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  • Trouble with Unions in C program.

    - by Jordan S
    I am working on a C program that uses a Union. The union definition is in FILE_A header file and looks like this... // FILE_A.h**************************************************** xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; If I set the value of CurrentPosition.position in FILE_A.c and then call a function in FILE_B.c that uses the union, the data in the union is back to Zero. This is demonstrated below. // FILE_A.c**************************************************** int main.c(void) { CurrentPosition.position = 12345; SomeFunctionInFileB(); } // FILE_B.c**************************************************** void SomeFunctionInFileB(void) { // After the following lines execute I see all zeros in the flash memory. WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[0]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[1]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[2]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[3]; } Now, If I pass a long to SomeFunctionInFileB(long temp) and then store it into CurrentPosition.bytes within that function, and finally call WriteBytesToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[n]... it works just fine. It appears as though the CurrentPosition Union is not global. So I tried changing the union definition in the header file to include the extern keyword like this... extern xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; and then putting this in the source (.c) file... xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; but this causes a compile error that says: C:\SiLabs\Optec Programs\AgosRot\MotionControl.c:76: error 91: extern definition for 'CurrentPosition' mismatches with declaration. C:\SiLabs\Optec Programs\AgosRot\/MotionControl.h:48: error 177: previously defined here So what am I doing wrong? How do I make the union global?

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  • I can not use Session In Page_Load and I got error bellow

    - by LostLord
    hi my dear friends .... why i got this error : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. when i put this code in my page_load.: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { BackEndUtils.OverallLoader(); string Teststr = Session["Co_ID"].ToString(); } ========================================================================== this session is made when user logins to my web site and this session works in other areas... thanks for your attention ========================================================================== thanks for your answers i removed BackEndUtils.OverallLoader(); but error still exists i tried Teststr = Convert.ToString(Session["Co_ID"]); and error disappeared - but i don't know why that session is null in other areas that session works perfectly = such as a button in that form what is the matter? my web page markup is like this : <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Admin/AdminBackend.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Personel.aspx.cs" Inherits="Darman.Admin.Personel" Theme="DefaultTheme" %> ================================================================================= i put this code in a button like this : string Teststr = Convert.ToString(Session["Co_ID"]); when i press that button THIS code in page Load(POSTBACK) + IN Button_Click works perfectly and shows me 23 (my Co_ID) But when i run my page in browser (first time) this code in page load shows me null. why? thanks a lot

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  • NHibernate complex order query

    - by manu08
    Here's my simplified domain public class Notification { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Location> Locations { get; set; } } public class Location { public Guid Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Longitude { get; set; } public decimal Latitude { get; set; } } Notifications and Locations have a many-to-many relationship (defined in table LocationsOnNotification). What I'd like to do is query for the nearest 10 Notifications from a given longitude and latitude. I've been trying to use ICriteria, but I'm not sure how to specify the ordering correctly: return Session.CreateCriteria<Notification>() .SetFirstResult(firstIndex) .SetMaxResults(maxResults) .AddOrder(Order.Asc( WHAT GOES HERE! )) .List<Notification>(); What I've been thinking of so far is adding a formula property to the Location mapping; something like this: <property name='Distance' formula='lots of geometry'/> But I'm not sure if that can take in parameters (since I'd need to pass in the user's location to calculate the distance), plus I'm not sure how to specify it in the Order.Asc clause given that it's a property on a many-to-many association class. Any ideas? Or perhaps I should take a different approach altogether. Thanks in advance!

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  • Java SWT: wrapping syncExec and asyncExec to clean up code

    - by jonescb
    I have a Java Application using SWT as the toolkit, and I'm getting tired of all the ugly boiler plate code it takes to update a GUI element. Just to set a disabled button to be enabled I have to go through something like this: shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { buttonOk.setEnabled(true); } }); I prefer keeping my source code as flat as I possibly can, but I need a whopping 3 indentation levels just to do something simple. Is there some way I can wrap it? I would like a class like: public class UIUpdater { public static void updateUI(Shell shell, *function_ptr*) { shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { //Execute function_ptr } }); } } And can be used like so: UIUpdater.updateUI(shell, buttonOk.setEnabled(true)); Something like this would be great for hiding that horrible mess SWT seems to think is necessary to do anything. As I understand it, Java cannot do functions pointers. But Java 7 will have something called Closures which should be what I want. But in the meantime is there anything at all I can do to pass a function pointer or callback to another function to be executed? As an aside, I'm starting to think it'd be worth the effort to redo this application in Swing, and I don't have to put up with this ugly crap and non-cross-platformyness of SWT.

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  • How to retrieve the Description property from SettingsProperty?

    - by BadNinja
    For each item in my application's settings, I've added text to its Description Property which I want to retrieve at runtime. I'm sure I'm missing some basic logical nuance here, but everything I've tried has failed. Clearly, my understanding of what value needs to be passed to the Attributes property of the SettingsProperty class is wrong. I'm further confused by the fact that when I iterate through all they keys returned by SettingsProperty.Attributes.Keys, I can see "System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute", but when I pass that string in as the key to the Attributes property, null is returned. Any insight into how to properly retrieve the value Description Property would be very much appreciated. Thanks. :) public void MyMethod() { SettingsPropertyCollection MyAppProperties = Properties.Settings.Default.Properties; IEnumerator enumerator = MyAppProperties.GetEnumerator(); // Iterate through all the keys to see what we have.... while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; ICollection myKeys = property.Attributes.Keys; foreach (object theKey in myKeys) System.Diagnostics.Debug.Print(theKey.ToString()); // One of the keys returned is: System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute } enumerator.Reset(); while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; string propertyValue = property.DefaultValue.ToString(); // This fails: Null Reference string propertyDescription = property.Attributes["System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute"].ToString(); // Do stuff with strings... } }

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  • rails named_scope issue with eager loading

    - by Craig
    Two models (Rails 2.3.8): User; username & disabled properties; User has_one :profile Profile; full_name & hidden properties I am trying to create a named_scope that eliminate the disabled=1 and hidden=1 User-Profiles. Moreover, while the User model is usually used in conjunction with the Profile model, I would like the flexibility to be able specify this using the :include = :profile syntax. I have the following User named_scope: named_scope :visible, { :joins => "INNER JOIN profiles ON users.id=profiles.user_id", :conditions => ["users.disabled = ? AND profiles.hidden = ?", false, false] } This works as expected when just reference the User model: >> User.visible.map(&:username).flatten => ["user a", "user b", "user c", "user d"] However, when I attempt to include the Profile model: User.visible(:include=> :profiles).profile.map(&:full_name).flatten I get an error that reads: NoMethodError: undefined method `profile' for #<User:0x1030bc828> Am I able to cross model-collection boundaries in this manner?

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  • c# delegate and abstract class

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

    - by Rob Flaherty
    I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

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  • Problem in printing array of char pointer passing from Python

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    My following C code works quite well, till my Python code trying to pass an array of char pointer to it. The output I obtain is The file_name is python-file Another 3 string is not being printed out. Anything I had missed out? C Code #include <iostream> #include "c_interface.h" int foo(const char* file_name, const char** names) { std::cout << "The file_name is " << file_name << std::endl; while (*names) { std::cout << "The name is " << *names << std::endl; names++; } return 0; } /* int main() { const char *c[] = {"123gh", "456443432", "789", 0}; foo("hello", c); getchar(); } */ Python Code #!c:/Python27/python.exe -u from ctypes import * name0 = "NAME0" name1 = "NAME1" name2 = "NAME2" names = ((c_char_p * 1024) * 4)() names[0].value = name0 names[1].value = name1 names[2].value = name2 names[3].value = 0 libc = CDLL("foo.dll") libc.foo("python-file", names)

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  • How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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  • KODO: how set up fetch plan for bidirectional relationships?

    - by BestPractices
    Running KODO 4.2 and having an issue inefficient queries being generated by KODO. This happens when fetching an object that contains a collection where that collection has a bidrectional relationship back to the first object. Class Classroom { List<Student> _students; } Class Student { Classroom _classroom; } If we create a fetch plan to get a list of Classrooms and their corresponding Students by setting up the following fetch plan: fetchPlan.addField(Classroom.class,”_students”); This will result in two queries (get the classrooms and then get all students that are in those classrooms), which is what we would expect. However, if we include the reference back to the classroom in our fetch plan in order for the _classroom field to get populated by doing fetchPlan.addField(Student.class, “_classroom”), this will result in X number of additional queries where X is the number of students in each classroom. Can anyone explain how to fix this? KODO already has the original Classroom objects at the point that it's executing the queries to retrieve the Classroom objects and set them in each Student object's _classroom field. So I would expect KODO to simply set those objects in the _classroom field on each Student object accordingly and not go back to the database. Once again, the documentation is sorely lacking with Kodo/JDO/OpenJPA but from what I've read it should be able to do this more efficiently. Note-- EAGER_FETCH.PARALLEL is turned on and I have tried this with caching (query and data caches) turned on and off and there is no difference in the resultant queries.

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  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Chrome extension custom cursor

    - by the_nakos
    Hi, I building an Google Chrome extension that place some IMG tag in sites. This img tag on :hover must show a custom cursor. The extension uses jQuery as its injected core script. I tried the following methods: 1. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('#myImgId').css({ 'position': 'absolute', 'top':'5px', 'left':'5px', 'cursor':cursor }); This is the best working. On smaller sites its shows the cursor. On slower loading sites it does not. But on little sites it fails sometimes. 2. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('<style>#myImgId{cursor:'+cursor+'}</style>').appendTo('head'); This did nothing at all. 3. In manifest.json I injected the css. "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*/*"], "css": ["css/style.css"], "js": ["j/c.js", "j/s.js"] } The css file just had the cursor:url(icons/cursor.cur) as I don't have idea, how to get real url in a css file. This isn't working at all. I think it must work like this, I didn't find reference for this on code.google though.

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  • How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

    - by 4eburek
    From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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  • Copy and paste between sheets in a workbook with VBA code

    - by Hannah
    Trying to write a macro in VBA for Excel to look at the value in a certain column from each row of data in a list and if that value is "yes" then it copies and pastes the entire row onto a different sheet in the same workbook. Let's name the two sheets "Data" and "Final". I want to have the sheets referenced so it does not matter which sheet I have open when it runs the code. I was going to use a Do loop to cycle through the rows on the one data sheet until it finds there are no more entries, and if statements to check the values. I am confused about how to switch from one sheet to the next. How do I specifically reference cells in different sheets? Here is the pseudocode I had in mind: Do while DataCells(x,1).Value <> " " for each DataCells(x,1).Value="NO" if DataCells(x,2).Value > DataCells(x,3).Value or _ DataCells(x,4).Value < DataCells(x,5).Value 'Copy and paste/insert row x from Data to Final sheet adding a new 'row for each qualifying row else x=x+1 end else if DataCells(x,1).Value="YES" Loop 'copy and paste entire row to a third sheet 'continue this cycle until all rows in the data sheet are examined

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  • iphone: cross platform references and referencing external framework resources

    - by dan
    hi there working on an iphone app and separate framework. the separate framework is for an API that i'm building for use in multiple future apps. this api now needs to reference resources (images). what i would like to do is keep the resources WITH the API framework as local set of resources. i followed the instructions from http://www.clintharris.net/2009/iphone-app-shared-libraries/ to setup my app's project to use the headers from the separate API framework. what i can't seem to figure out is how to automatically load the framework's resources into the app's xcode environment so they can be linked in at app compile time. sure, i can drag the resources across from the framework into the main app's set of resources. but that seems kinda ugly and another step that possibly can be automated (??) anyone know of a better way? it would be great if any changes from the framework would be automatically available in the main app (due to the project 'link-age'). thanks for any help/tips/suggestions...

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  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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  • TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

    - by larryq
    (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

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  • C: Proper syntax for allocating memory using pointers to pointers.

    - by ~kero-05h
    This is my first time posting here, hopefully I will not make a fool of myself. I am trying to use a function to allocate memory to a pointer, copy text to the buffer, and then change a character. I keep getting a segfault and have tried looking up the answer, my syntax is probably wrong, I could use some enlightenment. /* My objective is to pass a buffer to my Copy function, allocate room, and copy text to it. Then I want to modify the text and print it.*/ #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text); int main() { char *Text = malloc(sizeof(char) * 100); char *Buffer; strncpy(Text, "1234567890\n", 100); Copy(&Buffer, Text); } int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text) { int count; count = strlen(Text)+1; *Buffer = malloc(sizeof(char) * count); strncpy(*Buffer, Text, 5); *Buffer[2] = 'A'; /* This results in a segfault. "*Buffer[1] = 'A';" results in no differece in the output. */ printf("%s\n", *Buffer); }

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  • Applications result affected by another running application.

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

    - by marcusstarnes
    I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Fix hard-coded display setting without source (24-bit, need 32-bit)

    - by FerretallicA
    I wrote a program about 10 years ago in Visual Basic 6 which was basically a full-screen game similar to Breakout / Arkanoid but had 'demoscene'-style backgrounds. I found the program, but not the source code. Back then I hard-coded the display mode to 800x600x24, and the program crashes whenever I try to run it as a result. No virtual machine seems to support 24-bit display when the host display mode is 16/32-bit. It uses DirectX 7 so DOSBox is no use. I've tried all sorts of decompiler and at best they give me the form names and a bunch of assembly calls which mean nothing to me. The display mode setting was a DirectX 7 call but there's no clear reference to it in the decompilation. In this situation, is there any pointers on how I can: pin-point the function call in the program which is setting the display mode to 800x600x24 (ResHacker maybe?) and change the value being passed to it so it sets 800x600x32 view/intercept DirectX calls being made while it's running or if that's not possible, at least run the program in an environment that emulates a 24-bit display I don't need to recover the source code (as nice as it would be) so much as just want to get it running.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

    - by buggy1985
    Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

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  • NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

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