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  • Accessing selected node of richfaces tree from Javascript

    - by kazanaki
    Hello This should be a very simple question. I have a richfaces tree that is rendered using JSF. When the user clicks on a node I want a javascript function to run. Nothing more nothing less. No redirects, no re-submit, no-rerender, no Ajax. Just plain old Javascript. I have seen the onselected attribute of the tree and it indeed fires a Javascript method. But of course I want to know which node was clicked. Here is what I have so far <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function documentClicked(nodeRef) { alert("Node is "+nodeRef); } </script> </head> <rich:tree switchType="client" value="#{ajaxDocumentTree.rootNode}" var="document" onselected="documentClicked()" > <rich:treeNode iconLeaf="../images/tree/doc.gif" icon="../images/tree/doc.gif"> <h:outputText value="#{doc.friendlyName}" /> </rich:treeNode> But this does not work because nodeRef is undefined. I expected that the first argument of the callback would be the selected node but this is not the case. So the question is this: How do I fire a Javascript function with the selected node from a richfaces tree?

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  • Duplicate Items Using Join in NHibernate Map

    - by Colin Bowern
    I am trying to retrieve the individual detail rows without having to create an object for the parent. I have a map which joins a parent table with the detail to achieve this: Table("UdfTemplate"); Id(x => x.Id, "Template_Id"); Map(x => x.FieldCode, "Field_Code"); Map(x => x.ClientId, "Client_Id"); Join("UdfFields", join => { join.KeyColumn("Template_Id"); join.Map(x => x.Name, "COLUMN_NAME"); join.Map(x => x.Label, "DISPLAY_NAME"); join.Map(x => x.IsRequired, "MANDATORY_FLAG") .CustomType<YesNoType>(); join.Map(x => x.MaxLength, "DATA_LENGTH"); join.Map(x => x.Scale, "DATA_SCALE"); join.Map(x => x.Precision, "DATA_PRECISION"); join.Map(x => x.MinValue, "MIN_VALUE"); join.Map(x => x.MaxValue, "MAX_VALUE"); }); When I run the query in NH using: Session.CreateCriteria(typeof(UserDefinedField)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("FieldCode", code)).List<UserDefinedField>(); I get back the first row three times as opposed to the three individual rows it should return. Looking at the SQL trace in NH Profiler the query appears to be correct. The problem feels like it is in the mapping but I am unsure how to troubleshoot that process. I am about to turn on logging to see what I can find but I thought I would post here in case someone with experience mapping joins knows where I am going wrong.

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  • Why isn't UIScrollView always calling viewDidLoad on subviews?

    - by Rob S.
    I'm a bit confused on the behaviour of UIScrollView as it pertains to subview loading. In my app, I lazily load subviews into my scroller. Most of the time, -viewDidLoad is called on the subview immediately after adding it the UIScrollView. There is one scenario where it isn't being called. At the 'end' of my scroll view I have a "please wait" view. When it is fully scrolled on to the page, it fades out, I add the subview and -viewDidLoad is not called. In this case, when I remove the last subview and add another subview, I get nothing. I've tried [scrollView setNeedsDisplay] and [scrollView setNeedsLayout] to no avail. I've also sent the same messages to the view I just added - no dice. Does anyone have any insight here? Many people have many questions about -viewDidLoad and I haven't been able to find one related to direct subviews inside of a scrollview. Or I have and I haven't realized it :) Thanks in advance! Rob

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  • GetEffectiveRightsFromAcl throws invalid acl error

    - by apoorv020
    I am trying to get the effective rights a user has on a file using interop in C#. Following is the code I am using : public static FileSystemRights GetFileEffectiveRights(string FileName, string UserName) { IntPtr pDacl, pZero = IntPtr.Zero; int Mask = 0; uint errorReturn = GetNamedSecurityInfo(FileName, SE_OBJECT_TYPE.SE_FILE_OBJECT, SECURITY_INFORMATION.Dacl , out pZero, out pZero, out pDacl, out pZero, out pZero); if (errorReturn != 0) { throw new Exception("Win error : " + errorReturn); } Program.TRUSTEE pTrustee = new TRUSTEE(); pTrustee.pMultipleTrustee = IntPtr.Zero; pTrustee.MultipleTrusteeOperation = (int)Program.MULTIPLE_TRUSTEE_OPERATION.NO_MULTIPLE_TRUSTEE; pTrustee.ptstrName = UserName; pTrustee.TrusteeForm = (int)Program.TRUSTEE_FORM.TRUSTEE_IS_NAME; pTrustee.TrusteeType = (int)Program.TRUSTEE_TYPE.TRUSTEE_IS_USER; errorReturn = GetEffectiveRightsFromAcl(pDacl, ref pTrustee, ref Mask); if (errorReturn != 0) { throw new Exception("Win error : " + errorReturn); } return (FileSystemRights)Mask; } This code works fine until I start modifying the ACL structure using the classes FileAccessRule and FileInfo, and then I start getting Windows Error 1336 : ERROR_INVALID_ACL. Same is the case if I debug the process call GetFileEffectiveRights once, pause the process,change the ACL through windows API, and resume and call GetFileEffectiveRights again(the 1st call succeeds but the second gives 1336.) What is going wrong?

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  • Extending EF4 SQL Generation

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We're using EF4 in a fairly large system and occasionally run into problems due to EF4 being unable to convert certain expressions into SQL. At present, we either need to do some fancy footwork (DB/Code) or just accept the performance hit and allow the query to be executed in-memory. Needless to say neither of these is ideal and the hacks we've sometimes had to use reduce readability / maintainability. What we would ideally like is a way to extend the SQL generation capabilities of the EF4 SQL provider. Obviously there are some things like .Net method calls which will always have to be client-side but some functionality like date comparisons (eg Group by weeks in Linq to Entities ) should be do-able. I've Googled but perhaps I'm using the wrong terminology as all I get is information about the new features of EF4 SQL Generation. For such a flexible and extensible framework, I'd be surprised if this isn't possible. In my head, I'm imagining inheriting from the [SQL 2008] provider and extending it to handle additional expressions / similar in the expression tree it's given to convert to SQL. Any help/pointers appreciated. We're using VS2010 Ultimate, .Net 4 (non-client profile) and EF4. The app is in ASP.Net and is running in a 64-Bit environment in case it makes a difference.

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  • ObjectContext disposed puzzle

    - by jaklucky
    Hi, I have the follwing method. public List<MyEntity> GetMyEntities(MyObjectContext objCtx) { using(MyObjectContext ctx = objCtx ?? new MyObjectContext()) { retun ctx.MyEntities.ToList(); } } The idea is, user of this method can pass in the objectcontext if they have. If not then a new objectcontext will be created. If I am passing an object context to it, then it is getting disposed after the method is done. I was expecting only "ctx" variable gets disposed. If I write a small app, to know the using and dispose mechanism. It is acting differently. class TestClass : IDisposable { public int Number { get; set; } public string Str { get; set; } public ChildClass Child { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class ChildClass : IDisposable { public string StrChild { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Child Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TestClass test = null; test = new TestClass(); test.Child = new ChildClass(); using (TestClass test1 = test ?? new TestClass()) { test1.Number = 1; test1.Str = "hi"; test1.Child.StrChild = "Child one"; test1.Child.Dispose(); } test.Str = "hi"; test.Child.StrChild = "hi child"; Console.ReadLine(); } } In this example, "test1"gets disposed but not "test". Where as in the first case both ctx and objCtx get disposed. Any ideas what is happening here with objectContext? Thank you, Suresh

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  • verilog / systemverilog -- What is the behavior of blocking statements across two always blocks?

    - by miles.sherman
    I am wondering about the behavior of the below code. There are two always blocks, one is combinational to calculate the next_state signal, the other is sequential which will perform some logic and determine whether or not to shutdown the system. It does this by setting the shutdown_now signal high and then calling state <= next_state. My question is if the conditions become true that the shutdown_now signal is set (during clock cycle n) in a blocking manner before the state <= next_state line, will the state during clock cycle n+1 be SHUTDOWN or RUNNING? In other words, does the shutdown_now = 1'b1 line block across both state machines since the state signal is dependent on it through the next_state determination? enum {IDLE, RUNNING, SHUTDOWN} state, next_state; logic shutdown_now; // State machine (combinational) always_comb begin case (state) IDLE: next_state <= RUNNING; RUNNING: next_state <= shutdown ? SHUTDOWN : RUNNING; SHUTDOWN: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; default: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; endcase end // Sequential Behavior always_ff @ (posedge clk) begin // Some code here if (/*some condition) begin shutdown_now = 1'b0; end else begin shutdown_now = 1'b1; end state <= next_state; end

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  • Why does the page posts take so long?

    - by Olle
    Hi! I am having some problems with some page post backs that take a loooong time to execute. If I do a "appcmd list requests" I can get something like this: REQUEST "79000001800004e3" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:87219 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:ExecuteRequestHandler, module:ManagedPipelineHandler) REQUEST "8600000080002f82" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:61391 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) REQUEST "5e00010280000420" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:21047 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) It's one particular file that causes the problem (dir/file.aspx in this case). It comes from the same IP-adress. And the first on is from ManagedPipelineHandler module and the two after that from Session module. I do not have any details about the web browser, or anything more about the client for that matter. I have looked for sql dead locks and did not find any. There are no long running sql queries at all. Do you have any idea of what can be the problem? Regards.

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  • .NET 4: Process.Start using credentials returns empty output

    - by alexey
    I run an external program from ASP.NET: var process = new Process(); var startInfo = process.StartInfo; startInfo.FileName = filePath; startInfo.Arguments = arguments; startInfo.UseShellExecute = false; startInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; startInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; process.Start(); process.WaitForExit(); Console.Write("Output: {0}", process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd()); Console.Write("Error Output: {0}", process.StandardError.ReadToEnd()); Everything works fine with this code: the external program is executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns the correct output. But after I add these two lines before process.Start() (to run the program in the context of another user account): startInfo.UserName = userName; startInfo.Password = securePassword; The program is not executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns an empty string. No exceptions are thrown. userName and securePassword are correct (in case of incorrect credentials an exception is thrown). How to run the program in the context of another user account?

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  • My Website was hacked using Statcounter! Does Statcounter keep a record of cookies?

    - by Cyril Gupta
    I had a rather interesting case of hacking on my ASP.Net MVC website. For this website I had implemented a rather uncomplicated authentication system for my admin area -- an encrypted cookie which had an identifying signature for the member. Whenever the admin visits the website the cookie would be decrypted and signature verified. If matching he wouldn't have to sign in. Couple of days ago a visitor on my site told me that he was able to sign into my website simply by clicking no a referral link on his Statcounter console which pointed to my admin area (I had visited his site from a link inside my admin view). He just clicked on a link in statcounter and he was signed in as the admin! The only way this could have happened was if statcounter somehow recorded my cookies and used those when he clicked on the link pointing to my admin! Is that logical or fathomable? I don't understand what's going on. Do you have any suggestions as to how I can protect my website against things like this?

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • Efficient data importing?

    - by Kevin
    We work with a lot of real estate, and while rearchitecting how the data is imported, I came across an interesting issue. Firstly, the way our system works (loosely speaking) is we run a Coldfusion process once a day that retrieves data provided from an IDX vendor via FTP. They push the data to us. Whatever they send us is what we get. Over the years, this has proven to be rather unstable. I am rearchitecting it with PHP on the RETS standard, which uses SOAP methods of retrieving data, which is already proven to be much better than what we had. When it comes to 'updating' existing data, my initial thought was to query only for data that was updated. There is a field for 'Modified' that tells you when a listing was last updated, and the code I have will grab any listing updated within the last 6 hours (give myself a window in case something goes wrong). However, I see a lot of real estate developers suggest creating 'batch' processes that run through all listings regardless of updated status that is constantly running. Is this the better way to do it? Or am I fine with just grabbing the data I know I need? It doesn't make a lot of sense to me to do more processing than necessary. Thoughts?

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  • Managing resource closure in a servlet container

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm using Tomcat as a servlet container, and have many WARs deployed. Many of the WARs share common base classes, which are replicated in each context due to the different classloaders, etc. How can I ensure resource cleanup on context destruction, without hooking each and every web.xml file to add context listeners? Ideally, I'd like something along the lines of class MyResourceHolder implements SomeListenerInterface { private SomeResource resource; { SomeContextThingie.registerDestructionListener(this); } public void onDestroy() { resource.close(); } } I could put something in each web.xml, but since there are potentially many WARs and only ones that actually initialize the resource need to clean it up, it seems more natural to register for cleanup when the resource is initialized rather than duplicating a lot of XML configuration and then maybe cleaning up. (In this particular case, I'm initiating an orderly shutdown of a SQL connection pool. But I see this being useful in many other situations as well...) I'm sure there's some blisteringly obvious solution out there, but my Google-fu is failing me right now. Thanks!

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  • CLLocationDistance NaN

    - by Kaspa
    Hi, I'm trying to calculate a distance between two sets of coordinate points in an iPhone application on the fly using - (CLLocationDistance)getDistanceFrom:(const CLLocation *)location I saw that I started getting NaN's in strange places, thus investigated the matter up close, with the following hardcoded values. CLLocationDistance testDistance; placeLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; userLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; testDistance = [userLocation getDistanceFrom:placeLocation]; if(isnan(testDistance)) NSLog(@"ISNaN!"); [placeLocation release]; [userLocation release]; The above gets called multiple times, and in some situations the testDistance is NaN. I fear I'm missing something very simple here. Anyone have any idea? UPDATE 1: Ok, so I've moved the above code into a new project (put everything in the app delegate), looped it for 100 times and all is fine. This thus suggests that the problem is project related, but this helps very little... since all the variables are in the scope of 1 function. THE SOLUTION: OK, this seems to be a simulator bug. The same code build runs perfectly fine on the device. Case solved.

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  • Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

    - by Andrey
    Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

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  • MyMessage<T> throws an exception when calling XmlSerializer

    - by Arthis
    I am very new to nservicebus. I am using version 3.0.1, the last one up to date. And I wonder if my case is a normal limitation of NSB, I am not aware of. I have an asp.net MVC application, I am trying to setup and in my global.asax, I have the following : var configure = Configure.WithWeb() .DefaultBuilder() .ForMvc() .XmlSerializer(); But I have an error with the XmlSerializer when dealing with one of my object: [Serializable] public class MyMessage<T> : IMessage { public T myobject { get; set; } } I pass trough : XmlSerializer() instance.Initialize(types); this.InitType(type, moduleBuilder); this.InitType(info2.PropertyType, moduleBuilder); and then when dealing With T, string typeName = GetTypeName(t); typename is null and the following instruction : if (!nameToType.ContainsKey(typeName)) ends in error. null value not allowed. Is this some limitations to Nservicebus, or am I messing something up?

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  • How do php apps identify a user after the session has timed out?

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    I am trying to understand how PHP apps check to see if a user is logged in. I am specifically looking at mediawiki's code to try to help me understand, but these cases should be fairly common in all php apps. From what I gather, the main cases are: A user just logged in or was created, every time they visit the page PHP knows its them by checking data common to the $_SESSION variable and the cookie. A user had the 'remember me' option checked on the login page a long time ago. They have a cookie on there computer with a tokenID, which is checked with a token on the server to authenticate them. In this case, there is no session variable, because the time between accesses could be weeks. My question is, what happens when a user is logged in, but the PHP session times out and he wants to access a page? I would have assumed that there is no easy way for the server to know who the person is - and that they would have to be redirected to the login page. However, mediawiki does just that. I've verified that the session files are deleted after X minutes, but when I hit refresh in mediawiki, it knows which user I am, and the 'token' variable is not included in the cookie.

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  • How does browser know when to prompt user to save password?

    - by Eric
    This is related to the question I asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2382329/how-can-i-get-browser-to-prompt-to-save-password This is the problem: I CAN'T get my browser to prompt me to save the password for the site I'm developing. (I'm talking about the bar that appears sometimes when you submit a form on Firefox, that says "Remember the password for yoursite.com? Yes / Not now / Never") This is super frustrating because this feature of Firefox (and most other modern browsers, which I hope work in a similar fashion) seems to be a mystery. It's like a magic trick the browser does, where it looks at your code, or what you submit, or something, and if it "looks" like a login form with a username (or email address) field and a password field, it offers to save. Except in this case, where it's not offering my users that option after they use my login form, and it's making me nuts. :-) (I checked my Firefox settings-- I have NOT told the browser "never" for this site. It should be prompting.) My question: exactly what the heuristics are that Firefox (or any other modern browser) uses to know when it should prompt the user to save? This shouldn't be too difficult to answer, since it's right there in the Mozilla source (I don't know where to look or else I'd try to dig it out myself). You'd think there would be a blog post or some other similar developer note from the Mozilla developers about this but I can't find that either. (* Note that if your answer to me has anything to do with cookies, encryption or anything else that is about how I'm storing the user's passwords in the database, you've probably misread my question. :-)

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  • How to draw multiple rectangles using c#

    - by Nivas
    I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect[count] = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect[count] = new Rectangle(rect[count].Left, rect[count].Top, e.X - rect[count].Left, e.Y - rect[count].Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); count++: break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect[count].Top; label1[count].Left = rect[count].Left; label1.Width = rect[count].Width; label1.Height = rect[count].Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect[count]); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • find(:all) and then add data from another table to the object

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have two tables: create_table "friendships", :force => true do |t| t.integer "user1_id" t.integer "user2_id" t.boolean "hasaccepted" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end and create_table "users", :force => true do |t| t.string "email" t.string "password" t.string "phone" t.boolean "gender" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.string "firstname" t.string "lastname" t.date "birthday" end I need to show the user a list of Friendrequests, so I use this method in my controller: def getfriendrequests respond_to do |format| case params[:id] when "to_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user2_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) when "from_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user1_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) end format.xml { render :xml => @friendrequests } format.json { render :json => @friendrequests } end end I do nearly everything using AJAX, so to fetch the First and Last name of the user with UID user2_id (the to_me param comes later, don't worry right now), I need a for loop which make multiple AJAX calls. This sucks and costs much bandwidth. So I'd rather like that getfriendrequests also returns the First and Last name of the corresponding users, so, e.g. the JSON response would not be: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3 } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4 } } ] but rather: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3, "firstname": "Jon", "lastname": "Skeet" } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4, "firstname": "Mark", "lastname": "Gravell" } } ] I thought of a for loop in the getfriendrequests method, but I don't know how to implement this, and maybe there is an easier way. It must also work for XML. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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  • radgrid insert using radwinow

    - by Hamza
    Hello Everybody, The company details page in my system has a user control to show the founders of the company, that user control represents the founders by using a Rad Grid and three buttons for insert/edit/delete founders, the founders grid is being bind by using a WCF service. the insert button calls a javascript method that opens a Rad Window in which the user can insert the data for a new founder my problem is: in the Add Founder Rad Window I shouldn't save the new founder in the database, when I press Add the Rad Grid should be closed and the new founder should be added to the founders Grid's datasource, and then the grid should be bind again the questions is: what is the best way to do that, I don't want to use sessions nor json, I tried to use another wcf service which takes two parameters: reference to the grid and the new founder, and in this wcf service I get the old datasource then add the new founder to it and finally rebind the grid again, but I have faced some problems like how can I send the reference to the grid from javascript method to a WCF service, also if I add more than one founder how can keep track of the new founders and the original datasource if any of you can lead me to an example similar to my case this would be very much appreciated, also any comments and feedback are most welcomed

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  • Why does std::cout convert volatile pointers to bool?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    If you try to cout a volatile pointer, even a volatile char pointer where you would normally expect cout to print the string, you will instead simply get '1' (assuming the pointer is not null I think). I assume output stream operator<< is template specialized for volatile pointers, but my question is, why? What use case motivates this behavior? Example code: #include <iostream> #include <cstring> int main() { char x[500]; std::strcpy(x, "Hello world"); int y; int *z = &y; std::cout << x << std::endl; std::cout << (char volatile*)x << std::endl; std::cout << z << std::endl; std::cout << (int volatile*)z << std::endl; return 0; } Output: Hello world 1 0x8046b6c 1

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  • Splitting MS Access Database - Front End Part Location

    - by kristof
    One of the best practices as specified by Microsoft for Access Development is splitting Access application into 2 parts; Front End that hold all the object except tables and the Back End that holds the tables. The msdn page links there to the article Splitting Microsoft Access Databases to Improve Performance and Simplify Maintainability that describes the process in details. It is recommended that in multi user environment the Back End is stored on the server/shared folder while the Front End is distributed to each user. That implies that each time there are any changes made to the front end they need to be deployed to every user machine. My question is: Assuming that the users themselves do not have rights to modify the Front End part of the application what would be the drawbacks/dangers of leaving this on the server as well next to the Back End copy? I can see the performance issues here, but are there any dangers here like possible corruptions etc? Thank you EDIT Just to clarify, the scenario specified in question assumes one Front End stored on the server and shared by users. I understand that the recommendation is to have FE deployed to each user machine, but my question is more about what are the dangers if that is not done. E.g. when you are given an existing solution that uses the approach of both FE and BE on the server. Assuming the the performance is acceptable and the customer is reluctant to change the approach would you still push the change? And why exactly? For example the danger of possible data corruption would definitely be the strong enough argument, but is that the case? It is a part of follow up of my previous question From SQL Server to MS Access 2007

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  • Ibator didn't generate Oracle varchar2 field

    - by bugbug
    I have table APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE with following fields: "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "TRACK_NO" VARCHAR2(20 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "REQ_DATE" DATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "OFFCODE" CHAR(6 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "COMPARE_CASE_ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "VEHICLE_NAME" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "ENGINE_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "BODY_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "HOLD_SHIP" NUMBER, "OWNERSHIP" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "RENT_NAME" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "CONTRACT" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_DATE" DATE, "ISLAWBREAKERRENT" CHAR(1 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "MISTAKE_DETAIL" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "COMPARE_REASON" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "CREATE_BY" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "CREATE_ON" DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "UPDATE_BY" NUMBER, "UPDATE_ON" DATE, When I generate a java bean using Ibator , I didn't find trackNo, VehicalName, ... (all fields defined as varchar2). What is the problem in my case? Here is my Ibator configuration file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE ibatorConfiguration PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Apache iBATIS Ibator Configuration 1.0//EN" "http://ibatis.apache.org/dtd/ibator-config_1_0.dtd"> <ibatorConfiguration> <classPathEntry location="/dos/connector/oracle_jdbc.jar"/> <ibatorContext id="autoPerson" defaultModelType="flat" targetRuntime="Ibatis2Java2"> <jdbcConnection connectionURL="jdbc:oracle:thin:@192.168.42.144:1521:orcl" driverClass="oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver" userId="user" password="password"/> <javaModelGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> <property name="trimStrings" value="true"/> </javaModelGenerator> <sqlMapGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.map" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> </sqlMapGenerator> <daoGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model.dao" type="SPRING" targetProject="FormConfig" implementationPackage="com.ko.model.dao.impl" > <property name="enableSubPackges" value="true"/> <property name="methodNameCalculator" value="extended"/> </daoGenerator> <table tableName="APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE" domainObjectName="AppReqApproveCompare"/> <ibatorConfiguration>

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