Search Results

Search found 19256 results on 771 pages for 'boost log'.

Page 687/771 | < Previous Page | 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694  | Next Page >

  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

    Read the article

  • exit /B 0 does not work

    - by murxx
    I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat -> in there I call: start startServer.bat -> wait 30 seconds -> check is server is started -> exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat -> call scriptA.bat -----> in there I call: start startServer.bat -----> wait 30 seconds -----> check if server is started -----> exit /B 0 -> scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

    Read the article

  • AJAX filter MySQL results using checkboxes

    - by keepitnang
    I'm attempting to get to grips with displaying filterable MySQL data within a PHP page based on user checkbox selections. I have a database of domain names and the dates on which these will require renewal as per Nominet DAC information and I can get unfiltered data to display, but filtering results by domain extensions is proving tricky for me to accomplish. I should point out at this stage that I am a serious newcomer to many of the ideas I am trying to learn to work with here, so please be gentle. I have tried following some other articles on here also, but no dice. I have the following so far: HTML <input type="checkbox" class="extensions" name="extensions" value=".co.uk">.co.uk</input> <input type="checkbox" class="extensions" name="extensions" value=".org.uk">.org.uk</input> Script $('.extensions').live('click', function() { var all_boxes = $('.extensions'); var all_boxes_values = []; var i = 0; for (var i; i < all_boxes.length; i++) { if (all_boxes[i].checked) { all_boxes_values.push(all_boxes[i].value) } } var all_boxes_values_clean = all_boxes_values.join(", "); console.log(all_boxes_values_clean); $.get("sql-test.php", {q: all_boxes_values_clean}, function(result) { $("div#output").html(result); } )}); PHP $g = $_GET['q']; $extensionsql=""; $extension=1; if(isset($g)) { $extension=1; $param = "" . str_replace(",", "','", $_GET['q']) . ""; } And that's as far as I have gotten with my limited ability. What I would like to do next is search the column domainName for a string match and return the appropriate results to the user. Something to mimic something like the following but I'm not sure how to achieve it. Any help would be much appreciated: SELECT * FROM `refresh` WHERE `domainName` LIKE '%.co.uk%' AND renewalDate LIKE '%2012-06-30%' ORDER BY `domainName` ASC Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can an application affect TCP retransmits

    - by sipwiz
    I'm troubleshooting some communications issues and in the network traces I am occasionally coming across TCP sequence errors. One example I've got is: Server to Client: Seq=3174, Len=50 Client to Server: Ack=3224 Server to Client: Seq=3224, Len=50 Client to Server: Ack=3224 Server to Client: Seq=3274, Len=10 Client to Server: Ack=3224, SLE=3274, SRE=3284 Packets 4 & 5 are recorded in the trace (which is from a router in between the client and server) at almost exactly the same time so they most likely crossed in transit. The TCP session has got out of sync with the client missing the last two transmissions from the server. Those two packets should have been retransmitted but they weren't, the next log in the trace is a RST packet from the Client 24 seconds after packet 6. My question is related to what could be responsible for the failure to retransmit the server data from packets 3 & 5? I would assume that the retransmit would be at the operating system level but is there anyway the application could influence it and stop it being sent? A thread blocking or put to sleep or something like that?

    Read the article

  • "requiresuniqueemail=true" implementation in asp.net site

    - by domineer
    Hi people I got a social networking site that is running live right now.The first time I launched my site I let requiresuniqueemail=false set-up on my web.config inorder for me to create dummy accounts for testing purposes and to start up the site you know.However the site is kind of stable right now w/ almost 5k members.So I would like to set-up the requiresuniqueemail to true so that users cannot reuse their existing email address and for me to make it sure that there will be unique email ad for each site user.I know the site got like 100 users with the same email address.My question is what could be the problem I'm going to face if I do this right now(requiresuniqueemail="true") and how to do this efficiently(without errors and if possible sitewide say in the global assax)?I tested and I already got an error if I logout an account.Like say a user try to click log-out this code runs: Dim d As DateTime = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-1 * Membership.UserIsOnlineTimeWindow) Dim theuser As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() theuser.LastActivityDate = d Membership.UpdateUser(theuser) If Not Cache(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") Is Nothing Then Cache.Remove(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") End If Then an exception occured on updateuser() function saying System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderException: The E-mail supplied is invalid. This is just one instance I know that I encountered a problem. Hoping to hear your ideas guys.....

    Read the article

  • python os.mkfifo() for Windows

    - by user302099
    Hello. Short version (if you can answer the short version it does the job for me, the rest is mainly for the benefit of other people with a similar task): In python in Windows, I want to create 2 file objects, attached to the same file (it doesn't have to be an actual file on the hard-drive), one for reading and one for writing, such that if the reading end tries to read it will never get EOF (it will just block until something is written). I think in linux os.mkfifo() would do the job, but in Windows it doesn't exist. What can be done? (I must use file-objects). Some extra details: I have a python module (not written by me) that plays a certain game through stdin and stdout (using raw_input() and print). I also have a Windows executable playing the same game, through stdin and stdout as well. I want to make them play one against the other, and log all their communication. Here's the code I can write (the get_fifo() function is not implemented, because that's what I don't know to do it Windows): class Pusher(Thread): def __init__(self, source, dest, p1, name): Thread.__init__(self) self.source = source self.dest = dest self.name = name self.p1 = p1 def run(self): while (self.p1.poll()==None) and\ (not self.source.closed) and (not self.source.closed): line = self.source.readline() logging.info('%s: %s' % (self.name, line[:-1])) self.dest.write(line) self.dest.flush() exe_to_pythonmodule_reader, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer =\ get_fifo() pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, pythonmodule_to_exe_writer =\ get_fifo() p1 = subprocess.Popen(exe, shell=False, stdin=subprocess.PIPE, stdout=subprocess.PIPE) old_stdin = sys.stdin old_stdout = sys.stdout sys.stdin = exe_to_pythonmodule_reader sys.stdout = pythonmodule_to_exe_writer push1 = Pusher(p1.stdout, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer, p1, '1') push2 = Pusher(pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, p1.stdin, p1, '2') push1.start() push2.start() ret = pythonmodule.play() sys.stdin = old_stdin sys.stdout = old_stdout

    Read the article

  • CodeIgnither OAuth 2.0 database setup for users and access_tokens

    - by xref
    Per this question I am using CodeIgniter and OAuth 2 in an attempt to provide SSO for internal users of my webapp, ideally verifying them against their Google Apps account. No registrations or anything, just existing users. Using the CI oauth2 spark I'm getting back from Google an OAuth token similar to below: OAuth2_Token_Access Object ( [access_token:protected] => dp83.AHSDj899sDHHD908DHFBDjidkd8989dDHhjjd [expires:protected] => 1349816820 [refresh_token:protected] => [uid:protected] => ) And using that token I can retrieve some user info from Google: [uid] => 3849450385394595 [nickname] => this_guy [name] => This Guy [first_name] => This [last_name] => Guy [email] => [email protected] [location] => [image] => [description] => [urls] => Array ( ) Now to allow the 15 people or so who will be using the webapp currently to log in, do I need to create a users table in the mysql database with their email address as a key? Then compare the email which just came back from the Google OAuth request and see if it exists in my users table? What about the Google access_token, do I store that now along with the email which already existed in the users table? Related: How would I go about verifying the user automatically in the future against that access_token so they don't have to go through the whole OAuth approval process with Google again?

    Read the article

  • Database.ExecuteNonQuery does not return

    - by dan-waterbly
    I have a very odd issue. When I execute a specific database stored procedure from C# using SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery, my stored procedure is never executed. Furthermore, SQL Profiler does not register the command at all. I do not receive a command timeout, and no exeception is thrown. The weirdest thing is that this code has worked fine over 1,200,000 times, but for this one particular file I am inserting into the database, it just hangs forever. When I kill the application, I receive this error in the event log of the database server: "A fatal error occurued while reading the input stream from the network. The session will be terminated (input error: 64, output error: 0). Which makes me think that the database server is receiving the command, though SQL Profiler says otherwise. I know that the appropiate permissions are set, and that the connection string is right as this piece of code and stored procedure works fine with other files. Below is the code that calls the stored procedure, it may be important to note that the file I am trying to insert is 33.5MB, but I have added more than 10,000 files larger than 500MB, so I do not think the size is the issue: using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["TheDatabase"].ConnectionString)) using (SqlCommand command = sqlconn.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "Add_File"; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; command.CommandTimeout = 30 //should timeout in 30 seconds, but doesn't... command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.BigInt; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BinaryData", byteArr).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarBinary; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FileName", fileName).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; sqlconn.Open(); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } There is no firewall between the server making the call and the database server, and the windows firewalls have been disabled to troubleshoot this issue.

    Read the article

  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

    Read the article

  • how to Retrieve the parameters of document.write to detect the creation of dynamic tags

    - by user1335906
    In my Project i am supposed to identify the dynamically created tags which can be done in scripts through document.write("<script src='jquery.js'></script>") For this i used Regular expressions and my code is as follows function find_tag_docwrite(text) { var attrib=new Object; var pat_tag=/<((\S+)\s(.*))>/g; while(t=pat_tag.exec(text) { var tag=RegExp.$1; for(i=0;i<tags.length;i++) { var pat=/(\S+)=((['"]*)(\S+)(['"]*)\3)/g; while(p=pat.exec(f)) { attr=RegExp.$1;val=RegExp.$4; attrib[attr]=val; } } } } in the above function text is parameters of document.write function. Now through this code i am getting the tag names and all the attributes of the tags. But for the below example the above code is not working var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); In such cases Regular expressions does not work so after searching some time where i found hooks on dom methods. so by using this i thought of creating hook for document.write method but i am able to understand how it is done i included the following code in my program but it is not working. function someFunction(text) { console.log(text); } document.write = someFunction; where text is the parameters of document.write. Another problem is After monitoring all the document.write methods using hooks again i have to use regex for finding tag creations. Is there Any alternative

    Read the article

  • iptables : how to allow incoming ftp traffic?

    - by logansama
    Hi, Still fighting my way through the jungle that is called iptables. I have managed to allow FTP access outside of our LAN: both these would work. NOTE: eth0 is the LAN interface and eth1 is the WAN interface. iptables -t filter -A FORWARD -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 20:21 -j ACCEPT or iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -p tcp --sport 20:21 --dport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT But when i connect to a external FTP server i manage to log in and all is fine until it wishes to List the directory content. Then nothing happens as the data is blocked, due to the fact that i do not have a rule set up to allow it! (my last rule on the FORWARD chain is to block all traffic) I have tried a gazillion rules (many of which i did not understand) to try and allow the FTP traffic back through my server. One such rule for example was: iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 20:21 --dport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT But i cannot get the List to work. It just times out after a while. Would anyone perhaps know how to build a rule which would allow FTP to List / allow such traffic back? Or have a link to sources i could work through? Thank you,

    Read the article

  • Parsing URL error

    - by user577875
    It didn't seem like there was a post about this, so here goes. I've been working on a simple app to grab my time table from my school, and get it on my phone. Currently I'm working on the port on android but I've hit an issue. I get the error: java.io.IOException: -1 error loading URL urladress. Code: public void updateTimeTable(){ //Get UID and Birthday SharedPreferences prefs = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(getBaseContext()); String uid = prefs.getString("uid", "000000"); String fods = prefs.getString("fodsdag", "000000"); //Set URL String url = "http://unv1.aalborg-stu.dk/cgi-bin/elevskema.pl?ugen=0&unavn=" + uid + "&fodsdag=" + fods; try { Document doc = Jsoup.connect(url).get(); Elements td = doc.getElementsByTag("td"); //ArrayList<String> tdArray = new ArrayList<String>(); // for (Element tds : td) { // String tdText = tds.text(); // tdArray.add(tdText); //} //String[] data = tdArray.toArray(new String[tdArray.size()]); } catch (IOException e ){ Log.e("Parser", "shite", e); } Context context = getApplicationContext(); CharSequence text = url; int duration = Toast.LENGTH_SHORT; Toast toast = Toast.makeText(context, text, duration); toast.show(); } I've commented some lines out to identify where the issue is, and it seems it's at the actual parsing. Anywho, screenshot of the error I get: Screenshot I got about 4 days worth of Java experience so forgive me if it's something silly. Best Regards

    Read the article

  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Python FTP grabbing and saving images issue

    - by PylonsN00b
    OK So I have been messing with this all day long. I am fairly new to Python FTP. So I have searched through here and came up w/ this: images = notions_ftp.nlst() for image_name in image_names: if found_url == False: try: for image in images: ftp_image_name = "./%s" % image_name if ftp_image_name == image: found_url = True image_name_we_want = image_name except: pass # We failed to find an image for this product, it will have to be done manually if found_url == False: log.info("Image ain't there baby -- SKU: %s" % sku) return False # Hey we found something! Open the image.... notions_ftp.retrlines("RETR %s" % image_name_we_want, open(image_name_we_want, "rb")) 1/0 So I have narrowed the error down to the line before I divide by zero. Here is the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 6, in <module> File "<console>", line 39, in insert_image IOError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: '411483CC-IT,IM.jpg' So if you follow the code you will see that the image IS in the directory because image_name_we_want is set if found in that directory listing on the first line of my code. And I KNOW it's there because I am looking at the FTP site myself and ...it's freakin there. So at some point during all of this I got the image to save locally, which is most desired, but I have long since forgot what I used to make it do that. Either way, why does it think that the image isn't there when it clearly finds it in the listing.

    Read the article

  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • WCF Async callback setup for polled device

    - by Mark Pim
    I have a WCF service setup to control a USB fingerprint reader from our .Net applications. This works fine and I can ask it to enroll users and so on. The reader allows identification (it tells you that a particular user has presented their finger, as opposed to asking it to verify that a particular user's finger is present), but the device must be constantly polled while in identification mode for its status - when a user is detected the status changes. What I want is for an interested application to notify the service that it wants to know when a user is identified, and provide a callback that gets triggered when this happens. The WCF service will return immediately and spawn a thread in the background to continuously poll the device. This polling could go on for hours at a time if no one tries to log in. What's the best way to acheive this? My service contract is currently defined as follows: [ServiceContract (CallbackContract=typeof(IBiometricCallback))] public interface IBiometricWcfService { ... [OperationContract (IsOneWay = true)] void BeginIdentification(); ... } public interface IBiometricCallback { ... [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void IdentificationFinished(int aUserId, string aMessage, bool aSuccess); ... } In my BeginIdentification() method can I easily spawn a worker thread to poll the device, or is it easier to make the WCF service asynchronous?

    Read the article

  • What programming technique not done by you, was ahead of its time?

    - by Ferds
    There are developers who understand a technology and produce a solution months or years ahead of its time. I worked with a guy who designed an system using C# beta which would monitor different system components on several servers. He used SQL Server that would pick up these system monitoring components (via reflection) and would instantiate them via an NT Service. The simplicity in this design, was that another developer (me), who understood part of a system, would produce a component that could monitor it, as he had the specialized knowledge of that part of the system. I would derive from the monitor base class (to start, stop and log info), install on the monitoring server GAC and then add an entry to the components table in sql server. Then the main engine would pick up this component and do its magic. I understood parts of it, but couldn't work out by derive from a base class, why add to the GAC etc. This was 6 years ago and it took me months to realize what he achieved. What programming technique not done by you was ahead of its time? EDIT : Techniques that you have seen at work or journals/blogs - I don't mean historically over years.

    Read the article

  • How would you code an efficient Circular Buffer in Java or C#

    - by Cheeso
    I want a simple class that implements a fixed-size circular buffer. It should be efficient, easy on the eyes, generically typed. EDIT: It need not be MT-capable, for now. I can always add a lock later, it won't be high-concurrency in any case. Methods should be: .Add and I guess .List, where I retrieve all the entries. On second thought, Retrieval I think should be done via an indexer. At any moment I will want to be able to retrieve any element in the buffer by index. But keep in mind that from one moment to the next Element[n] may be different, as the Circular buffer fills up and rolls over. This isn't a stack, it's a circular buffer. Regarding "overflow": I would expect internally there would be an array holding the items, and over time the head and tail of the buffer will rotate around that fixed array. But that should be invisible from the user. There should be no externally-detectable "overflow" event or behavior. This is not a school assignment - it is most commonly going to be used for a MRU cache or a fixed-size transaction or event log.

    Read the article

  • Tracking down slow managed DLL loading

    - by Alex K
    I am faced with the following issue and at this point I feel like I'm severely lacking some sort of tool, I just don't know what that tool is, or what exactly it should be doing. Here is the setup: I have a 3rd party DLL that has to be registered in GAC. This all works fine and good on pretty much every machine our software was deployed on before. But now we got 2 machines, seemingly identical to the ones we know work (they are cloned from the same image and stuffed with the same hardware, so pretty much the only difference is software settings, over which I went over and over, and they seem fine). Now the problem, the DLL in GAC takes a very long time to load. At least I believe this is the issue, what I can say definitively is that instantiating a single class from that DLL is the slow part. Once it is loaded, thing fly as they always have. But while on known-good machines the DLL loads so fast that a timestamp in the log doesn't even change, on these 2 machines it take over 1min to load. Knowns: I have no access to the source, so I can't debug through the DLL. Our app is the only one that uses it (so shouldn't be simultaneous access issues). There is only one version of this DLL in existance, so it shouldn't be a matter of version conflict. The GAC reference is being used (if I uninstall the DLL from GAC, an exception will be thrown about the missing GAC reference). Could someone with a greater skill in debug-fu suggest what I can do to track down the root cause of this issue?

    Read the article

  • Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers

    - by Saurabh Bhandari
    I am trying to do a CORS call to a WCF service endpoint hosted on IIS7.5. I have configured custom headers in IIS. My configuration looks like below <customHeaders> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Methods" value="GET,PUT,POST,DELETE,OPTIONS" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Headers" value="x-user-session,origin, content-type, accept" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Credentials" value="true" /> </customHeaders> When I do a POST request I get following error message "Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers" If I remove my custom header from the call and run it, everything works fine. Also if I do a GET call with custom header then also API works correctly. $.ajax({ type:"POST", success: function(d) { console.log(d) }, timeout: 9000, url: "http://api.myserver.com/Services/v2/CreditCard.svc/update_cc_detail", data: JSON.stringify({"card_id": 1234,"expire_month":"11","expire_year":"2020","full_name":"Demo Account", "number":"4111111111111111","is_primary":true}), xhrFields: { withCredentials: true}, headers: { x-user-session': "B23680D0B8CB5AFED9F624271F1DFAE5052085755AEDDEFDA3834EF16115BCDDC6319BD79FDCCB1E199BB6CC4D0C6FBC9F30242A723BA9C0DFB8BCA3F31F4C7302B1A37EE0A20C42E8AFD45FAB85282FCB62C0B4EC62329BD8573FEBAEBC6E8269FFBF57C7D57E6EF880E396F266E7AD841797792619AD3F1C27A5AE" }, crossDomain: true, contentType: 'application/json' });

    Read the article

  • Android: Adding data to Intent fails to load Activity

    - by DroidIn.net
    I have a widget that supposed to call an Activity of the main app when the user clicks on widget body. My setup works for a single widget instance but for a second instance of the same widget the PendingIntent gets reused and as result the vital information that I'm sending as extra gets overwritten for the 1st instance. So I figured that I should pass widget ID as Intent data however as soon as I add Intent#setData I would see in the log that 2 separate Intents are appropriately fired but the Activity fails to pick it up so basically Activity will not come up and nothing happens (no error or warning ether) Here's how the activity is setup in the Manifest: <activity android:name=".SearchResultsView" android:label="@string/search_results" <intent-filter> <action android:name="bostone.android.search.RESULTS" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> And here's code that is setup for handling the click Intent di = new Intent("bostone.android.search.RESULTS"); di.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); // if line below is commented out - the Activity will start di.setData(ContentUris.withAppendedId(Uri.EMPTY, widgetId)); di.putExtra("URL", url); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.widgetContent, PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, di, 0)); The main app and the widget are packaged as 2 separate APK each in its own package and Manifest

    Read the article

  • Any reason why my $.ajax success callback is not executed in Jquery?

    - by arma
    Hello, Today i discovered that my dev version of my website do not execute success callback, but all other javascript and jquery code is running good. Even my ajax request is performed and i can see response in firebug. $('#login').submit(function(){ var email = $('#l_email').val(); var pass = $('#l_pass').val(); if(email && pass != ''){ var str = decodeURIComponent($(this).serialize()); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "login.php", data: str, success: function(msg){ if(msg == 'OK'){ window.location = 'index.php' }else if (msg == 'NOT_OK'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } }else if (msg == 'EMAIL_NOT_VALID'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } } } }); }else{ alert('That form is empty.'); } return false; }); The thing is $.ajax part executes fine and i can see response in firebug "OK". But redirect is not happening and even if i replace that redirect with something like alert or console.log nothing comes up. What could cause this? It's really hard to track since firebug gives no errors.

    Read the article

  • jquery mobile mPDF not rendering on form submission

    - by Adam
    Im trying to have the user submit form data to a mPDF page the will render a pdf with the data included. The problem Im having is that jquery mobile initializes the mPDF page not allowing the mPDF to render properly. Im trying to figure out how to stop jquery mobile from initializing the mPDF page. Just a note, when I remove query mobile the functionality works. HTML <form id="rxForm" method="post" action="rxPDF.php"> <input type="text" name="dueDate"></form> </form> <button id="printPDF">Submit</button> JQUERY $('#printPDF').on('click', function() { console.log('pdf'); $('#rxForm').submit(); return false; }); mPDF <?php include ("library/mpdf.php"); $dueDate = $_POST['dueDate']; $html = 'The date is '.$dueDate.''; $mpdf = new mPDF(); $mpdf->WriteHTML($html, 0); $mpdf->Output(); exit; ?> I appreciate anyone's help!

    Read the article

  • What could cause these Apache crash errors ?

    - by jacobanderssen
    Hello guys. I had a server crash several days ago. I use Cacti to keep stats: at the time when the server crashed, a huge spike from Load 1 to Load 200 occurred, with over 800 processes in the run queue ( from 300 average). Upon checking /var/log/httpd I notice this: * glibc detected /usr/sbin/httpd: double free or corruption (out): 0x00002b8f3142c2f0 ** Followed by alot of these: [Sat Mar 13 19:20:20 2010] [warn] child process 3090 still did not exit, sending a SIGTERM [Sat Mar 13 19:20:20 2010] [warn] child process 3091 still did not exit, sending a SIGTERM Followed by this: ======= Backtrace: ========= /lib64/libc.so.6[0x2b8f1463c2ef] /lib64/libc.so.6(cfree+0x4b)[0x2b8f1463c73b] /usr/lib64/libapr-1.so.0(apr_pool_destroy+0x131)[0x2b8f13f98821] /usr/sbin/httpd[0x2b8f126df47e] /usr/sbin/httpd[0x2b8f126df4ab] /lib64/libpthread.so.0[0x2b8f141b87c0] /etc/httpd/modules/mod_file_cache.so[0x2b8f1cdf00fb] ======= Memory map: ======== And finally a lot of these: [Sat Mar 13 19:20:27 2010] [error] could not make child process 733 exit, attempting to continue anyway [Sat Mar 13 19:20:27 2010] [error] could not make child process 24560 exit, attempting to continue anyway [Sat Mar 13 19:20:27 2010] [error] could not make child process 31384 exit, attempting to continue anyway I am also noticing one or two lines like this: [Mon Mar 15 01:17:26 2010] [notice] child pid 20765 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) Please help me shed some light on this. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc 2 - return JavaScript with View

    - by Tomaszewski
    Hi, using ASP.NET MVC 2 I have a navigation menu inside my Master Page. In the navigation menu, I am trying add a class to the that the current page relates to (i.e., home page will add class="active" to the Home button). I'm trying to consider scalability and the fact that I don't want to change individual pages if the navigation changes later. The only way I can think of doing this is: Add JavaScript to each individual View that will add the class when the DOM is ready Return JavaScript when return View() occurs on point (2), I am unsure how to do. Thusfar I have been doing the following in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["messege"] = JavaScript("<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'> $(document).ready(function () { console.log('hi hi hi'); }); </script>"); return View(); } but in my view, when I call: <%: ViewData["messege"] %> I get: System.Web.Mvc.JavaScriptResult as the result Would you guys have any ideas on How to solve the navigation menu probelem, other than the solutions I've listed return JavaScript along with your view from the Controller Thanks, in advanced!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694  | Next Page >