Search Results

Search found 22308 results on 893 pages for 'floating point'.

Page 691/893 | < Previous Page | 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698  | Next Page >

  • Dashcode code translation

    - by Alex Mcp
    Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Flexible Decorator Pattern?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I was looking for a pattern to model something I'm thinking of doing in a personal project and I was wondering if a modified version of the decorator patter would work. Basicly I'm thinking of creating a game where the characters attributes are modified by what items they have equiped. The way that the decorator stacks it's modifications is perfect for this, however I've never seen a decorator that allows you to drop intermediate decorators, which is what would happen when items are unequiped. Does anyone have experience using the decorator pattern in this way? Or am I barking up the wrong tree? Clarification To explain "Intermediate decorators" if for example my base class is coffe which is decorated with milk which is decorated with sugar (using the example in Head first design patterns) milk would be an intermediate decorator as it decorates the base coffee, and is decorated by the sugar. Yet More Clarification :) The idea is that items change stats, I'd agree that I am shoehorning the decorator into this. I'll look into the state bag. essentially I want a single point of call for the statistics and for them to go up/down when items are equiped/unequiped. I could just apply the modifiers to the characters stats on equiping and roll them back when unequiping. Or whenever a stat is asked for iterate through all the items and calculate the stat. I'm just looking for feedback here, I'm aware that I might be using a chainsaw where scissors would be more appropriate...

    Read the article

  • VLC desktop streaming

    - by StackedCrooked
    Edit I stopped using VLC and switched to GMax FLV Encoder. It does a much better job IMO. Original post I am sending my desktop (screen) as an H264 video stream to another machine that saves it to a file using the follwoing command lines: Sender of the stream: vlc -I dummy --sout='#transcode{vcodec=h264,vb=512,scale=0.5} :rtp{mux=ts,dst=192.168.0.1,port=4444}' Receiver of the stream: vlc -I rc rtp://@:4444 --sout='#std{access=file,mux=ps,dst=/home/user/output.mp4}' --ipv4 This works, but there are a few issues: The file is not playable with most players. VLC is able to playback the file but with some weirdness: = it takes about 10 seconds before the playback actually begins. = seeking doesn't work. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to fix these issues? EDIT: I made a little progress. The initial delay in playback is because the player is waiting for a keyframe. By forcing the sender of the stream to create a new key-frame every 4 seconds I could decrease the delay: :screen-fps=10 --sout='#transcode{vcodec=h264,venc=x264{keyint=40},vb=512,scale=0.5} :rtp{mux=ts,dst=192.168.0.1,port=4444}' The seeking problem is not solved however, but I understand it a little better. The RTP stream is saved as a file in its original streaming format, which is normally not playable as a regular video file. VLC manages to play this file, but most other players don't. So I need to convert it to a regular video file. I am currently investigating whether I can do this with ffmpeg if I provide it with an SDP file for the recorded stream. All help is welcome!

    Read the article

  • Writing to a file in Python inserts null bytes

    - by Javier Badia
    I'm writing a todo list program. It keeps a file with a thing to do per line, and lets the user add or delete items. The problem is that for some reason, I end up with a lot of zero bytes at the start of the file, even though the item is correctly deleted. I'll show you a couple of screenshots to make sure I'm making myself clear. This is the file in Notepad++ before running the program: This is the file after deleting item 3 (counting from 1): This is the relevant code. The actual program is bigger, but running just this part triggers the error. import os TODO_FILE = r"E:\javi\code\Python\todo-list\src\todo.txt" def del_elems(f, delete): """Takes an open file and either a number or a list of numbers, and deletes the lines corresponding to those numbers (counting from 1).""" if isinstance(delete, int): delete = [delete] lines = f.readlines() f.truncate(0) counter = 1 for line in lines: if counter not in delete: f.write(line) counter += 1 f = open(TODO_FILE, "r+") del_elems(f, 3) f.close() Could you please point out where's the mistake?

    Read the article

  • install linux guest on windows host using a .iso file on vmserver 2.0

    - by Bob
    I have done this in vmserver 1.0. I set the Cd to point to the .iso file. Then I start the vm and it starts to install. I am on the summary screen. I have created a VM. I go to CD/DVD - edit I change the radio button to Host Medio Then I select ISO Image and Browse. Here is the problem: Then in my browser I get Inventory - Virtual Machine (directory) I don't know where that directory is. I have my ISO's in a folder on my desktop. I can't browse to my desktop. When I try to just put in a path such as c:\mydesktop\mylinuxdirectory\linux1.iso The following problems have been found:OKThe ISO Image File Path must be a valid file path in the format: "[datastore] /path/to/isoimage.iso". so how do I browse to an ISO? I can add the iso after I start the VM, but by then its too late and the VM says no Operating System installed.

    Read the article

  • Extracting [] elements from form collection - mvc - should use icollection but have mix of types

    - by bergin
    hi there. have looked at Phil Haacks project on books at http://haacked.com/archive/2008/10/23/model-binding-to-a-list.aspx which has been useful, but I have a mix of data types. I use a modelview so that i can have a mix of objects, in this case: Order (ie order.id, order.date etc), Customer, SoilSamplingOrder and a list of SoilSamplingSubJobs which is like this [0].id, [0].field, [1].id, [1].field etc Perhaps I should be using ICollection instead of List? I had problems getting UpdateModel to work so I used an extract from collection method. the first 4 method calls : orderRepository.FindOrder(id); etc give the model the original to be edited. but after this point i'm a little lost in how to update the subjobs. I hope i have delineated enough to make sense of the problem. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Order order = orderRepository.FindOrder(id); Customer cust = orderRepository.FindCustomer(order.customer_id); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssj = orderRepository.FindSubOrders(id); SoilSamplingOrder sso = orderRepository.FindSoilSampleOrder(id); try { UpdateModel(order, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(cust, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssjs = orderRepository.extractSSSJ(collection); foreach (var sj in sssjs) UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=order.order_id}); } catch { return View(); } }

    Read the article

  • "select * from table" vs "select colA,colB,etc from table" interesting behaviour in SqlServer2005

    - by kristof
    Apology for a lengthy post but I needed to post some code to illustrate the problem. Inspired by the question What is the reason not to use select * ? posted a few minutes ago, I decided to point out some observations of the select * behaviour that I noticed some time ago. So let's the code speak for itself: IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[starTest]') AND type in (N'U')) DROP TABLE [dbo].[starTest] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[starTest]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A] [varchar](50) NULL, [B] [varchar](50) NULL, [C] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into dbo.starTest(a,b,c) select 'a1','b1','c1' union all select 'a2','b2','c2' union all select 'a3','b3','c3' go IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.views WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[vStartest]')) DROP VIEW [dbo].[vStartest] go create view dbo.vStartest as select * from dbo.starTest go go IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.views WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[vExplicittest]')) DROP VIEW [dbo].[vExplicittest] go create view dbo.[vExplicittest] as select a,b,c from dbo.starTest go select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicitTest IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[starTest]') AND type in (N'U')) DROP TABLE [dbo].[starTest] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[starTest]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A] [varchar](50) NULL, [B] [varchar](50) NULL, [D] [varchar](50) NULL, [C] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into dbo.starTest(a,b,d,c) select 'a1','b1','d1','c1' union all select 'a2','b2','d2','c2' union all select 'a3','b3','d3','c3' select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicittest select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest If you execute the following query and look at the results of last 2 select statements, the results that you will see will be as follows: select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicittest a1 b1 c1 a2 b2 c2 a3 b3 c3 select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest a1 b1 d1 a2 b2 d2 a3 b3 d3 As you can see in the results of select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest the data of column c has been replaced with the data from colum d. I believe that is related to the way the views are compiled, my understanding is that the columns are mapped by column indexes (1,2,3,4) as apposed to names. I though I would post it as a warning for people using select * in their sql and experiencing unexpected behaviour. Note: If you rebuild the view that uses select * each time after you modify the table it will work as expected

    Read the article

  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

    Read the article

  • How to render a DateTime in a specific format in ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Slauma
    If I have in my model class a property of type DateTime how can I render it in a specific format - for example in the format which ToLongDateString() returns? I have tried this... @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString()) ...which throws an exception because the expression must point to a property or field. And this... @{var val = item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString(); Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => val); } ...which doesn't throw an exception, but the rendered output is empty (although val contains the expected value, as I could see in the debugger). Thanks for tips in advance! Edit ToLongDateString is only an example. What I actually want to use instead of ToLongDateString is a custom extension method of DateTime and DateTime?: public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime dateTime) { if (dateTime.TimeOfDay == TimeSpan.Zero) return dateTime.ToString("d"); else return dateTime.ToString("g"); } public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return dateTime.Value.FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(); else return ""; } So, I think I cannot use the DisplayFormat attribute and DataFormatString parameter on the ViewModel properties.

    Read the article

  • Efficient way to handle multiple HTMLPurifier configs.

    - by anomareh
    I'm using HTMLPurifier in a current project and I'm not sure about the most efficient way to go about handling multiple configs. For the most part the only major thing changing is the allowed tags. Currently I have a private method, in each class using HTMLPurifier, that gets called when a config is needed and it creates one from the default. I'm not really happy with this as if 2 classes are using the same config, that's duplicating code, and what if a class needs 2 configs? It just feels messy. The one upside to it, is it's lazy in the sense that it's not creating anything until it's needed. The various classes could be used and never have to purify anything. So I don't want to be creating a bunch of config objects that might not even be used. I just recently found out that you can create a new instance of HTMLPurifier and directly set config options like so: $purifier = new HTMLPurifier(); $purifier->config->set('HTML.Allowed', ''); I'm not sure if that's bad form at all or not, and if it isn't I'm not really sure of a good way to put it to use. My latest idea was to create a config handler class that would just return an HTMLPurifier config for use in subsequent purify calls. At some point it could probably be expanded to allow the setting of configs, but just from the start I figured they'd just be hardcoded and run a method parameter through a switch to grab the requested config. Perhaps I could just send the stored purifier instance as an argument and have the method directly set the config on it like shown above? This to me seems the best of the few ways I thought of, though I'm not sure if such a task warrants me creating a class to handle it, and if so, if I'm handling it in the best way. I'm not too familiar with the inner workings of HTMLPurifier so I'm not sure if there are any better mechanisms in place for handling multiple configs. Thanks for any insight anyone can offer.

    Read the article

  • C malloc assertion help

    - by Chris
    I am implementing a divide and conquer polynomial algorithm so i can bench it against an opencl implementation, but i can't seem to get malloc to work. When I run the program it allocates a bunch of stuff, checks some things, then sends the size/2 to the algorithm. Then when I hit the malloc line again it spits out this: malloc.c:3096: sYSMALLOc: Assertion `(old_top == (((mbinptr) (((char *) &((av)-bins[((1) - 1) * 2])) - __builtin_offsetof (struct malloc_chunk, fd)))) && old_size == 0) || ((unsigned long) (old_size) = (unsigned long)((((__builtin_offsetof (struct malloc_chunk, fd_nextsize))+((2 * (sizeof(size_t))) - 1)) & ~((2 * (sizeof(size_t))) - 1))) && ((old_top)-size & 0x1) && ((unsigned long)old_end & pagemask) == 0)' failed. Aborted The line in question is: int *out, .....other vars....; out = (int *)malloc(sizeof(int) * size * 2); I have checked size with fprintf and it is a positive int (usually 50 at that point). I have tried calling malloc with a plain number as well and i still get the error. I'm just stumped at what's going on, and nothing from google that I have found so far has been too helpful. Any ideas what's going on? I'm trying to figure out how to compile a newer GCC in case it's a compiler error, but i really doubt it.

    Read the article

  • web service - client classes

    - by Noona
    The web service that I implemented is up and running, when I try to run the client I get the following error with regard to the classes that were generated using wsimport, Caused by: java.security.PrivilegedActionException: com.sun.xml.internal.bind.v2.runtime.IllegalAnnotationsException: 4 counts of IllegalAnnotationExceptions Two classes have the same XML type name "{http://server.agency.hw2/}userJoined". Use @XmlType.name and @XmlType.namespace to assign different names to them. this problem is related to the following location: at hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoined at public javax.xml.bind.JAXBElement hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.ObjectFactory.createUserJoined(hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoined) at hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.ObjectFactory this problem is related to the following location: at ChatCompany.BackendChatServer.hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoined Two classes have the same XML type name "{http://server.agency.hw2/}userJoinedResponse". Use @XmlType.name and @XmlType.namespace to assign different names to them. this problem is related to the following location: at hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoinedResponse at public javax.xml.bind.JAXBElement hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.ObjectFactory.createUserJoinedResponse(hw2.chat.backend.main.generatedfromserver.UserJoinedResponse) But I can't figure out what exactly is meant by the error. I am assuming I need to change something in annotations in this class as pointed out by the compiler: @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.FIELD) @XmlType(name = "userJoinedResponse") public class UserJoinedResponse { } could someone please point out why there's a name collision and what annotations I need to change? thanks

    Read the article

  • Android SQLite database locale, locking, and version

    - by gdoten
    In some books and online I see these method calls being made after a database is created: db.setLocale(Locale.getDefault()); db.setLockingEnabled(true); db.setVersion(DB_VERSION); Why is this done? As far as I can tell, after creating a new database, the system adds a table named android_metadata with one field named locale and that table has one row with the locale field set to "en_US". Now I assume the column has that value because I am using a U.S. phone, and if I were using a phone from a different region then the locale field would be set appropriately. Can anyone confirm this? I'm guessing that the setLocale method would only be useful in the case that you install a pre-built database onto a phone and then want to change the locale to match the phone's locale. Sound right? The documentation for setLockingEnabled says it defaults to true so there's no need to make that call, right? Lastly, what's with the call to setVersion? I can't find a table that contains this information so I've been assuming that the database file itself stores the version number somewhere. So when I create a database, which requires you to have already specified the version number in the call to the SQLiteOpenHelper constructor, there's no point in calling setVersion. Again, perhaps this method exists for the case of installing a pre-built database to a device and you then wish to change the database's version (though I can't think of when doing this would make sense). Thanks for any insight!

    Read the article

  • RegAsm for Class Library Used in VB6 Application

    - by michael.lukatchik
    To be short and to the point, I've built a C# class library that is both COM-Visible and Registered for COM Interop. I've compiled the library, which resulted in the generation of .dll and .tlb files. I have another machine that's running a VB6 application. So, I copied the .dll and .tlb files over to C:/Windows/system32 folder on the machine. I then registered those files using the following: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\Windows\system32\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb After the files were registered successfully, I added a project reference to the Test.tlb file from inside my VB6 app, then I tried to invoke a method in my new referenced class like so: Dim myObject As TestNamespace.TestClass Set myObject = New TestNamespace.TestClass MsgBox (myObject.TestMethod()) It doesn't work, and I receive a -2147024894 Automation Error. I've read that I shouldn't install the dll into a private folder like system32. I should either be registering in the GAC or I should be registering in another location using the "/codebase" option: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb /codebase Is there any reason I shouldn't be using system32? Past devs that have worked on this project have placed assembly files used by this VB6 project into system32 and there haven't seemed to be any issues. When I register my dll in the system32 location, I get the Automation Error. When I register my dll in another location (i.e. C:/), the method call into my class library from VB6 works as expected. What gives? I should mention that we will NOT be using the GAC to register any DLL's. That's just the way it is. Any help is appreciated. Mike

    Read the article

  • WCF Callback Faulted - what happens to the session?

    - by RemotecUk
    Just trying to get my head around what can happen when things go wrong with WCF. I have an implementation of my service contract declared with an InstanceContextMode of PerSession... [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] The calls happen as follows: My client calls the server and calls GetServerUTC() to return the current UTC time of the server. This is a one way call and the server will call the client back when its ready (trivial in this instance to simply return the current time!) The server calls back to the client and for test purposes in the callback implementation on the client I throw an exception. This goes unhandled in the client (for test purposes) and the client crashes and closes down. On the server I handle the faulted event handler on the ICommunicationObject... obj.Faulted += new EventHandler(EventService_Faulted); Questions... Will this kill off the session for the current connection on the server. I presume I am free to do what I want in this method e.g. logging or something, but should I do anything specific here to terminate the session or will WCF handle this? From a best practise view point what should I do when the callback is faulted? Does it mean "something has happened in your client" and thats the end of that or is there something I a missing here? Additionally, are there any other faulted handlers I should be handling. Ive done a lot of reading on WCF and it seems sort of vague on what to do when something goes wrong. At present I am implementing a State Machine on my client which will manage the connection and determine if a user action can happen dependant on if a connection exists to the server - or is this overkill. Any tips would be really appreciated ;)

    Read the article

  • jQuery performance

    - by jAndy
    Hi Folks, imagine you have to do DOM manipulation like a lot (in my case, it's kind of a dynamic list). Look at this example: var $buffer = $('<ul/>', { 'class': '.custom-example', 'css': { 'position': 'absolute', 'top': '500px' } }); $.each(pages[pindex], function(i, v){ $buffer.append(v); }); $buffer.insertAfter($root); "pages" is an array which holds LI elements as jQuery object. "$root" is an UL element What happens after this code is, both UL's are animated (scrolling) and finally, within the callback of animate this code is executed: $root.detach(); $root = $buffer; $root.css('top', '0px'); $buffer = null; This works very well, the only thing I'm pi**ed off is the performance. I do cache all DOM elements I'm laying a hand on. Without looking too deep into jQuery's source code, is there a chance that my performance issues are located there? Does jQuery use DocumentFragments to append things? If you create a new DOM element with var new = $('<div/>') it is only stored in memory at this point isnt it?

    Read the article

  • Best way to fork SVN project with Git

    - by Jeremy Thomerson
    I have forked an SVN project using Git because I needed to add features that they didn't want. But at the same time, I wanted to be able to continue pulling in features or fixes that they added to the upstream version down into my fork (where they don't conflict). So, I have my Git project with the following branches: master - the branch I actually build and deploy from feature_* - feature branches where I work or have worked on new things, which I then merge to master when complete vendor-svn - my local-only git-svn branch that allows me to "git svn rebase" from their svn repo vendor - my local branch that i merge vendor-svn into. then i push this (vendor) branch to the public git repo (github) So, my flow is something like this: git checkout vendor-svn git svn rebase git checkout vendor git merge vendor-svn git push origin vendor Now, the question comes here: I need to review each commit that they made (preferably individually since at this point I'm about twenty commits behind them) before merging them into master. I know that I could run git checkout master; git merge vendor, but this would pull in all changes and commit them, without me being able to see if they conflict with what I need. So, what's the best way to do this? Git seems like a great tool for handling forks of projects since you can pull and push from multiple repos - I'm just not experienced with it enough to know the best way of doing this. Here's the original SVN project I'm talking about: https://appkonference.svn.sourceforge.net/svnroot/appkonference My fork is at github.com/jthomerson/AsteriskAudioKonf (sorry - I couldn't make it a link since I'm a new user here)

    Read the article

  • Draw Rectangle with XNA

    - by mazzzzz
    Hey guys, I was working on game, and wanted to highlight a spot on the screen when something happens, I created a class to do this for me, and found a bit of code to draw the rectangle static private Texture2D CreateRectangle(int width, int height, Color colori) { Texture2D rectangleTexture = new Texture2D(game.GraphicsDevice, width, height, 1, TextureUsage.None, SurfaceFormat.Color);// create the rectangle texture, ,but it will have no color! lets fix that Color[] color = new Color[width * height];//set the color to the amount of pixels in the textures for (int i = 0; i < color.Length; i++)//loop through all the colors setting them to whatever values we want { color[i] = colori; } rectangleTexture.SetData(color);//set the color data on the texture return rectangleTexture;//return the texture } Problem is that the code above is called every update, (60 times a second), and it was not written with optimization in mind, I have no clue how else to write a code to do this though. It needs to be extremely fast (the code above freezes the game, which has only skeleton code right now).. Any suggestions. Note: Any new code would be great (WireFrame/Fill are both fine). I would like to be able to specify color. Something to point in the right direction would be great, Thanks, Max

    Read the article

  • Looking for examples of "real" uses of continuations

    - by Sébastien RoccaSerra
    I'm trying to grasp the concept of continuations and I found several small teaching examples like this one from the Wikipedia article: (define the-continuation #f) (define (test) (let ((i 0)) ; call/cc calls its first function argument, passing ; a continuation variable representing this point in ; the program as the argument to that function. ; ; In this case, the function argument assigns that ; continuation to the variable the-continuation. ; (call/cc (lambda (k) (set! the-continuation k))) ; ; The next time the-continuation is called, we start here. (set! i (+ i 1)) i)) I understand what this little function does, but I can't see any obvious application of it. While I don't expect to use continuations all over my code anytime soon, I wish I knew a few cases where they can be appropriate. So I'm looking for more explicitely usefull code samples of what continuations can offer me as a programmer. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Debug Symbols not loading

    - by FunkyFresh84
    I am trying to enable visual studio to step through the .net framework source code when I am debugging. I have tried with both Visual Web-Developer-Express-2010 and Visual-Studio-2011-Express-For-Web and I am getting the same problem with each. When I get to the break point at the .net method I wish to step into I do right-clickstep-into-specificclick-method-to-step-into. Then VS opens a new tab. saying it couldn't find or load the symbols. It gives a list of the assembly symbols it looked for. There is also a 'Load Symbols hyperlink which doesn't work. And another hyperlink that takes me to the debug settings dialog. I have read tutorials on how to set it up and have believe I have the correct settings. In the debugging general settings I have - enable address-level debugging - checked enable source server support - checked enable .net framework source stepping - checked enable just my code - not checked In the debugging symbol settings I have - symbol file (.pdb) locations - Microsoft Symbol Servers - checked Caching Directory - C:\Users\MyAccount\AppData\Local\Temp\SymbolCache Automatically load symbols for: all modules unless excluded - checked Why is it not working? Thank you for your help. edit: here is a screenshot of the error VS is giving me.

    Read the article

  • jQuery change CSS background position and mouseover/mouseout

    - by steelfrog
    I have a menu composed of a single image (e.g., sprites). In order to display the hover image, I simply move the background image down. I'd like this effect to be controlled by jQuery and animated. This is a sample menu item. <ul> <li id="home"><a href="#"></a></li> </ul> This is what I'm toying with. I'm very new to jQuery and am having problems getting the proper selector going. $(document).ready(function(){ $('#home a'); // Set the 'normal' state background position .css( {backgroundPosition: "0 0"} ) // On mouse over, move the background .mouseover(function(){ $(this).stop().animate({backgroundPosition:"(0 -54px)"}, {duration:500}) }) // On mouse out, move the background back .mouseout(function(){ $(this).stop().animate({backgroundPosition:"(0 0)"}, {duration:500}) }) }); Could you point out what I'm doing wrong? I know the selector is probably incorrect but I'm having a hard time figuring out how to manipulate the anchor.

    Read the article

  • System.Dynamic bug?

    - by ControlFlow
    While I playing with the C# 4.0 dynamic, I found strange things happening with the code like this: using System.Dynamic; sealed class Foo : DynamicObject { public override bool TryInvoke( InvokeBinder binder, object[] args, out object result) { result = new object(); return true; } static void Main() { dynamic foo = new Foo(); var t1 = foo(0); var t2 = foo(0); var t3 = foo(0); var t4 = foo(0); var t5 = foo(0); } } Ok, it works but... take a look at IntelliTrace window: So every invokation (and other operations too on dynamic object) causes throwing and catching strange exceptions twice! I understand, that sometimes exceptions mechanism may be used for optimizations, for example first call to dynamic may be performed to some stub delegate, that simply throws exception - this may be like a signal to dynamic binder to resolve an correct member and re-point delegate. Next call to the same delegate will be performed without any checks. But... behavior of the code above looks very strange. Maybe throwing and catching exceptions twice per any operation on DynamicObject - is a bug?

    Read the article

  • .net mvc pass dictionary data from view to controller

    - by Wei Ma
    A while ago, I was trying to pass a dictionary data from my view to my controller. And I was able to do so after googling on the net(remember it was one of scott hanselman's posts). The solution I had was something like <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Key"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Value"%>"/> <%}%> public ActionResult Process(IDictionary<string,string> properties) { doSomething(); return View(); } The code worked for awhile and then I did some refactoring and got rid of this chunk of code. Today, I ran into a situation in which I would like to pass a dictionary again. But no matter how hard I try, the properties parameter received by the action was always null. I tried the above code and <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Keys["+index+"]"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Values["+index+"]"%>"/> <%}%> Neither code worked. I googled again but couldn't find the post that helped me before. Can someone point out what I did wrong? thanks a million.

    Read the article

  • Using Git to work with subversion: Ignoring modifications to tracked files

    - by Chris Nicola
    I am currently working with a subversion repository but I am using git to work locally on my machine. It makes work much easier, but it also makes some of the bad behavior going on in the subversion repo quite glaring and that creates problems for me. There is a somewhat complex local build process after pulling down the code and it creates (and unfortunately modifies) a number of files. Obviously these changes are not meant to be committed back to the repository. Unfortunately the build process is actually modifying some tracked files (yes, most likely because someone mistakenly committed these build artifacts at some point to the subversion repository). Since these are modifications adding them to my ignore file does nothing for me. I can avoid checking these changes back it, I simple don't stage or commit them, but having unstaged local changes means I can't rebase without first cleaning them up. What I would like to know is if there any way to ignore future changes to a set of tracked files? Alternatively, is there another way to handle the problem I am having, or will I just have to tell whoever checked in these files to clean them up?

    Read the article

  • using JQuery and Prototype in the same page

    - by Don
    Hi, Several of my pages use both JQuery and Protoype. Since I upgraded to version 1.3 of JQuery this appears to be causing problems, because both libraries define a function named '$'. JQuery provides a function noConflict() which relinquishes control of $ to other libraries that may be using it. So it seems like I need to go through all my pages that look like this: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/prototype.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/jquery.js"></script> </head> and change them to look like this: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/prototype.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/obp/js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.noConflict(); var $j = jQuery; </script> </head> I should then be able to use '$' for Prototype and '$j' (or 'jQuery') for JQuery. I'm not entirely happy about duplicating these 2 lines of code in every relevant page, and expect that at some point somebody is likely to forget to add them to a new page. I'd prefer to be able to do the following Create a file jquery-noconflict.js which "includes" jquery.js and the 2 lines of code shown above Import jquery-noconflict.js (instead of jquery.js) in all my JSP/HTML pages However, I'm not sure if it's possible to include one JS file in another, in the manner I've described? Of course an alternate solution is simply to add the 2 lines of code above to jquery.js directly, but if I do that I'll need to remember to do it every time I upgrade JQuery. Thanks in advance, Don

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698  | Next Page >