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  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

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  • CakePHP - Sorting using HABTM Join Table Field

    - by Ashok
    Hello Cake Gurus, here's my problem: Table1: Posts id - int title - varchar Table2: Categories id - int name - varchar HABTM JoinTable: categories_posts id - int post_id - int category_id - int postorder - int As you can see, the join table contains a field called 'postorder' - This is for ordering the posts in a particular category. For example, Posts: Post1, Post2, Post3, Post4 Categories: Cat1, Cat2 Ordering: Cat1 - Post1, Post3, Post2 Cat2 - Post3, Post1, Post4 Now in CakePHP, $postpages = $this->Post->Category->find('all'); gives me a array like Array ( [0] => Array ( [Category] => Array ( [id] => 13 [name] => Cat1 ) [Post] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Post2 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 17 [post_id] => 1 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 3 ) ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 4 [title] => Post1 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 21 [post_id] => 4 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 1 ) ) ) ) ) As you can see [Post], they are not ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder but are ordered according to [CategoriesPost].id. How can I get the array ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder? Thanks in advance for your time :) Edit: The Queries from Cake's SQL Log are: SELECT `Category`.`id`, `Category`.`name` FROM `categories` AS `Category` WHERE 1 = 1 SELECT `Post`.`id`, `Post`.`title`, `CategoriesPost`.`id`, `CategoriesPost`.`post_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`category_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`postorder` FROM `posts` AS `Post` JOIN `categories_posts` AS `CategoriesPost` ON (`CategoriesPost`.`category_id` IN (13, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52) AND `CategoriesPost`.`post_id` = `Post`.`id`) What I am looking for is how to make cake put a Order By CategoriesPost.postorder in that second SELECT SQL Query.

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  • hibernate insert to a collection causes a delete then all the items in the collection to be inserted

    - by Mark
    I have a many to may relationship CohortGroup and Employee. Any time I insert an Employee into the CohortGroup hibernate deletes the group from the resolution table and inserts all the members again, plus the new one. Why not just add the new one? The annotation in the Group: @ManyToMany(cascade = { PERSIST, MERGE, REFRESH }) @JoinTable(name="MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF", joinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="COHORT_GROUPID")}, inverseJoinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="USERID")}) public List<Employee> getMembers(){ return members; } The other side in the Employee @ManyToMany(mappedBy="members",cascade = { PERSIST, MERGE, REFRESH } ) public List<CohortGroup> getMemberGroups(){ return memberGroups; } Code snipit Employee emp = edao.findByID(cohortId); CohortGroup group = cgdao.findByID(Long.decode(groupId)); group.getMembers().add(emp); cgdao.persist(group); below is the sql reported in the log delete from swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF where COHORT_GROUPID=? insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) insert into swas.MYSITE_RES_COHORT_GROUP_STAFF (COHORT_GROUPID, USERID) values (?, ?) This seams really inefficient and is causing some issues. If sevral requests are made to add an employee to the group then some get over written.

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  • webBrower Button Click without element ID?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm working on a login system for a forum and trying to make it work via a c# .net form. I need to programitically click the login button on the forum with a webBrower control. So far I have this. webPage page = new webPage(); page.URL = txtURL.Text; page.Load(); //Load the text from the specified URL WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_username").SetAttribute("value", textBox1.Text); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_password").SetAttribute("value", textBox2.Text); HtmlElement el = browser.Document.All["btnI"]; if (el != null) { el.InvokeMember("click"); } else { MessageBox.Show("There is an issue with the program"); } The issue is that the login button on the page does not have an ID or any real information that can allow me to click on it. Does anyone have any suggestions? Here is the code for the login button. <input type="image" src="images/loginbutton.png" class="loginbutton" tabindex="104" value="Log in" title="Enter your username and password in the boxes provided to login, or click the 'register' button to create a profile for yourself." accesskey="s">

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  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 Ajax response?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

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  • How do I set the LRECL in C#.NET?

    - by donde
    I have been trying to ftp a dtl file from .net to, what I beleive, is an AS400. The error being reported back to me is: "One or more lines have been truncated" and the admin is saying the file is coming over with 256 lines that have variable length columns. I found this explanation online: we have to establish defaults because no specifics about the file exist. The default RECFM is V and LRECL is 256. This means that SAS will scan the input record looking for the CR & LF to tell us that we are at the EOR. If the marker isn't found within the limit of the LRECL, SAS discards the data from the LRECL value to the end of the record and adds a message to the Log that "One or more lines have been truncated". So I need to set the LRECL. How do I do this in C# .NET? FtpWebRequest ftp = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(ftpfullpath); ftp.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pwd); ftp.KeepAlive = false; ftp.UseBinary = false; ftp.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; FileStream fs = File.OpenRead(inputfilepath + ftpfileName); byte[] buffer = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); fs.Close(); Stream ftpstream = ftp.GetRequestStream(); int i = 0; int intBlock = 1786; int intBuffLeft = buffer.Length; while (i < buffer.Length) { if (intBuffLeft >= 1786) { ftpstream.Write(buffer, i, intBlock); } else { ftpstream.Write(buffer, i, intBuffLeft); } i += intBlock; intBuffLeft -= 1786; } ftpstream.Close();

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  • Can redirection of screen output to file change the result of a C++ code?

    - by Biga
    I am having this very weird behaviour with a C++ code: It gives me different results when running with and without redirecting the screen output to a file (reproducible in cygwin and linux). I mean, if I get the same executable and run it like ./run or run it like ./run >out.log, I get different results! I use std::cout to output to screen, all lines ending with endl; I use ifstream for the input file; I use ofstream for output, all lines ending with endl. I am using g++ 4. Any idea what is going on? UPDATE: I have hard-coded the input data, so 'ifstream' is not used, and problem persists. UPDATE 2: That's getting interesting. I have probed three variables that are computed initially, and that's what I get when using with and without redirecting the output to file redirected to file: 0 -0.02 0 direct to screen: 0 -0.02 1.04083e-17 So there's a round-off difference in the code variables with and without redirecting the output! Now, why redirecting would interefere with an internal computation of the code? UPDATE 3: If I redirect to /dev/null, I get the sam behaviour as outputing direct to screen, instead of redirecting to file.

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  • Not able to play videos (from youtube) in WebView

    - by user1205193
    I am using a webview to display a video (could be from youtube or vimeo) in my app. In order to not load the video webpages in the default Android Browser, I am also extending the WebViewClient so I can override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method. This way the video webpage loads successfully in the WebView. However, when I click on the embedded video on the WebView, it does not play. If I do not override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method, and let the video webpages load in the default Android browser, the videos work just fine. Any ideas why the videos are not working in the WebView? Also, the main reason why I overrode the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method is because if I do not do that, then when I exit the Android browser to come back to my activity (by hitting the back button on the phone), I see a white screen. Upon hitting the back button twice, I am able to get back to my Activity. I am using the emulator to do this test. Here is my code: public class YoutubeLink extends Activity { WebView myWebView; String video_url; private class HelloWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.youtubelink); //Retrieving data from ListSample.java Bundle extras = getIntent().getExtras(); if(extras !=null) { video_url = extras.getString("video_url"); Log.d("inside YoutubeLink.java", video_url); } myWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.web); myWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); myWebView.setWebViewClient(new HelloWebViewClient()); myWebView.loadUrl(video_url); } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) && myWebView.canGoBack()) { myWebView.goBack(); return true; } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); }}

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  • Why am I getting a ClassCastException here?

    - by Holly
    I'm creating an android application and i'm trying to use a PreferenceActivity. I'm getting the java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String error when it gets to this line return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_TERM, USER_TERM_DEF); I thought it might be because I'm not converting it properly from it's string value in the EditText box to the int I need but I can't figure out how to fix this, or is that even the cause? I'm flummoxed. Here's my preference activity class: public class UserPrefs extends PreferenceActivity { //option names and default vals private static final String USER_TERM = "term_length"; private static final String USER_YEAR = "year_length"; private static final int USER_TERM_DEF = 12; private static final int USER_YEAR_DEF = 34; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.preferences); } public static int getTermLength(Context context){ try{ return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_TERM, USER_TERM_DEF); }catch (ClassCastException e){Log.v("getTermLength", "error::: " + e); } //return 1;//temporary, needed to catch the error and couldn't without adding a return outside the block.// } public static int getYearLength(Context context){ return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_YEAR, USER_YEAR_DEF); } And here's the bit of code where I'm trying to use the the preferences inside another class: public float alterForFrequency(Context keypadContext, float enteredAmount, String spinnerPosition){ int termLength = UserPrefs.getTermLength(keypadContext); int yearLength = UserPrefs.getYearLength(keypadContext); } The complete android logcat, i've uploaded here: http://freetexthost.com/v3t4ta3wbi

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  • Spring validation has error in XML document from ServletContext resource

    - by user1441404
    I applied spring validation in my registration page .but the follwing error are shown in my server log of my app engine server. javax.servlet.UnavailableException: org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionStoreException: Line 22 in XML document from ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml] is invalid; nested exception is org.xml.sax.SAXParseException; lineNumber: 22; columnNumber: 30; cvc-complex-type.2.4.c: The matching wildcard is strict, but no declaration can be found for element 'property'. My code is given below : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/jee http://www.springframework.org/schema/jee/spring-jee-3.0.xsd > <beans:bean name="/register" class="com.my.registration.NewUserRegistration"> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.my.validation.UserValidator" /> </property> <beans:property name="formView" value="newuser"></beans:property> <beans:property name="successView" value="home"></beans:property> </beans:bean> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> </beans:beans>

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  • Can piping of screen to file change the result of a C++ code?

    - by Biga
    I am having this very weird behaviour with a C++ code: It gives me different results when running with and without piping the screen to a file (reproducible in cygwin and linux). I mean, if I get the same executable and run it like './run' or run it like './run out.log', I get different results! I use std::cout to output to screen, all lines ending with endl; I use ifstream for the input file; I use ofstream for output, all lines ending with endl. I am using g++ 4. Any idea what is going on? UPDATE: I have hard-coded the input data, so 'ifstream' is not used, and problem persists. UPDATE 2: That's getting interesting. I have output three variables that are computed initially, and that's what I get with and without piping direct to screen: 0 -0.02 0 piped: 0 -0.02 1.04083e-17 So there's a round-off difference with and without piping the output! Now, why piping would interefere with an internal computation of the code?

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  • TCP Socket.Connect is generating false positives

    - by Mark
    I'm experiencing really weird behavior with the Socket.Connect method in C#. I am attempting a TCP Socket.Connect to a valid IP but closed port and the method is continuing as if I have successfully connected. When I packet sniffed what was going on I saw that the app was receiving RST packets from the remote machine. Yet from the tracing that is in place it is clear that the connect method is not throwing an exception. Any ideas what might be causing this? The code that is running is basically this IPEndPoint iep = new IPEndPoint(System.Net.IPAddress.Parse(m_ipAddress), m_port); Socket tcpSocket = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); tcpSocket.Connect(iep); To add to the mystery... when running this code in a stand alone console application, the result is as expected – the connect method throws an exception. However, when running it in the Windows Service deployment we have the connect method does not throw an exception. Edit in response to Mystere Man's answer How would the exception be swallowed? I have a Trace.WriteLine right above the .Connect method and a Trace.WriteLine right under it (not shown in the code sample for readability). I know that both traces are running. I also have a try catch around the whole thing which also does a Trace.Writeline and I don't see that in the log files anywhere. I have also enabled the internal socket tracing as you suggested. I don't see any exceptions. I see what appears to be successful connections. I am trying to identify differences between the windows service app and the diagnostic console app I made. I am running out of ideas though End edit Thanks

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  • Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

    - by bob-the-destroyer
    Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

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  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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  • Custom UIButton Memory Management in dealloc

    - by ddawber
    I am hoping to clarify the processes going on here. I have created a subclass of UIButton whose init method looks like this: - (id)initWithTitle:(NSString *)title frame:(CGRect)btnFrame { self = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setTitle:title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; self.frame = btnFrame; return self; } In my view controller I am creating one of these buttons and adding it as a subview: myButton = [[CustomButton alloc] initWithTitle:@"Title" frame:someFrame]; [self.view addSubview:myButton]; In the view controller's dealloc method I log the retain count of my button: - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 2 [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 1 } The way I understand it, myButton is not actually retained, even though I invoked it using alloc, because in my subclass I created an autorelease button (using buttonWithType:). In dealloc, does this mean that, when dealloc is called the superview releases the button and its retain count goes down to 1? The button has not yet been autoreleased? Or do I need to get that retain count down to zero after calling [super dealloc]? Cheers.

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  • different thread accessing MemoryStream

    - by Wayne
    There's a bit of code which writes data to a MemoryStream object directly into it's data buffer by calling GetBuffer(). It also uses and updates the Position and SetLength() properties appropriately. This code works purposes 99.9999% of the time. Literally. Only every so many 100,000's of iterations it will barf. The specific problem is that the memory.Position property suddenly returns zero instead of the appropriate value. However, code was added that checks for the 0 and throws an exception which include log of the MemoryStream properties like Position and Length in a separate method. Those return the correct value. Further addition shows that when this rare condition occurs, the memory.Position only has zero inside this particular method. Okay. Obviously, this must be a threading issue. But this code is well locked. However, the nature of this software is that it's organized by "tasks" with a scheduler and so any one of several actual O/S thread may run this code at any give time--but never more than one at a time. So it's my guess that ordinarily it so happens that the same thread keeps getting used for this method and then on a rare occasion a different thread get used. Then due to compiler optimizations, the different thread never gets the correct value. It gets a "stale" value. Ordinarily in a situation like this I would apply a "volatile" keyword to the variable in question. But that (those) variables are inside the MemoryStream object. Does anyone have any other idea? Or does this mean we have to implement our own MemoryStream object? (Just like we end up having to do with practically every collection in .NET?) It's a shame to have such an awesome platform as .NET and have virtually the entire system useless as-is for seriously parallelized applications. If I'm wrong or you have other ideas, please advise. Sincerely, Wayne

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  • Automatically restarting Erlang applications

    - by Nick
    I recently ran into a bug where an entire Erlang application died, yielding a log message that looked like this: =INFO REPORT==== 11-Jun-2010::11:07:25 === application: myapp exited: shutdown type: temporary I have no idea what triggered this shutdown, but the real problem I have is that it didn't restart itself. Instead, the now-empty Erlang VM just sat there doing nothing. Now, from the research I've done, it looks like there are other "start types" you can give an application: 'transient' and 'permanent'. If I start a Supervisor within an application, I can tell it to make a particular process transient or permanent, and it will automatically restart it for me. However, according to the documentation, if I make an application transient or permanent, it doesn't restart it when it dies, but rather it kills all the other applications as well. What I really want to do is somehow tell the Erlang VM that a particular application should always be running, and if it goes down, restart it. Is this possible to do? (I'm not talking about implementing a supervisor on top of my application, because then it's a catch 22: what if my supervisor process crashes? I'm looking for some sort of API or setting that I can use to have Erlang monitor and restart my application for me.) Thanks!

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  • implementing a Intelligent File Transfer Software in java over TCP/IP

    - by whyjava
    Hello I am working on a proposal where we have to implement a software which can move files between one source to destination.The overall goal of this project is to create intelligent file transfer.This software will have three components :- 1) Broker : Broker is the module that communicates with other brokers, monitors files, moves files, retrieves configurations from the Configuration Manager, supplies process information for the monitor, archives files, writes all process data to log files and escalates issues if necessary 2) Configuration Manager :Configuration Manager is a web-based application used to configure and deploy the configuration to all brokers. 3) Monitor : Monitor is a web-based application used to monitor each Broker in the environment. This project has to be built up in java and protocol for file transfer in tcp/ip. Client does not want to use FTP. File Transfer seems very easy, until there are several processes who are waiting to pick the file up automatically. Several problems arise: How can we guarantee the file is received at the destination? If a file isn’t received the first time, we should try it again (even after a restart or power breakdown) ? How does the receiver knows the file that is received is complete? How can we transfer multiple files synchronously? How can we protect the bandwidth, so file transfer isn’t blocking other processes? How does one interoperate between multiple OS platforms? What about authentication? How can we monitor het workflow? Auditing / logging Archiving Can you please provide answer to some of these? Thanks

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  • I can not get the text from a selected item in a listview...pleeeeasss help.

    - by Miguel
    I always get an ClassCastException error... i do not what else to do... - I'm using a data biding concept to populated the listview from a sqlite3 database. - I just want to get the selected item text after a long press click. This is the code of the activity: public class ItemConsultaGastos extends ListActivity { private DataHelper dh ; TextView seleccion; private static String[] FROM = {DataHelper.MES, DataHelper.ANO}; private static int[] TO = {R.id.columnaMes, R.id.columnaAno }; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.muestrafechas); this.dh = new DataHelper(this); Cursor cursor = dh.selectAllMeses(); startManagingCursor(cursor); this.mostrarFechas(cursor); ListView lv = getListView(); lv.setOnItemLongClickListener(new OnItemLongClickListener(){ @Override public boolean onItemLongClick(AdapterView<?> arg0, View arg1,int row, long arg3) { //here is where i got the classCastException. String[] tmp = (String[]) arg0.getItemAtPosition(row); //tmp[0] ist the Text of the first TextView displayed by the clicked ListItem Log.w("Gastos: ", "El texto: " + tmp[0].toString()); return true; } }); } private void mostrarFechas(Cursor cursor) { SimpleCursorAdapter adapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this,R.layout.muestrafechasitem,cursor, FROM, TO); setListAdapter(adapter); } } ///// This is the xml where a define the rows to show on the listview <TextView android:id="@+id/espacio" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text=" " /> <TextView android:id="@+id/columnaAno" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textSize="20sp" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/espacio"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/separador1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text=" -- " android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/columnaAno" android:textSize="20sp" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/columnaMes" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/separador1" android:textSize="20sp"/>

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  • Application runs fine when executed directly, fails as scheduled task (security issues)

    - by Carl
    I have an application that loads some files from a network share (the input folder), extracts certain data from them and saves new files (zips them with SharpZLib) on a different network share (output folder). This application runs fine when you open it directly, but when it is set to a scheduled task, it fails in numerous places. This application is scheduled on a Win 2003 server. Let me say right off the bat, the scheduled task is set to use the same login account that I am currently logged in with, so it's not because it's using the LocalSystem account. Something else is going on here. Originally, the application was assigning a drive letter to the input folder using WNetGetConnectionA(). I don't remember why this was done, someone else on our team did that and she's gone now. I think there was some issue with using the WinZip command line with a UNC path. I switched from the WinZip command line utility to using SharpZLib because there were other issues with using the WinZip command line. Anyway, the application failed when trying to assign a drive letter with the error "connection already established." That wasn't true and even after trying WNetCancelConnection(), it still didn't work. Then I decided to just map the drive manually on the server. Then when the app calls Directory.Exists(inputFolderPath) it returns false, even though it does exist. So, for whatever reason, I cannot read this directory from within the application. I can manually navigate to this folder in Windows Explorer and open files. The app log file shows that the user executing it on the schedule is the user I expect, not LocalSystem. Any ideas?

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  • How do I get require_login()-like functionality using the new PHP Client Library for Facebook?

    - by cc
    Howdy. I've been tasked with making a Facebook game, but I'm new to Facebook development, so I'm just getting started. Apologies in advance if this is a no-brainer to people. I'm having trouble following all the examples I see on sites, and I keep running into missing pages in the Facebook documentation when I am trying to read up. I think it's because there's a new version of the PHP Client Library for Facebook, and everything I'm finding is referring to the old client. For instance, I see this code in a lot of examples: require 'facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook( array( 'appId' => '(id)', 'secret' => '(secret)' ) ); $facebook_account = $facebook->require_login(); ...but there's no "require_login()" in the client library provided in the facebook.php file. From what I can tell, it looks like Facebook has very recently rolled out some new system for development, but I don't see any sample code anywhere to deal with it. The new library comes with an "example.php" file, but it appears to be only for adding "Log in with Facebook" functionality to other sites (what I'm assuming is what they mean by "Facebook Connect" sites), not for just running apps in a Canvas page on Facebook itself. Specifically, what I need to do is let users visit an application page within Facebook, have it bring up the dialog box allowing them to authorize the app, have it show up in their "games" page, and then have it pass me the relevant info about the user so I can start creating the game. But I can't seem to find any tutorials or examples that show how to do this using the new library. Seems like this should be pretty straightforward, but I'm running into roadblocks. Or am I missing something about the PHP client library? Should require_login() be working for me, and there's something broken with my implementation, such as having the wrong client library or something? I downloaded from GitHub yesterday, so I'm pretty sure I have the most recent version of the code I have, but perhaps I'm downloading the wrong "facebook.php" file...?

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  • Does ASP.NET Tracing work in MVC2 Views?

    - by AUSTX_RJL
    I have a VS 2010 MVC2 .NET 4.0 web application. ASP.NET tracing is enabled both in the Page directive (Trace="true) and in the Web.config: <trace enabled="true" requestLimit="10" pageOutput="true" traceMode="SortByTime" localOnly="true" writeToDiagnosticsTrace="true" /> A standard trace listener is also configured in the Web.config: <trace autoflush="true" indentsize="4"> <listeners> <add name="WebPageTrace" type="System.Web.WebPageTraceListener, System.Web, Version=4.0.30319.1, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> <add name="TextWriterTrace" type="System.Diagnostics.TextWriterTraceListener" initializeData="textListener.log" /> </listeners> </trace> Tracing works fine from the controller, but when I add a Trace in the View (.aspx) nothing ever shows: <% System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine("Message System.Diagnostics.Trace from View"); %> <% Page.Trace.Write("Message Page.Trace from View"); %> Is this supposed to work? Is there something else that is needed to enable Tracing from a View? Thanks

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  • How to make the TextView invisible when there are items in listView?

    - by Raphael Thomas Liewl
    I like to display textView when there are no items in the listView whereas the textView will not display when there are items in the listView. My problem is even there are items in the listView, the textView still will be displayed in a short time and then load the items into listView. So, how to make the TextView invisible when there are items in listView? Here is the codes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstancesState){ super.onCreate(savedInstancesState); setContentView(R.layout.list_screen); user = getIntent().getExtras().getString("user"); Log.d("dg",user); getList(); lv = (ListView) findViewById(android.R.id.list); emptyText = (TextView)findViewById(android.R.id.empty); lv.setEmptyView(emptyText); } list_screen.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <ListView android:id="@+id/android:list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/android:empty" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="@string/no_friend" android:gravity="center_vertical|center_horizontal"/> </LinearLayout>

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  • asp.net mvc 2 - return JavaScript with View

    - by Tomaszewski
    Hi, using ASP.NET MVC 2 I have a navigation menu inside my Master Page. In the navigation menu, I am trying add a class to the that the current page relates to (i.e., home page will add class="active" to the Home button). I'm trying to consider scalability and the fact that I don't want to change individual pages if the navigation changes later. The only way I can think of doing this is: Add JavaScript to each individual View that will add the class when the DOM is ready Return JavaScript when return View() occurs on point (2), I am unsure how to do. Thusfar I have been doing the following in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["messege"] = JavaScript("<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'> $(document).ready(function () { console.log('hi hi hi'); }); </script>"); return View(); } but in my view, when I call: <%: ViewData["messege"] %> I get: System.Web.Mvc.JavaScriptResult as the result Would you guys have any ideas on How to solve the navigation menu probelem, other than the solutions I've listed return JavaScript along with your view from the Controller Thanks, in advanced!

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  • getElementByTagName does not return comment nodes in javascript

    - by Sourabh
    Hi , I want to retrieve all the nodes present in particular DIV element.see the below test page (firefox) <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> New Document </TITLE> <META NAME="Generator" CONTENT="EditPlus"> <META NAME="Author" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Keywords" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Description" CONTENT=""> <script> function processTags() { var chNodes = document.getElementById('foo').getElementsByTagName('*') ; console.log(chNodes); } </script> </HEAD> <BODY onload="processTags();"> <div id="foo"> <!-- this is a comment -->this is some text ? <span>this is inside span</span> <div><p>test</p>test<div> </div> </BODY> </HTML> But it does not give me comments tag.. what is the best way to retrieve all tags ??

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