always be valid on submitting to the database, and I will ensure that only variables where the column exists are able to be submitted. Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard Clarke Edit: I know about using SQL strings and the risk of SQL injection attacks - I studied this a bit in my dissertation a few weeks ago. Basically the website uses an object oriented architecture. There are many classes - for example Product - which have many "Attributes" (I created my own class called Attribute, which has properties such as DataField, Name and Value where DataField is used to get or update data, Name is displayed on the administration frontend when creating or updating a Product and the Value, which may be displayed on the customer frontend, is set by the administrator. DataField is the field I will be using in the "UPDATE Blah SET @Field = @Value". I know this is probably confusing but its really complicated to explain - I have a really good understanding of the entire system in my head but I cant put it into words easily. Basically the structure is set up such that no user will be able to change the value of DataField or Name, but they can change Value. I think if I were to use dynamic parameterised SQL strings there will therefore be no risk of SQL injection attacks. I mean basically loop through all the attributes so that it ends up like: UPDATE Products SET [Name] = '@Name', Description = '@Description', Display = @Display Then loop through all the attributes again and add the parameter values - this will have the same effect as using stored procedures, right?? I dont mind adding to the page load time since this is mainly going to affect the administration frontend, and will marginly affect the customer frontend.

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