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  • AMQP gem specifying a dead letter exchange

    - by JP.
    I've specified a queue on the RabbitMQ server called MyQueue. It is durable and has x-dead-letter-exchange set to MyQueue.DLX. (I also have an exchange called MyExchange bound to that queue, and another exchange called MyQueue.DLX, but I don't believe this is important to the question) If I use ruby's amqp gem to subscribe to those messages I would do it like this: # Doing this before and in a new thread has to do with how my code is structured # shown here in case it has a bearing on the question Thread.new do AMQP.start('amqp://guest:[email protected]:5672') end EventMachine.next_tick do channel = AMQP::Channel.new(AMQP.connection) queue = channel.queue("MyQueue", :durable => true, :'x-dead-letter-exchange' => "MyQueue.DLX") queue.subscribe(:ack => true) do |metadata, payload| p metadata p payload end end If I execute this code with the queues and exchanges already created and bound (as they need to be in my set up) then RabbitMQ throws the following error in its logs: =ERROR REPORT==== 19-Aug-2013::14:25:53 === connection <0.19654.2>, channel 2 - soft error: {amqp_error,precondition_failed, "inequivalent arg 'x-dead-letter-exchange'for queue 'MyQueue' in vhost '/': received none but current is the value 'MyQueue.DLX' of type 'longstr'", 'queue.declare'} Which seems to be saying that I haven't specified the same Dead Letter Exchange as the pre-existing queue - but I believe I have with the queue = ... line. Any ideas?

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  • Why is the Clojure Hello World program so slow compared to Java and Python?

    - by viksit
    Hi all, I'm reading "Programming Clojure" and I was comparing some languages I use for some simple code. I noticed that the clojure implementations were the slowest in each case. For instance, Python - hello.py def hello_world(name): print "Hello, %s" % name hello_world("world") and result, $ time python hello.py Hello, world real 0m0.027s user 0m0.013s sys 0m0.014s Java - hello.java import java.io.*; public class hello { public static void hello_world(String name) { System.out.println("Hello, " + name); } public static void main(String[] args) { hello_world("world"); } } and result, $ time java hello Hello, world real 0m0.324s user 0m0.296s sys 0m0.065s and finally, Clojure - hellofun.clj (defn hello-world [username] (println (format "Hello, %s" username))) (hello-world "world") and results, $ time clj hellofun.clj Hello, world real 0m1.418s user 0m1.649s sys 0m0.154s Thats a whole, garangutan 1.4 seconds! Does anyone have pointers on what the cause of this could be? Is Clojure really that slow, or are there JVM tricks et al that need to be used in order to speed up execution? More importantly - isn't this huge difference in performance going to be an issue at some point? (I mean, lets say I was using Clojure for a production system - the gain I get in using lisp seems completely offset by the performance issues I can see here). The machine used here is a 2007 Macbook Pro running Snow Leopard, a 2.16Ghz Intel C2D and 2G DDR2 SDRAM. BTW, the clj script I'm using is from here and looks like, #!/bin/bash JAVA=/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6/Home/bin/java CLJ_DIR=/opt/jars CLOJURE=$CLJ_DIR/clojure.jar CONTRIB=$CLJ_DIR/clojure-contrib.jar JLINE=$CLJ_DIR/jline-0.9.94.jar CP=$PWD:$CLOJURE:$JLINE:$CONTRIB # Add extra jars as specified by `.clojure` file if [ -f .clojure ] then CP=$CP:`cat .clojure` fi if [ -z "$1" ]; then $JAVA -server -cp $CP \ jline.ConsoleRunner clojure.lang.Repl else scriptname=$1 $JAVA -server -cp $CP clojure.main $scriptname -- $* fi

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  • Dynamically create a text file from a C# program

    - by techstu
    Can I dynamically create a text file from a C# program, using data from a previously created xml file and text file, I have written half the code, but can't go any further please help using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; namespace Task3 { class TextFileReader { static void Main(string[] args) { String strn=" ", strsn=String.Empty; XmlTextReader reader = new XmlTextReader("my.xml"); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader.NodeType) { case XmlNodeType.Element: // The node is an element. if (reader.HasAttributes) { strn = reader.GetAttribute(0); strsn = reader.GetAttribute(1); int counter = 0; string line; // Read the file and display it line by line. System.IO.StreamReader file = new System.IO.StreamReader("read_file.txt"); string ch, ch1; while ((line = file.ReadLine()) != null) { if (line.Substring(0, 1).Equals("%")) { int a = line.IndexOf('%'); int b = line.LastIndexOf('%'); ch = line.Substring(a + 1, b - 1); ch1 = line.Substring(a, b+1); if (ch == "name") { string test = line.Replace(ch1, strn); Console.WriteLine(test); } else if (ch == "sirname") { string test = line.Replace(ch1, strsn); Console.WriteLine(test); } } else { Console.WriteLine(line); } counter++; } file.Close(); } break; } } // Suspend the screen. Console.ReadLine(); } } } the xml file from which i am reading is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> - <Workflow> <User UserName="pqr" Sirname="sbd" /> <User UserName="abc" Sirname="xyz" /> </Workflow> and the text file is: hi this is me %sirname% %name% but this is not wat i want..please help

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  • Number of ways to place kings on chess board

    - by Rakesh
    You have an N x N chessboard and you wish to place N kings on it. Each row and column should contain exactly one king, and no two kings should attack each other (two kings attack each other if they are present in squares which share a corner). The kings in the first K rows of the board have already been placed. You are given the positions of these kings as an array pos[ ]. pos[i] is the column in which the king in the ith row has already been placed. All indices are 0-indexed. In how many ways can the remaining kings be placed? Input: The first line contains the number of test cases T. T test cases follow. Each test case contains N and K on the first line, followed by a line having K integers, denoting the array pos[ ] as described above. Output: Output the number of ways to place kings in the remaining rows satisfying the above conditions. Output all numbers modulo 1000000007. Constraints: 1 <= T <= 20 1 <= N <= 16 0 <= K <= N 0 <= pos_i < N The kings specified in the input will be in different columns and not attack each other. Sample Input: 5 4 1 2 3 0 5 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 0 2 6 1 2 Sample Output: 1 0 2 1 18 Explanation: For the first example, there is a king already placed at row 0 and column 2. The king in the second row must belong to column 0. The king in the third row must belong to column 3, and the last king must beong to column 1. Thus there is only 1 valid placement. For the second example, there is no valid placement. How should i approach this problem

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  • Ruby on Rails: How to sanitize a string for SQL when not using find and other built-in methods?

    - by williamjones
    I'm trying to sanitize a string that involves user input without having to resort to manually crafting my own possibly buggy regex if possible. There are a number of methods in Rails that can allow you to enter in native SQL commands, how do people escape user input for those? The question I'm asking is a broad one, but in my particular case, I'm working with a column in my Postgres database that Rails does not natively understand as far as I know, the tsvector, which holds plain text search information. Rails is able to write and read from it as if it's a string, however, unlike a string, it doesn't seem to be automatically escaping it when I do things like vector= inside the model. For example, when I do model.name='::', where name is a string, it works fine. When I do model.vector='::' it errors out: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: PGError: ERROR: syntax error in tsvector: "::" "vectors" = E'::' WHERE "id" = 1 This seems to be a problem caused by lack of escaping of the semicolons, and I can manually set the vector='\:\:' fine. I also had the bright idea, maybe I can just call something like: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute "UPDATE medias SET vectors = ? WHERE id = 1", "::" However, this syntax doesn't work, because the raw SQL commands don't have access to find's method of escaping and inputting strings by using the ? mark. This strikes me as the same problem as calling connection.execute with any type of user input, as it all boils down to sanitizing the strings, but I can't seem to find any way to manually call Rails' SQL string sanitization methods. Can anyone provide any advice?

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  • Client unable to authenticate when connecting to WCF service

    - by davecoulter
    I have a WCF service hosted in a Windows service. The application is an intranet app, and I have programmatically set the bindings on both the service and the client as: NetTcpBinding aBinding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Transport); aBinding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = TcpClientCredentialType.Windows; aBinding.Security.Transport.ProtectionLevel = System.Net.Security.ProtectionLevel.EncryptAndSign; Both the service and client have endpoints configured with SPNs: EndpointAddress = new EndpointAddress(uri, EndpointIdentity.CreateSpnIdentity("Service1")); As far as I know, I have setup the bindings correctly-- and I am usually able to connect to the service just fine. I did however run into a case where on a server running Windows Server 2003 R2, x64, SP2 I get the following exception immediately when the client tries to connect: INNEREXCEPTION -- Exception Message: InvalidCredentialException: Either the target name is incorrect or the server has rejected the client credentials. Stack Trace: at System.Net.Security.NegoState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.Security.NegotiateStream.AuthenticateAsClient(NetworkCredential credential, String targetName, ProtectionLevel requiredProtectionLevel, TokenImpersonationLevel allowedImpersonationLevel) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeProvider.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeInitiator.OnInitiateUpgrade(Stream stream, SecurityMessageProperty& remoteSecurity) I get the exception when I try to connect to the service from another machine in the domain, but if I connect to the service on the same machine running the service it works fine. The hosting service itself is running as a domain user account-- but I have tried running the service as a Local System and Network Service to no avail. I have checked the Local Security Policies for the server and didn't see anything amiss (i.e. 'Access this computer from the network' includes 'Everyone'). Anyone have an idea of what could resolve this? I am wondering if I need to do something in Active Directory with respect to the service's SPN? I have read some about using setspn.exe to register or refresh SPNs, but I haven't needed to do this before. Why would this be working with other configurations but not the one above?

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  • WinForms - How do I access/call methods in UI thread from a separate thread without passing a delega

    - by Greg
    Hi, QUESTION: In .NET 3.5 WinForms apps, how do I access/call methods in UI thread from a separate thread, without passing a delegate? EXAMPLE: Say I have some code I want to run both (a) manually when the user clicks a button, and (b) periodically called by a process which is running in a separate non-mainUI thread but without passing a delegate. [Simplistically I'm thinking that the class that has this method is already been constructed, and the main UI thread has a handle to it, therefore if the process running in the separate thread could just get a handle to it from the main-UI thread it could call it. Hopefully this is not a flawed concept] BACKGROUND: I'm actually after a way to do the above for the case where my separate process thread is actually a job I schedule using quartz.net. The way the scheduler works I can't seem to actually pass in a delegate. There is a way to pass JobDetails, however it only seems to caters for things like string, int, etc. Hence what I'm after is a way to access the MainForm class for example, to call a method on it, from within the quartz.net job which runs in a separate thread. Thanks

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  • x86_64 printf segfault after brk call

    - by gmb11
    While i was trying do use brk (int 0x80 with 45 in %rax) to implement a simple memory manager program in assembly and print the blocks in order, i kept getting segfault. After a while i could only reproduce the error, but have no idea why is this happening: .section .data helloworld: .ascii "hello world" .section .text .globl _start _start: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp movq $45, %rax movq $0, %rbx #brk(0) should just return the current break of the programm int $0x80 #incq %rax #segfault #addq $1, %rax #segfault movq $0, %rax #works fine? #addq $1, %rax #segfault again? movq $helloworld, %rdi call printf movq $1, %rax #exit int $0x80 In the example here, if the commented lines are uncommented, i have a segfault, but some commands (like de movq $0, %rax) work just fine. In my other program, the first couple printf work, but the third crashes... Looking for other questions, i heard that printf sometimes allocates some memory, and that the brk shouldn't be used, because in this case it corrupts the heap or something... I'm very confused, does anyone know something about that? EDIT: I've just found out that for printf to work you need %rax=0.

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  • How do I pass a const reference in C#?

    - by Maciek
    In C++, passing const references is a common practice - for instance : #include <iostream> using namespace std; class X { public : X() {m_x = 0; } X(const int & x) {m_x = x; } X(const X & other) { *this = other; } X & operator = (const X & other) { m_x = other.m_x; return *this; } void print() { cout << m_x << endl; } private : int m_x; }; void main() { X x1(5); X x2(4); X x3(x2); x2 = x1; x1.print(); x2.print(); x3.print(); } This very simple example illustrates how it's done - pretty much. However I've noticed that in C# this doesn't seem to be the case. Do I have to pass const references in C# ? what do I need the "ref" keyword for? Please note that I know and understand what C# reference and value types are.

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  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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  • Strategies for serializing an object for auditing/logging purpose in .NET?

    - by Jiho Han
    Let's say I have an application that processes messages. Messages are just objects in this case that implements IMessage interface which is just a marker. In this app, if a message fails to process, then I want to log it, first of all for auditing and troubleshooting purposes. Secondly I might want to use it for re-processing. Ideally, I want the message to be serialized into a format that is human-readable. The first candidate is XML although there are others like JSON. If I were to serialize the messages as XML, I want to know whether the message object is XML-serializable. One way is to reflect on the type and to see if it has a parameter-less constructor and the other is to require IXmlSerializable interface. I'm not too happy with either of these approaches. There is a third option which is to try to serialize it and catch exceptions. This doesn't really help - I want to, in some way, stipulate that IMessage (or a derived type) should be xml-serializable. The reflection route has obvious disadvantages such as security, performance, etc. IXmlSerializable route locks down my messages to one format, when in the future, I might want to change the serialization format to be JSON. The other thing is even the simplest objects now must implement ReadXml and WriteXml methods. Is there a route that involves the least amount of work that lets me serialize an arbitrary object (as long as it implements the marker interface) into XML but not lock future messages into XML?

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  • Rails: constraint violation on create but not on update

    - by justinbach
    Note: This is a "railsier" (and more succinct) version of this question, which was getting a little long. I'm getting Rails behavior on a production server that I can't replicate on the development server. The codebases are identical save for credentials and caching settings, and both are powered by Oracle 10g databases with identical schema (but different data). My Rails application contains a user model, which has_one registration; registration in turn has_and_belongs_to_many company_ownerships through a registration_ownerships table. Upon registering, users fill out data pertinent to all three models, including a series of checkboxes indicating what registration_ownerships might apply to their account. On the dev server, the registration process is seamless, no matter what data is entered. On production, however, if users check off any of the company ownership fields before submitting their registration, Oracle complains about a constraint violation on the primary key of the company_ownerships table (which is a two-field key based on company_ownership_id and registration_id) and users get the standard Rails 500 error screen. In every case, I've verified that no conflicting record on these two fields exists in the production database, so I don't know why the constraint is getting violated. To further confuse things, if a user registers without listing any ownerships and later goes back and modifies their account to reflect ownership data (which is done through the same interface), the application happily complies with their request and Oracle is well-behaved (this is both on production and dev). I've spent the past couple days trying to figure out what might be causing this problem and am reaching the end of my wits. Any advice would be greatly appreciated!

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  • WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • Sqlite3 "chained" query

    - by Arrieta
    I need to create a configuration file from a data file that looks as follows: MAN1_TIME '01-JAN-2010 00:00:00.0000 UTC' MAN1_RX 123.45 MAN1_RY 123.45 MAN1_RZ 123.45 MAN1_NEXT 'MAN2' MAN2_TIME '01-MAR-2010 00:00:00.0000 UTC' MAN2_RX 123.45 [...] MAN2_NEXT 'MANX' [...] MANX_TIME [...] This file describes different "legs" of a trajectory. In this case, MAN1 is chained to MAN2, and MAN2 to MANX. In the original file, the chains are not as obvious (i.e., they are non-sequential). I've managed to read the file and store in an Sqlite3 database (I'm using the Python interface). The table is stored with three columns: Id, Par, and Val; for instance, Id='MAN1', Par='RX', and Val='123.45'. I'm interested in querying such database for obtaining the information related to 'n' legs. In English, that would be: "Select RX,RY,RZ for the next five legs starting on MAN1" So the query would go to MAN1, retrieve RX, RY, RZ, then read the parameter NEXT and go to that Id, retrieve RX, RY, RZ; read the parameter NEXT; go to that one ... like this five times. How can I pass such query with "dynamic parameters"? Thank you.

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  • Save email as draft in php

    - by Yorian
    Hello, The past few days I've been trying to find out how I can save emails as drafts using php. I've created an emailaddress that uses imap (and resides on the same server). What I would like to do is to use php to create an email and store it in the drafts folder. These emails would then be recognized by the email client (ms office outlook in this case) so they can be editted and send from the email client. I've found some interesting information about the imap functions from php, they let you send mail, but I can't really figure out how to store them in the drafts folder (to which I have write access). I can actually find and read the emails, I save as drafts in my email client, using my ftp connection. However they make use of UID and message-ID's and such which I don't understand where they come from. My questions: - how could I create email drafts - How does a new UID or message-ID get created, and how would I use them for my email-draft file? Help is much appreciated, thanks. Yorian

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  • Detecting death of spawned process using Window CRT

    - by Michael Tiller
    Executive summary: I need a way to determine whether a Windows process I've spawned via _spawnl and am communicating with using FDs from _pipe has died. Details: I'm using the low-level CRT function in Windows (_eof, _read) to communicate with a process that was spawned via a call to _spawnl (with the P_NOWAIT) flag. I'm using _pipe to create file descriptors to communicate with this spawned process and passing those descriptors (the FD #) to it on the command line. It is worth mentioning that I don't control the spawned process. It's a black box to me. It turns out that the process we are spawning occasionally crashes. I'm trying to make my code robust to this by detecting the crash. Unfortunately, I can't see a way to do this. It seems reasonable to me to expect that a call to _eof or _read on one of those descriptors would return an error status (-1) if the process had died. Unfortunately, that isn't the case. It appears that the descriptors have a life of their own independent of the spawned process. So even though the process on the other end is dead, I get no error status on the file descriptor I'm using to communicate with it. I've got the PID for the nested process (returned from the _spanwnl call) but I don't see anything I can do with that. My code works really well except for one thing. I can't detect whether the spawned process is simply busy computing me an answer or has died. If I can use the information from _pipe and _spawnl to determine if the spawned process is dead, I'll be golden. Suggestions very welcome. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: I found a fairly simple solution and added it as the selected answer.

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  • C#/Java: Proper Implementation of CompareTo when Equals tests reference identity

    - by Paul A Jungwirth
    I believe this question applies equally well to C# as to Java, because both require that {c,C}ompareTo be consistent with {e,E}quals: Suppose I want my equals() method to be the same as a reference check, i.e.: public bool equals(Object o) { return this == o; } In that case, how do I implement compareTo(Object o) (or its generic equivalent)? Part of it is easy, but I'm not sure about the other part: public int compareTo(Object o) { if (! (o instanceof MyClass)) return false; MyClass other = (MyClass)o; if (this == other) { return 0; } else { int c = foo.CompareTo(other.foo) if (c == 0) { // what here? } else { return c; } } } I can't just blindly return 1 or -1, because the solution should adhere to the normal requirements of compareTo. I can check all the instance fields, but if they are all equal, I'd still like compareTo to return a value other than 0. It should be true that a.compareTo(b) == -(b.compareTo(a)), and the ordering should stay consistent as long as the objects' state doesn't change. I don't care about ordering across invocations of the virtual machine, however. This makes me think that I could use something like memory address, if I could get at it. Then again, maybe that won't work, because the Garbage Collector could decide to move my objects around. hashCode is another idea, but I'd like something that will be always unique, not just mostly unique. Any ideas?

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  • PHP header redirection does nor reload <iframe> in IE

    - by Marco Demaio
    When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you migt have exeperienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advises about this. Thanks!

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  • ActionScript 3.0: placing code on stage/MC timelines a la AS2 instead of in classes

    - by BoltClock
    I'm aware that ActionScript 3.0 is designed from the ground up to be a largely object-oriented language and using it means less or even no timeline code in Flash documents. I'm quite experienced with OOP and am comfortable writing classes. However, since I mostly use Flash for animations, I hardly ever need to write ActionScript code other than for preloaders, subtitles, quality controls, website links and so on. In fact, I still set my Flash movies to use AS2 to this day because I'm used to gotoAndPlay()/gotoAndStop(), AS2 preloaders, subtitles, quality controls and even getURL(). Of course, I really want to move on now that practically everyone's on Flash Player 9 or 10 and now that I've dabbled with other OO languages like Java, C# and Objective-C too. I'm a complete newcomer to AS3 and am not very learned with AS2 either. Considering my current use of ActionScript, are there any cases where it's still OK to use very simple AS3 code in the timeline instead of moving code to a class, especially since moving to a class might mean unnecessarily increasing the number of LOC from 4 to 40? (Heck, is the latter case ('instead of ...') even a valid concern at all?)

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  • What's a good way of building up a String where you specific start and end locations?

    - by Michael Campbell
    (java 1.5) I have a need to build up a String, in pieces. I'm given a set of (sub)strings, each with a start and end point of where they belong in the final string. Was wondering if there were some canonical way of doing this. This isn't homework, and I can use any licensable OSS, such as jakarta commons-lang StringUtils etc. My company has a solution using a CharBuffer, and I'm content to leave it as is (and add some unit tests, of which there are none (?!)) but the code is fairly hideous and I would like something easier to read. As I said this isn't homework, and I don't need a complete solution, just some pointers to libraries or java classes that might give me some insight. The String.Format didn't seem QUITE right... I would have to honor inputs too long and too short, etc. Substrings would be overlaid in the order they appear (in case of overlap). As an example of input, I might have something like: String:start:end FO:0:3 (string shorter than field) BAR:4:5 (String larger than field) BLEH:5:9 (String overlays previous field) I'd want to end up with FO BBLEH 01234567890

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  • Writing a JMS Publisher without "public static void main"

    - by The Elite Gentleman
    Hi guys, Every example I've seen on the web, e.g. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/docview/jms_to_jms_bridge_activem.aspx, creates a publisher and subscriber with a public static void main method. I don't think that'll work for my web application. I'm learning JMS and I've setup Apache ActiveMQ to run on JBoss 5 and Tomcat 6 (with no glitches). I'm writing a messaging JMS service that needs to send email asynchronously. I've already written a JMS subscriber that receives the message (the class inherits MessageListener). My question is simple: How do I write a publisher that will so that my web applications can call it? Does it have to be published somewhere? My thought is to create a publisher with a no-attribute constructor (in there) and get the MessageQueue Factory, etc. from the JNDI pool (in the constructor). Is my idea correct? How do I subscribe my subscriber to the Queue Receiver? (So far, the subscriber has no constructor, and if I write a constructor, do I always subscribe myself to the Queue receiver?) Thanks for your help, sorry if my terminology is not up to scratch, there are too many java terminologies that I get lost sometimes (maybe a java GPS will do! :-) ) PS Is there a tutorial out there that explains how to write a "better" (better can mean anything, but in my case it's all about performance in high demand requests) JMS Publisher and Subscriber that I can run on Application Server such as JBoss or Glassfish? Don't forget that the JMS application will needs a "guarantee" uptime as many applications will use this.

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  • Need to search email body for regex using VBA

    - by user6620
    I am trying to write a script that I can run from a rule withing outlook. The goal of this script is to search the email body for a regex pattern, \d{8}-\d{3}\(E\d\) in this case. I want to take that pattern and see if a folder with the name of the match exists and if not create one. I am not super familiar with VBA as I write mostly in python. I have copied and pasted the following bit of code together but at this time I am unable to get the MsgBox to appear when I send an email with 20120812-001(E3) in the body. I have two different versions below. --version 2-- Sub Filter(Item As Outlook.MailItem) Dim Matches, Match Dim RegEx As New RegExp RegEx.IgnoreCase = True RegEx.Pattern = "\d{8}-\d{3}(E\d)" If RegEx.Test(Item.Body) Then MsgBox "Pattern Detected" End If End Sub --Version 1-- Sub ProcessMessage(myMail As Outlook.MailItem) Dim strID As String Dim objNS As Outlook.NameSpace Dim objMsg As Outlook.MailItem Dim objMatch As Match Dim RetStr As String Set objRegExp = New RegExp objRegExp.Pattern = "\d{8}-\d{3}\(E\d\)" objRegExp.IgnoreCase = True objRegExp.Global = True strID = myMail.EntryID Set objNS = Application.GetNamespace("MAPI") Set objMsg = objNS.GetItemFromID(strID) MsgBox objMsg.Body Set objMatch = objRegExp.Execute(objMsg.Body) MsgBox objMatch End Sub

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  • Workflow UI Integration - is WF a good approach?

    - by AJ
    Somewhat similar to this question, except we haven't decided that we're going with WF yet. I'm working on designing a system that requires a series of decisions and activities on a "work object," so I naturally began to consider workflow, specifically WF. What I'm wondering is if WF is a good solution for a situation like the following (oversimplified for this question) case (please forgive bad ascii art): __________________ | Gather some info | | (web page) | |__________________| | | / \ / \ / \ / \ / cond \ \ 1 / \ / \ / \ / \ / | | ______________|_______________ | | | | | ______|______ ______|________ / do some / | Get more info | / process / | (web page) | /____________/ |_______________| | | / \ / \ / \ / cond. \ \ 2 / \ / \ / \ / | | |__________________ | | | | _____|_____ _____|_____ / some / / another / / process / / process / /__________/ /__________/ The part I'm struggling with is the get more info (web page) step and what happens subsequent, which would mean a halt in the execution of the workflow runtime. I'm aware that this is possible, but I'm not sure that WF is the best approach for this type of code, as the user interaction may be required at many different points through the entire workflow, and the workflow will drive what data entry screens are needed. We are using a WinForms/ASP.NET web forms package for UI, which is homegrown and difficult to push deployments on, so something like SharePoint integration is out of the question. Our back-end is DB2, and the workflow code (whether it's in WF or otherwise) will need to interact with that as well. I guess the bottom line is, should we look into using WF for this, or would we be better served just coding it ourselves? Can WF easily integrate data entry screens to capture information that can be used further on in the workflow?

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  • Lightweight development web server with support for PHP v2

    - by David
    In line with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/171655/lightweight-web-app-server-for-php The above question has been asked numerous times and answered exactly the same in all the cases I've found using google. My question is similar to a degree but with a different desired goal: On demand development instances. I have come up with a somewhat questionable solution to host arbitrary directories in my user account for the purpose of development testing. I am not interested in custom vhosts but looking to emulate the behaviour I get when using paster or mongrel for Python & Ruby respectively. Ubuntu 9.10 TOXIC@~/ APACHE_RUN_USER=$USER APACHE_RUN_GROUP=www-data apache2 -d ~/Desktop/ -c "Listen 2990" Is there a better solution, could I do something similar with nginix or lighttpd? Note: The above won't work correctly for stock environments without a copied & altered httpd.conf. Update: The ideal goal is to mimic Paster, Webbrick, and Mongrel for rapid local development hosting. For those light weight servers, it takes less then a minute to get a working instance running ( not factoring any DB support ). Apache2 vhost is great but I've been using Apache2 for over ten years and it would be some sort of abomination hack to setup a new entry in /etc/hosts unless you have your own DNS, in which case a wildcard subdomain setup would probably work great. EXCEPT one more problem, it's pretty easy for me to know what is being hosted ( ex. by paster or mongeral ) just doing a sudo netstat -tulpn while there would be a good possibility of confusion in figure out which vhost is what.

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  • Blocking on DBCP connection pool (open and close connnection). Is database connection pooling in OpenEJB pluggable?

    - by topchef
    We use OpenEJB on Tomcat (used to run on JBoss, Weblogic, etc.). While running load tests we experience significant performance problems with handling JMS messages (queues). Problem was localized to blocking on database connection pool getting or releasing connection to the pool. Blocking prevented concurrent MDB instances (threads) from running hence performance suffered 10-fold and worse. The same code used to run on application servers (with their respective connection pool implementations) with no blocking at all. Example of thread blocked: Name: JMS Resource Adapter-worker-23 State: BLOCKED on org.apache.commons.pool.impl.GenericObjectPool@1ea6b4a owned by: JMS Resource Adapter-worker-19 Total blocked: 18,426 Total waited: 0 Stack trace: org.apache.commons.pool.impl.GenericObjectPool.returnObject(GenericObjectPool.java:916) org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolableConnection.close(PoolableConnection.java:91) - locked org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolableConnection@1bcba8 org.apache.commons.dbcp.managed.ManagedConnection.close(ManagedConnection.java:147) com.xxxxx.persistence.DbHelper.closeConnection(DbHelper.java:290) .... Couple of questions. I am almost certain that some transactional attributes and properties contribute to this blocking, but MDBs are defined as non-transactional (we use both annotations and ejb-jar.xml). Some EJBs do use container-managed transactions though (and we can observe blocking there as well). Are there any DBCP configurations that may fix blocking? Is DBCP connection pool implementation replaceable in OpenEJB? How easy (difficult) to replace it with another library? Just in case this is how we define data source in OpenEJB (openejb.xml): <Resource id="MyDataSource" type="DataSource"> JdbcDriver oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver JdbcUrl ${oracle.jdbc} UserName ${oracle.user} Password ${oracle.password} JtaManaged true InitialSize 5 MaxActive 30 ValidationQuery SELECT 1 FROM DUAL TestOnBorrow true </Resource>

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