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  • jPlayer widget created with static error as result

    - by goldengel
    I've created a widged with Orchard. Unfortunately I've used the same "Title" for a jPlayer widget twice. Now I receive an error: Server Error in '/wgk' Application. Sequence contains more than one element Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element Source Error: Line 2: <fieldset> Line 3: <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> Line 4: @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { Line 5: <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> Line 6: } Source File: x:\Intepub\wgk\Modules\Orchard.jPlayer\Views\EditorTemplates\Parts\MediaGallery.cshtml Line: 4 Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element] System.Linq.Enumerable.SingleOrDefault(IEnumerable`1 source) +4206966 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.HandleSingleOrDefaultCall(MethodCallExpression call) +51 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.VisitMethodCall(MethodCallExpression call) +411 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ExpressionVisitor.Visit(Expression exp) +371 In MediaGallery.cshtml (found in error description above) is written: @model Orchard.jPlayer.Models.MediaGalleryPart <fieldset> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> } else { <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedGallery, Model.AvailableGalleries)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.SelectedType, @T("Media gallery type"))</div> <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedType, Model.AvailableTypes)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.AutoPlay, @T("Auto play"))</div> <div>@Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.AutoPlay)</div> } </fieldset> My problem is now, I cannot find or edit the widget with double used name. I would love to replace it to another name. But I do not know where to do this. Please advice.

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  • PagerView overlapping PagerTabStrip / PagerTitleStrip

    - by user1256169
    I've been trying for about a week to get my PagerView not to overlap the TitleStrip. I've tried absolutely everything I can think of, and one StackOverflow question that looked like the same question, had an answer that wasn't applicable. It appears that both the PagerTitleStrip and the TextView start at 0,0 (left,top) Any help would be appreciated. Note that I can't use any XML (inc Layout.xml) so it's all done programatically. Here's a full working example of my problem: package com.example.projname; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.support.v4.view.PagerAdapter; import android.support.v4.view.PagerTabStrip; import android.support.v4.view.ViewPager; import android.view.Gravity; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.view.ViewGroup.LayoutParams; import android.widget.TextView; public class MainActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); MyPagerAdapter myPagerAdapter = new MyPagerAdapter(); PagerTabStrip myPagerTabStrip = new PagerTabStrip(this); myPagerTabStrip.setGravity(Gravity.TOP); ViewPager viewPager = new ViewPager(this); viewPager.addView(myPagerTabStrip, LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT); viewPager.setAdapter(myPagerAdapter); setContentView(viewPager); } class MyPagerAdapter extends PagerAdapter { public final String[] Titles = { "Title One", "Title Two", "Title Three", "Title Four", "Title Five" }; @Override public int getCount() { return Titles.length; } @Override public boolean isViewFromObject(View view, Object object) { return (view == object); } @Override public CharSequence getPageTitle(int position) { return Titles[position]; } @Override public Object instantiateItem(ViewGroup container, int position) { TextView textView = new TextView(getApplicationContext()); String myString = new String("Page " + (position + 1) + "\r\n"); textView.setText(myString + myString + myString + myString + myString + myString); container.addView(textView); return textView; } @Override public void destroyItem(ViewGroup container, int position, Object object) { container.removeView((View) object); } } } Edit: Adding a screenshot of the problem:

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  • Unable to add SSH pub key for GitHub

    - by Kaushik
    I am trying to set up a new GitHub account as part of learning ruby on rails. My OS is windows. I am having the following problem while trying to add my public key to the GitHub SSH public keys. When I put the key in the text area, supply a name, and click 'Add Key', I am taken to the Job profile page without any confirmation that the key has been added.(I am using SSH client GUI to generate RSA keys). When I come back to the SSH public keys page, I see that the key is not there. I tried this multiple times...without any result. Just as a test, I tried to ssh to the GitHub account using 'ssh -v [email protected]' and here is the verbose output: OpenSSH_4.6p1, OpenSSL 0.9.8e 23 Feb 2007 debug1: Connecting to github.com [207.97.227.239] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/identity type -1 debug1: identity file /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_rsa type -1 debug1: identity file /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_dsa type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-5github2 debug1: match: OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-5github2 pat OpenSSH* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_4.6 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-cbc hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-cbc hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Host 'github.com' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/known_hosts:1 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/identity debug1: Trying private key: /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Trying private key: /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey). Also, why is it looking for the keys in c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/ Is there a possibility of changing this default location? EDIT: With Mozila, I get error msg: Oops! The key has already been taken. The key is invalid. It must begin with 'ssh-rsa' or 'ssh-dss'. My key looks like: ---- BEGIN SSH2 PUBLIC KEY ---- Comment: "[2048-bit rsa, Administrator@Kaushik-THINK, Sun Jan 02 2011 \ 02:40:03]" AAAAB3NzaC1yc2EAAAADAQABAAABAQDoA5xqJozKmAHTGh9hgmagsFOl2hdPzS8ZPV9Ta1 xU0JiUnHef38Rvz/5oqL1wW7SjmZbc/+tCPOfU1lg3UisFXajJhek2bjJ2qsKd4Sjax2Nj ZMYD7djPb8rokUYSKW3bdYyJHtJH+murz04UGdCcZ8HqkMTzqlh3zAIK7SIlCy+mtAi5A/ sm0JbqlNGHB6YrL1aWIcOSolIx2HWt8cWhlK77guT9dPgd0HT59Gn0uhO7UWGLrNdJut0x ian3HdvNYMUXoO/SkNlxvWRgZ1UOhaB+qf4hw5RCGcBbqP3fM4LKpurHZx4wEpgmM0e4EM +2PYdf46uxChNdBl7J5sZF ---- END SSH2 PUBLIC KEY ---- I still can't see the key..so not sure how it says it is already taken.

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  • Jquery Dialog - div disappears after initialization

    - by Zuber
    JQuery Dialog is giving me lots of pain lately. I have the following div which I want to be popped up. (Ignore that the classes do not show the double quotes in the syntax) TABLE class=widget-title-table border=0 cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=0> <TBODY> <TR> <TD class=widget-title><SPAN class=widget-title>Basic Info</SPAN></TD> <TD class=widget-action> <DIV id=edit-actions jQuery1266325647362="3"> <UL class="linkbutton-menu read-mode"> <LI class="control-actions"> <A id="action-button" class="mouse-over-pointer linkbutton">Delete this stakeholder</A> <DIV id="confirmation" class="confirmation-dialog title=Confirmation"> Are you sure you want to delete this stakeholder? </DIV> </LI></UL></DIV></TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE> The JQuery for this is ... $(document).ready(function() { $('#confirmation').dialog({ bgiframe: true, modal: true, autoOpen: false, closeOnEscape: false, draggable: true, position: 'center', resizable: false, width: 400, height: 150 }); }); And the dialog is 'open'ed by var confirmationBox = $('#confirmation',actionContent); if (confirmationBox.length > 0) { //Confirmation Needed $(confirmationBox).dialog('option', 'buttons', { 'No': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Yes': function() { $('ul.read-mode').hide(); $.post(requestUrl, {}, ActionCallback(context[0], renderFormUrl), 'json'); $(this).dialog('close'); } }); $(confirmationBox).dialog('open'); } The problem starts in the initialization itself. When the document loads, the <div #confirmation> is deleted from the markup! I had a similar issue earlier, but I cannot use that solution here. On this page I can have multiple PopUp divs. When I added the initialization in just before opening it; the form popped up. But after I close it, the div is removed; so I am not able to see the popup again.

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  • Tunnel over HTTPS

    - by ephemient
    At my workplace, the traffic blocker/firewall has been getting progressively worse. I can't connect to my home machine on port 22, and lack of ssh access makes me sad. I was previously able to use SSH by moving it to port 5050, but I think some recent filters now treat this traffic as IM and redirect it through another proxy, maybe. That's my best guess; in any case, my ssh connections now terminate before I get to log in. These days I've been using Ajaxterm over HTTPS, as port 443 is still unmolested, but this is far from ideal. (Sucky terminal emulation, lack of port forwarding, my browser leaks memory at an amazing rate...) I tried setting up mod_proxy_connect on top of mod_ssl, with the idea that I could send a CONNECT localhost:22 HTTP/1.1 request through HTTPS, and then I'd be all set. Sadly, this seems to not work; the HTTPS connection works, up until I finish sending my request; then SSL craps out. It appears as though mod_proxy_connect takes over the whole connection instead of continuing to pipe through mod_ssl, confusing the heck out of the HTTPS client. Is there a way to get this to work? I don't want to do this over plain HTTP, for several reasons: Leaving a big fat open proxy like that just stinks A big fat open proxy is not good over HTTPS either, but with authentication required it feels fine to me HTTP goes through a proxy -- I'm not too concerned about my traffic being sniffed, as it's ssh that'll be going "plaintext" through the tunnel -- but it's a lot more likely to be mangled than HTTPS, which fundamentally cannot be proxied Requirements: Must work over port 443, without disturbing other HTTPS traffic (i.e. I can't just put the ssh server on port 443, because I would no longer be able to serve pages over HTTPS) I have or can write a simple port forwarder client that runs under Windows (or Cygwin) Edit DAG: Tunnelling SSH over HTTP(S) has been pointed out to me, but it doesn't help: at the end of the article, they mention Bug 29744 - CONNECT does not work over existing SSL connection preventing tunnelling over HTTPS, exactly the problem I was running into. At this point, I am probably looking at some CGI script, but I don't want to list that as a requirement if there's better solutions available.

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  • Grails Liferay portlet not invoking action

    - by RJ Regenold
    I am trying to create a simple portlet for Liferay 5.2.2 using Grails 1.2.1 with the grails-portlets 0.7 and grails-portlets-liferay 0.2 plugins. I created and deployed a stock portlet (just updated title, description, etc...). It deploys correctly and the view renders correctly. However, when I submit the default form that is in view.gsp it never hits the actionView function. Here are the relevant code bits: SearchPortlet.groovy class SearchPortlet { def title = 'Search' def description = ''' A simple search portlet. ''' def displayName = 'Search' def supports = ['text/html':['view', 'edit', 'help']] // Liferay server specific configurations def liferay_display_category = 'Category' def actionView = { println "In action view" } def renderView = { println "In render view" //TODO Define render phase. Return the map of the variables bound to the view ['mykey':'myvalue'] } ... } view.gsp <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/portlet" prefix="portlet" %> <div> <h1>View Page</h1> The map returned by renderView is passed in. Value of mykey: ${mykey} <form action="${portletResponse.createActionURL()}"> <input type="submit" value="Submit"/> </form> </div> The tomcat terminal prints In render view whenever I view the portlet, and after I press the submit button. It never prints the In action view statement. Any ideas? Update I turned on logging and this is what I see whenever I click the submit button in the portlet: [localhost].[/gportlet] - servletPath=/Search, pathInfo=/invoke, queryString=null, name=null [localhost].[/gportlet] - Path Based Include portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - DispatcherPortlet with name 'Search' received render request portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Bound render request context to thread: com.liferay.portlet.RenderRequestImpl@7a158e portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Testing handler map [org.codehaus.grails.portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerMapping@1f06283] in DispatcherPortlet with name 'Search' portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Testing handler adapter [org.codehaus.grails.portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter@74f72b] portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter - portlet.handleMinimised not set, proceeding with normal render portlet.SearchPortlet - In render view portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter - Couldn't resolve action view /search/null.gsp portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter - Trying to render mode view /search/view.gsp portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Setting portlet response content type to view-determined type [text/html;charset=ISO-8859-1] [localhost].[/gportlet] - servletPath=/WEB-INF/servlet/view, pathInfo=null, queryString=null, name=null [localhost].[/gportlet] - Path Based Include portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Cleared thread-bound render request context: com.liferay.portlet.RenderRequestImpl@7a158e portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Successfully completed request The fourth line in that log snippet says Bound render request..., which I don't understand because the action in the form that is in the portlet is to the action url. I would've thought that should be an action request.

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • How do I get a screenshot of a given website using C#

    - by Ender
    I'm writing a specialised crawler and parser for internal use and I require the ability to take a screenshot of a web page in order to check what colours are being used throughout. The program will take in around ten web addresses and will save them as a bitmap image, from there I plan to use LockBits in order to create a list of the five most used colours within the image. To my knowledge it's the easiest way to get the colours used within a web page but if there is an easier way to do it please chime in with your suggestions. Anyway, I was going to use this program until I saw the price tag. I'm also fairly new to C#, having only used it for a few months. Can anyone provide me with a solution to my problem of taking a screenshot of a web page in order to extract the colour scheme? EDIT: Sorry for not getting back to this sooner, but I've been busy with some other things. Anyway, the code seems to work well, but the problem I am having right now is that I am running it within a form, and naturally with Application.Run() being called I cannot run two instances of the same form at once. It recommended Form.showDialog() but that broke everything. Can anyone give me a hand with this code? public static void buildScreenshotFromURL(string url) { int width = 800; int height = 600; using (WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser()) { browser.Width = width; browser.Height = height; browser.ScrollBarsEnabled = true; // This will be called when the page finishes loading browser.DocumentCompleted += new System.Windows.Forms.WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler(OnDocumentCompleted); //browser.DocumentCompleted += OnDocumentCompleted; browser.Navigate(url); // This prevents the application from exiting until // Application.Exit is called // Application.Run() does not work as it cannot be called twice, recommended form.showDialog() // but still issues Application.Run(); } } public static void OnDocumentCompleted(object sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e) { // Define size of thumbnail neded int thumbSize = 50; // Now that the page is loaded, save it to a bitmap WebBrowser browser = (WebBrowser)sender; using (Graphics graphics = browser.CreateGraphics()) { using (Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(browser.Width, browser.Height, graphics)) { Rectangle bounds = new Rectangle(0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height); browser.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, bounds); Bitmap thumbBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmap.GetThumbnailImage(thumbSize, thumbSize, thumbCall, IntPtr.Zero)); thumbBitmap.Save("screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); handleImage(thumbBitmap); } }

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  • Am I using EJBs properly?

    - by kgrad
    I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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  • Possible uncommitted transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" erro

    - by Michael
    My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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  • Javascript closures with google geocoder

    - by DaNieL
    Hi all, i still have some problems with javascript closures, and input/output variables. Im playing with google maps api for a no profit project: users will place the marker into a gmap, and I have to save the locality (with coordinates) in my db. The problem comes when i need to do a second geocode in order to get a unique pairs of lat and lng for a location: lets say two users place the marker in the same town but in different places, I dont want to have the same locality twice in the database with differents coords. I know i can do the second geocode after the user select the locality, but i want to understand what am i mistaking here: // First geocoding, take the marker coords to get locality. geocoder.geocode( { 'latLng': new google.maps.LatLng($("#lat").val(), $("#lng").val()), 'language': 'it' }, function(results_1, status_1){ // initialize the html var inside this closure var html = ''; if(status_1 == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { // do stuff here for(i = 0, geolen = results_1[0].address_components.length; i != geolen) { // Second type of geocoding: for each location from the first geocoding, // i want to have a unique [lat,lan] geocoder.geocode( { 'address': results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name }, function(results_2, status_2){ // Here come the problem. I need to have the long_name here, and // 'html' var should increment. coords = results_2[0].geometry.location.toUrlValue(); html += 'some html to let the user choose the locality'; } ); } // Finally, insert the 'html' variable value into my dom... //but it never gets updated! } else { alert("Error from google geocoder:" + status_1) } } ); I tryed with: // Second type of geocoding: for each location from the first geocoding, i want // to have a unique [lat,lan] geocoder.geocode( { 'address': results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name }, (function(results_2, status_2, long_name){ // But in this way i'll never get results_2 or status_2, well, results_2 // get long_name value, status_2 and long_name is undefined. // However, html var is correctly updated. coords = results_2[0].geometry.location.toUrlValue(); html += 'some html to let the user choose the locality'; })(results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name) ); And with: // Second type of geocoding: for each location from the first geocoding, i want to have // a unique [lat,lan] geocoder.geocode( { 'address': results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name }, (function(results_2, status_2, long_name){ // But i get an obvious "results_2 is not defined" error (same for status_2). coords = results_2[0].geometry.location.toUrlValue(); html += 'some html to let the user choose the locality, that can be more than one'; })(results_2, status_2, results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name) ); Any suggestion? EDIT: My problem is how to pass an additional arguments to the geocoder inner function: function(results_2, status_2, long_name){ //[...] } becose if i do that with a clousure, I mess with the original parameters (results_2 and status_2)

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  • Web P2P video confrence solution

    - by dtroy
    I'm looking for the best possible solution which will allow me to incorporate live video/audio conference between 2 users(only 2 at this point) into a flash gaming platform. The video chat is not just an extra feature, it's the main one. I'm mainly looking at open source implementations or something I'll be able to implement myself, but will consider commercial products if they are exactly what I need. Here are a few things I've looked at, but so far, I didn't find any of them good enough: Flash player 10's P2P capabilities sound promising, but I am aware of the fact that Adobe has not release any information on the RTMFP protocol and that there is no commercial server which supports it at this point. Stream all the video/audio live through a flash server (not p2p), but from my personal experience you don't get a smooth conversation. I think TokBox uses this method Java applets are a possible solution too (to perform p2p), but I don't think it will be a nice and elegant solution to combine them in the game at this point (and requires the user to authorize them). BTW, I couldn't find any useful implementations. So, If you know of any, i'll look into them. Google Gmail Video Chat uses a custom (and proprietary) browser plug-in which does the p2p and streams the video/audio into the flash player. This is a possible solution, but I rather not implement the entire p2p protocol stack + browser plug-in at this stage and concentrate on other aspect of the game itself. I think they are using XMPP based protocol similar to Jingle and they've release a Jingle librarby but without the video confrencing implementation. EDIT: In response to Branden: I am aware of Adobe Stratus. Stratus is a beta, hosted rendezvous service that aids establishing communications between Flash Player endpoints (RTMFP server). This current release of the Stratus is prerelease and is designed for evaluation purposes only. The service is not final. There is no guarantee that the service will continue to exist in the future or any information about the future cost. That's why I don't think it can be used as a commercial solution. At least not yet. I'd appreciate your suggestions and advice. thanks!

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  • How to fine tune a Membership Provider?

    - by Venemo
    After all the answers to my last question about fine-tuning turned out to be more useful than I expected, I thought that I would ask another similar Question about the MembershipProviders as well. Okay, so firstly, to clarify: I know what a Membership, Role, and Profile provider is, how to implement my own, and how to configure them, and most of the things about them. Implementing a role and profile provider is pretty straightforward, because they only require simple CRUD most of the time. (A single line of LINQ is enough for about half of the RoleProvider's methods.) However, the Membership provider is a differend beast. Many of you may realize that it violates the SR (Single Responsibility) principle, because it has to do EVERYTHING related to user management. While this leaves a lot of room for customizations, it has its downsides as well. There is no information on the Internet about what their EXACT expected behaviour is, such as when should they throw exceptions or simply return null, and stuff like that. I use this sample implementation for reference, but it also contains several contradictions. For example, it uses its own ValidateUser method for checking for credentials in the ChangePassword method. But the ValidateUser also updates the user's LastLoginDate to the current date. So, does the framework expect that I set it in my own provider as well, or is it simply a mistake in the sample? The other is: the ChangePassword method throws an exception every time when validating the new password, but CreateUser doesn't ever throw an exception, it simply returns false. And last, but not least: it counts the invalid password attempts of the user and locks them if it passes a threshold. While this is good, but it requires manual action to unlock the users. Is it a problem if my provider automatically unlocks the user after a certain amount of time? (EDIT) I almost forgot: the CreateUser method in the sample inserts the ID from the method parameter. I actually think this is bad practice, because I use inters with auto incement as IDs, so inserting them from some method parameter is not an option. Should I just ignore the parameter, or require that its value is null and throw an exception if it isn't? All in all, does ASP.NET have any assumptions about the behaviour of a MembershipProvider? Is there any documentation which describes when should I throw an exception or just return null? I also tried to find a set of generic unit tests which would provide some guidance about the expected behaviour, but no luck, I found plenty of articles about "Unit testing is good", and "How to unit test a MembershipProvider", but not one where there would be any actual tests. Thanks in advance for everyone!

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  • Hidden Features of PHP?

    - by George Mauer
    EDIT: This didn't really start as a hidden features of PHP topic, but thats what it ended up as, so go nuts. I know this sounds like a point-whoring question but let me explain where I'm coming from. Out of college I got a job at a PHP shop. I worked there for a year and a half and thought that I had learned all there was to learn about programming. Then I got a job as a one-man internal development shop at a sizable corporation where all the work was in C#. In my commitment to the position I started reading a ton of blogs and books and quickly realized how wrong I was to think I knew everything. I learned about unit testing, dependency injection and decorator patterns, the design principle of loose coupling, the composition over inheritance debate, and so on and on and on - I am still very much absorbing it all. Needless to say my programming style has changed entirely in the last year. Now I find myself picking up a php project doing some coding for a friend's start-up and I feel completely constrained as opposed to programming in C#. It really bothers me that all variables at a class scope have to be referred to by appending '$this-' . It annoys me that none of the IDEs that I've tried have very good intellisense and that my SimpleTest unit tests methods have to start with the word 'test'. It drives me crazy that dynamic typing keeps me from specifying implicitly which parameter type a method expects, and that you have to write a switch statement to do method overloads. I can't stand that you can't have nested namespaces and have to use the :: operator to call the base class's constructor. Now I have no intention of starting a PHP vs C# debate, rather what I mean to say is that I'm sure there are some PHP features that I either don't know about or know about yet fail to use properly. I am set in my C# universe and having trouble seeing outside the glass bowl. So I'm asking, what are your favorite features of PHP? What are things you can do in it that you can't or are more difficult in the .Net languages?

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  • Detect Client Computer name when an RDP session is open

    - by Ubiquitous Che
    Hey all, My manager has pointed out to me a few nifty things that one of our accounting applications can do because it can load different settings based on the machine name of the host and the machine name of the client when the package is opened in an RDP session. We want to provide similar functionality in one of my company's applications. I've found out on this site how to detect if I'm in an RDP session, but I'm having trouble finding information anywhere on how to detect the name of the client computer. Any pointers in the right direction would be great. I'm coding in C# for .NET 3.5 EDIT The sample code I cobbled together from the advice below - it should be enough for anyone who has a use for the WTSQuerySessionInformation to get a feel for what's going on. Note that this isn't necessarily the best way of doing it - just a starting point that I've found useful. When I run this locally, I get boring, expected answers. When I run it on our local office server in an RDP session, I see my own computer name in the WTSClientName property. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace TerminalServicesTest { class Program { const int WTS_CURRENT_SESSION = -1; static readonly IntPtr WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE = IntPtr.Zero; static void Main(string[] args) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); uint byteCount; foreach (WTS_INFO_CLASS item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(WTS_INFO_CLASS))) { Program.WTSQuerySessionInformation( WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE, WTS_CURRENT_SESSION, item, out sb, out byteCount); Console.WriteLine("{0}({1}): {2}", item.ToString(), byteCount, sb); } Console.WriteLine(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to exit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } [DllImport("Wtsapi32.dll")] public static extern bool WTSQuerySessionInformation( IntPtr hServer, int sessionId, WTS_INFO_CLASS wtsInfoClass, out StringBuilder ppBuffer, out uint pBytesReturned); } enum WTS_INFO_CLASS { WTSInitialProgram = 0, WTSApplicationName = 1, WTSWorkingDirectory = 2, WTSOEMId = 3, WTSSessionId = 4, WTSUserName = 5, WTSWinStationName = 6, WTSDomainName = 7, WTSConnectState = 8, WTSClientBuildNumber = 9, WTSClientName = 10, WTSClientDirectory = 11, WTSClientProductId = 12, WTSClientHardwareId = 13, WTSClientAddress = 14, WTSClientDisplay = 15, WTSClientProtocolType = 16, WTSIdleTime = 17, WTSLogonTime = 18, WTSIncomingBytes = 19, WTSOutgoingBytes = 20, WTSIncomingFrames = 21, WTSOutgoingFrames = 22, WTSClientInfo = 23, WTSSessionInfo = 24, WTSSessionInfoEx = 25, WTSConfigInfo = 26, WTSValidationInfo = 27, WTSSessionAddressV4 = 28, WTSIsRemoteSession = 29 } }

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  • Wondering why DisplayName attribute is ignored in LabelFor on an overridden property

    - by Lasse Krantz
    Hi, today I got confused when doing a couple of <%=Html.LabelFor(m=>m.MyProperty)%> in ASP.NET MVC 2 and using the [DisplayName("Show this instead of MyProperty")] attribute from System.ComponentModel. As it turned out, when I put the attribute on an overridden property, LabelFor didn't seem to notice it. However, the [Required] attribute works fine on the overridden property, and the generated errormessage actually uses the DisplayNameAttribute. This is some trivial examplecode, the more realistic scenario is that I have a databasemodel separate from the viewmodel, but for convenience, I'd like to inherit from the databasemodel, add View-only properties and decorating the viewmodel with the attributes for the UI. public class POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { public virtual string PleaseOverrideMe { get; set; } } public class EditModel : POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { [Required] [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] public override string PleaseOverrideMe { get { return base.PleaseOverrideMe; } set { base.PleaseOverrideMe = value; } } [Required] [DisplayName("This property exists only in EditModel")] public string NonOverriddenProp { get; set; } } The strongly typed ViewPage<EditModel> contains: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> The labels are then displayed as "PleaseOverrideMe" (not using the DisplayNameAttribute) and "This property exists only in EditModel" (using the DisplayNameAttribute) when viewing the page. If I post with empty values, triggering the validation with this ActionMethod: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(EditModel model) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(model); return View("Thanks"); } the <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> actually uses [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] attribute, and produces the default errortext "The This should be as label for please override me! field is required." Would some friendly soul shed some light on this?

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  • Problem getting ar_mailer/ar_sendmail working on new server

    - by Max Williams
    Hey all. I've got a new app up and running on a new ubuntu server. It's working fine generally but i can't get ar_sendmail working. I'm following the instructions on this page: http://www.ameravant.com/posts/sending-tons-of-emails-in-ruby-on-rails-with-ar_mailer The setup is all done, ie i can "deliver mails" which just saves records in my Email table. Now i want to get the ar_sendmail daemon running to actually send them. (so i'm at 'Running ar_sendmail in daemon mode' in that web page). First thing: ar_sendmail --mailq >>ar_sendmail: command not found Ok...so, where is ar_sendmail? I have a look and there's an ar_sendmail file in the bin folder of the ar_mailer plugin, so i add the location of that to my path. I don't know if this was the right thing to do or not. Ok, so try again. ar_sendmail --mailq /var/www/apps/millionaire/vendor/plugins/ar_mailer/bin/ar_sendmail:3:in `require': no such file to load -- action_mailer/ar_sendmail (LoadError) from /var/www/apps/millionaire/vendor/plugins/ar_mailer/bin/ar_sendmail:3 hmm. Here's the offending file, there's not much there. #!/usr/bin/env ruby require 'action_mailer/ar_sendmail' ActionMailer::ARSendmail.run ok...so it literally is just trying to require this and can't find it. The file, action_mailer/ar_sendmail.rb is in the ar_mailer plugin, in it's lib folder. So, given that it's being called from inside the plugin, it should be able to see this right? I've got a feeling that i'm way off the track here and have missed something simple. Can anyone set me straight? I'm using rails 2.3.4 in case that's relevant. EDIT - i just realised something kind of dumb: when i call ar_sendmail from the command line like this, i'm just loading that one file, which doesn't know where it's supposed to look for the rest of the stuff, i think. Which really makes me think that i'm not trying to run the right thing. Is the ar_sendmail daemon a seperate program altogether, that i would get with apt_get or something? EDIT2 - i made some progress by installing the ar_mailer gem (which the guide said i shouldn't do) and that does seem to run. It's sending some mail request somewhere and clearing the Email table of pending emails. Running ar_sendmail in -ov (oneshot verbal) mode i see it report this for example: sent email 00000000019 from [email protected] to [email protected]: # So, it actually looks like it's working now and i just need to set up the ACTUAL THING WHICH SENDS EMAILS. sigh. still grateful for any advice. thanks, max

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  • GCC, -O2, and bitfields - is this a bug or a feature?

    - by Rooke
    Today I discovered alarming behavior when experimenting with bit fields. For the sake of discussion and simplicity, here's an example program: #include <stdio.h> struct Node { int a:16 __attribute__ ((packed)); int b:16 __attribute__ ((packed)); unsigned int c:27 __attribute__ ((packed)); unsigned int d:3 __attribute__ ((packed)); unsigned int e:2 __attribute__ ((packed)); }; int main (int argc, char *argv[]) { Node n; n.a = 12345; n.b = -23456; n.c = 0x7ffffff; n.d = 0x7; n.e = 0x3; printf("3-bit field cast to int: %d\n",(int)n.d); n.d++; printf("3-bit field cast to int: %d\n",(int)n.d); } The program is purposely causing the 3-bit bit-field to overflow. Here's the (correct) output when compiled using "g++ -O0": 3-bit field cast to int: 7 3-bit field cast to int: 0 Here's the output when compiled using "g++ -O2" (and -O3): 3-bit field cast to int: 7 3-bit field cast to int: 8 Checking the assembly of the latter example, I found this: movl $7, %esi movl $.LC1, %edi xorl %eax, %eax call printf movl $8, %esi movl $.LC1, %edi xorl %eax, %eax call printf xorl %eax, %eax addq $8, %rsp The optimizations have just inserted "8", assuming 7+1=8 when in fact the number overflows and is zero. Fortunately the code I care about doesn't overflow as far as I know, but this situation scares me - is this a known bug, a feature, or is this expected behavior? When can I expect gcc to be right about this? Edit (re: signed/unsigned) : It's being treated as unsigned because it's declared as unsigned. Declaring it as int you get the output (with O0): 3-bit field cast to int: -1 3-bit field cast to int: 0 An even funnier thing happens with -O2 in this case: 3-bit field cast to int: 7 3-bit field cast to int: 8 I admit that attribute is a fishy thing to use; in this case it's a difference in optimization settings I'm concerned about.

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  • shopify_app syntax error

    - by Pete171
    Edit: Debugging has got me further. Question clarified. We have installed Ruby, RubyGems and Rails and have forked the shopify_app project. We have created a new rails applications and added three items to the Gemfile: execjs, therubyracer and shopify_app. Running rails s in order to start our rails application returns this trace: root@ubuntu:/usr/local/pete-shopify/cart# rails s Faraday: you may want to install system_timer for reliable timeouts /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app.rb:15:in `require': /var/lib /gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app/login_protection.rb:5: syntax error, unexpected ':', expecting kEND (SyntaxError) ...rce::UnauthorizedAccess, with: :close_session ^ from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app.rb:15 from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:68:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:68:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:66:in `each' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:66:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:55:in `each' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:55:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler.rb:128:in `require' from /usr/local/pete-shopify/cart/config/application.rb:7 from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:53:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:53 from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:50:in `tap' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:50 from script/rails:6:in `require' from script/rails:6 I haven't modified any files since forking from Github. Lines 1 - 6 of login_protection.rb are as follows: module ShopifyApp::LoginProtection extend ActiveSupport::Concern included do rescue from ActiveResource::UnauthorizedAccess, with: :close_session end I've looked into this and it seems that the error is caused by a new-style hash syntax between Ruby 1.8 and 1.9; key : value instead of key => value. Running ruby -v from the command line returns ruby 1.9.3p0 (2011-10-30 revision 33570) [x86_64-linux]. This would seem to be OK... but I did some debugging, and inside the file /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app.rb (at the top) by putting this: puts RUBY_VERSION exit It printed 1.8.7. **Why are ruby -v and RUBY_VERSION giving me different results? And am I correct in assuming this is the cause of my problems? Note: To upgrade Ruby I installed the later version with apt-get and then switched to it by using update-alternatives --config ruby and selecting option 2 like this: root@ubuntu:/usr/local/pete-shopify/cart# update-alternatives --config ruby There are 2 choices for the alternative ruby (providing /usr/bin/ruby). Selection Path Priority Status ------------------------------------------------------------ 0 /usr/bin/ruby1.8 50 auto mode 1 /usr/bin/ruby1.8 50 manual mode * 2 /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 10 manual mode Also note: We're PHP/Python developers so this is all new to us! Summary: 1 - Am I right in determining the cause of the syntax error? 2 - Why does RUBY_VERSION and ruby -v give me different results?

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  • Coming Up with a Good Algorithm for a Simple Idea

    - by mkoryak
    I need to come up with an algorithm that does the following: Lets say you have an array of positive numbers (e.g. [1,3,7,0,0,9]) and you know beforehand their sum is 20. You want to abstract some average amount from each number such that the new sum would be less by 7. To do so, you must follow these rules: you can only subtract integers the resulting array must not have any negative values you can not make any changes to the indices of the buckets. The more uniformly the subtraction is distributed over the array the better. Here is my attempt at an algorithm in JavaScript + underscore (which will probably make it n^2): function distributeSubtraction(array, goal){ var sum = _.reduce(arr, function(x, y) { return x + y; }, 0); if(goal < sum){ while(goal < sum && goal > 0){ var less = ~~(goal / _.filter(arr, _.identity).length); //length of array without 0s arr = _.map(arr, function(val){ if(less > 0){ return (less < val) ? val - less : val; //not ideal, im skipping some! } else { if(goal > 0){ //again not ideal. giving preference to start of array if(val > 0) { goal--; return val - 1; } } else { return val; } } }); if(goal > 0){ var newSum = _.reduce(arr, function(x, y) { return x + y; }, 0); goal -= sum - newSum; sum = newSum; } else { return arr; } } } else if(goal == sum) { return _.map(arr, function(){ return 0; }); } else { return arr; } } var goal = 7; var arr = [1,3,7,0,0,9]; var newArray = distributeSubtraction(arr, goal); //returned: [0, 1, 5, 0, 0, 7]; Well, that works but there must be a better way! I imagine the run time of this thing will be terrible with bigger arrays and bigger numbers. edit: I want to clarify that this question is purely academic. Think of it like an interview question where you whiteboard something and the interviewer asks you how your algorithm would behave on a different type of a dataset.

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  • Why am I seeing a crash when trying to call CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog()

    - by Tim
    I added a helpAbout menu item to my mfc app. I decided to make the ddlg derive from CDHTMLDialog. I override the OnInitDialog() method in my derived class and the first thing I do is call the parent's OnInitDialog() method. I then put in code that sets the title. On some machines this works fine, but on others it crashes in the call to CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog() - Trying to read a null pointer. the call stack has nothing useful - it is in mfc90.dll Is this a potential problem with mismatches of mfc/win32 dlls? It works on my vista machines but crashes on a win2003 server box. BOOL HTMLAboutDlg::OnInitDialog() { // CRASHES on the following line CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog(); CString title = "my title"; // example of setting title // i try to get version info //set the title CModuleVersion ver; char filename[ _MAX_PATH ]; GetModuleFileName( AfxGetApp()->m_hInstance, filename, _MAX_PATH ); ver.GetFileVersionInfo(filename); // get version from VS_FIXEDFILEINFO struct CString s; s.Format("Version: %d.%d.%d.%d\n", HIWORD(ver.dwFileVersionMS), LOWORD(ver.dwFileVersionMS), HIWORD(ver.dwFileVersionLS), LOWORD(ver.dwFileVersionLS)); CString version = ver.GetValue(_T("ProductVersion")); version.Remove(' '); version.Replace(",", "."); title = "MyApp - Version " + version; SetWindowText(title); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } And here is the relevant header file: class HTMLAboutDlg : public CDHtmlDialog { DECLARE_DYNCREATE(HTMLAboutDlg) public: HTMLAboutDlg(CWnd* pParent = NULL); // standard constructor virtual ~HTMLAboutDlg(); // Overrides HRESULT OnButtonOK(IHTMLElement *pElement); HRESULT OnButtonCancel(IHTMLElement *pElement); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_DIALOG_ABOUT, IDH = IDR_HTML_HTMLABOUTDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support virtual BOOL OnInitDialog(); DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() DECLARE_DHTML_EVENT_MAP() }; I can't figure out what is going on - why it works on some machins and crashes on others. Both have VS2008 installed EDIT: VS versions VISTA - no crashes 9.0.30729.1 SP 2003 server: (crashes) 9.0.21022.8 RTM

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  • Git repo planning questions

    - by masonk
    At work, development uses perforce to handle code sharing. I won't say "revision control", because we aren't allowed to check in changes until they are ready for regression testing. In order to get my personal change sets under revision control, I've been given the go-ahead to build my own git and initialize the client view of the perforce depot as a git repo. There are some difficulties in doing this, however. The client view lives in a subfolder of ~, (~/p4), and I want to put ~ under revision control as well, with its own separate history. I can't figure out how to keep the history for ~ separate from ~/p4 without using a submodule. The problem with a submodule is that it looks like I have to go make a repository that will become the submodule and then git submodule add <repo> <path>. But there is nowhere to make the submodule's repository except in ~. There seems to be no safe place to create the initial client view of the depot with git p4 clone. (I'm working off of the assumption that initing or cloning a repo into a subdirectory of a git repo is not supported. At least, I can find nothing authoritative on nested git repos.) edit: Is merely ignoring ~/p4 in the repo rooted at ~ enough to allow me to init a nested repo in ~/p4? My __git_ps1 function still thinks I'm in a git repository when I visit an ignored subdirectory of a git repo, so I'm inclined to think not. I need the "remote" repository created by git p4 sync to be a branch in ~/p4. We are required to keep all of our code in ~/p4 so that it doesn't get backed up. Can I pull from a "remote" branch that is really a local branch? This one is just for convenience, but I thought I could learn something by asking it. For 99% of the project, I just want to start the with the p4 head revision as the inital commit object. For the other 1%, I would like to suck down the entire p4 history so that I can browse it in git. IOW, after I'm done initalizing it, the initial commit of remotes/p4/master branch will contain: revision 1 of //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/* revision X of other files in //depot/prod/*, where X is the head revision and the remotes/p4/master branch contains Y commits, where Y is the number of changelists that had a file in //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/*, with each commit in the history corresponding to one of those p4 changelists, and HEAD looking like p4's head.

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  • Delay keyboard input help

    - by Stradigos
    I'm so close! I'm using the XNA Game State Management example found here and trying to modify how it handles input so I can delay the key/create an input buffer. In GameplayScreen.cs I've declared a double called elapsedTime and set it equal to 0. In the HandleInput method I've changed the Key.Right button press to: if (keyboardState.IsKeyDown(Keys.Left)) movement.X -= 50; if (keyboardState.IsKeyDown(Keys.Right)) { elapsedTime -= gameTime.ElapsedGameTime.TotalMilliseconds; if (elapsedTime <= 0) { movement.X += 50; elapsedTime = 10; } } else { elapsedTime = 0; } The pseudo code: If the right arrow key is not pressed set elapsedTime to 0. If it is pressed, the elapsedTime equals itself minus the milliseconds since the last frame. If the difference then equals 0 or less, move the object 50, and then set the elapsedTime to 10 (the delay). If the key is being held down elapsedTime should never be set to 0 via the else. Instead, after elapsedTime is set to 10 after a successful check, the elapsedTime should get lower and lower because it's being subtracted by the TotalMilliseconds. When that reaches 0, it successfully passes the check again and moves the object once more. The problem is, it moves the object once per press but doesn't work if you hold it down. Can anyone offer any sort of tip/example/bit of knowledge towards this? Thanks in advance, it's been driving me nuts. In theory I thought this would for sure work. CLARIFICATION Think of a grid when your thinking about how I want the block to move. Instead of just fluidly moving across the screen, it's moving by it's width (sorta jumping) to the next position. If I hold down the key, it races across the screen. I want to slow this whole process down so that holding the key creates an X millisecond delay between it 'jumping'/moving by it's width. EDIT: Turns out gameTime.ElapsedGameTime.TotalMilliseconds is returning 0... all of the time. I have no idea why.

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  • What to do when you need more verbs in REST

    - by Richard Levasseur
    There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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  • How can we define more than one table,define columns and write data in xml file ?

    - by Harikrishna
    I am writing my xml file manually. And I am writing that for storing data and retrieving data from that. I have written file like for the table PersonalInfo. <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <PersonalInfo> <xs:schema id="PersonalInfo" xmlns="" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:msdata="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xml-msdata"> <xs:element name="PersonalInfo" msdata:IsDataSet="true" msdata:UseCurrentLocale="true"> <xs:complexType> <xs:choice minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:element name="PesonalInfo."> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <!--Define Column Here....--> <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string" /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:choice> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> <!--First Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <!--Second Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> </PersonalInfo> Please suggest any mistake with writing file here. And now I want define more than table in this file. And here I have to write data for the table like <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> Is not possible some thing writing data when defining columns EDIT : <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string",Harikrishna,Jatin.... /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string",India,India.... /> And how to define more than one table in a single xml file ?

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