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  • Ordering by formula fields in NHibernate

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Suppose that I have the following mapping with a formula property: <class name="Planet" table="planets"> <id name="Id" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- somefunc() is a native SQL function --> <property name="Distance" formula="somefunc()" /> </class> I would like to get all planets and order them by the Distance calculated property: var planets = session .CreateCriteria<Planet>() .AddOrder(Order.Asc("Distance")) .List<Planet>(); This is translated to the following query: SELECT Id as id0, somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY somefunc() Desired query: SELECT Id as id0, somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY formula0 If I set a projection with an alias it works fine: var planets = session .CreateCriteria<Planet>() .SetProjection(Projections.Alias(Projections.Property("Distance"), "dist")) .AddOrder(Order.Asc("dist")) .List<Planet>(); SQL: SELECT somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY formula0 but it populates only the Distance property in the result and I really like to avoid projecting manually over all the other properties of my object (there could be many other properties). Is this achievable with NHibernate? As a bonus I would like to pass parameters to the native somefunc() SQL function. Anything producing the desired SQL is acceptable (replacing the formula field with subselects, etc...), the important thing is to have the calculated Distance property in the resulting object and order by this distance inside SQL.

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  • KODO: how set up fetch plan for bidirectional relationships?

    - by BestPractices
    Running KODO 4.2 and having an issue inefficient queries being generated by KODO. This happens when fetching an object that contains a collection where that collection has a bidrectional relationship back to the first object. Class Classroom { List<Student> _students; } Class Student { Classroom _classroom; } If we create a fetch plan to get a list of Classrooms and their corresponding Students by setting up the following fetch plan: fetchPlan.addField(Classroom.class,”_students”); This will result in two queries (get the classrooms and then get all students that are in those classrooms), which is what we would expect. However, if we include the reference back to the classroom in our fetch plan in order for the _classroom field to get populated by doing fetchPlan.addField(Student.class, “_classroom”), this will result in X number of additional queries where X is the number of students in each classroom. Can anyone explain how to fix this? KODO already has the original Classroom objects at the point that it's executing the queries to retrieve the Classroom objects and set them in each Student object's _classroom field. So I would expect KODO to simply set those objects in the _classroom field on each Student object accordingly and not go back to the database. Once again, the documentation is sorely lacking with Kodo/JDO/OpenJPA but from what I've read it should be able to do this more efficiently. Note-- EAGER_FETCH.PARALLEL is turned on and I have tried this with caching (query and data caches) turned on and off and there is no difference in the resultant queries.

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  • How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

    - by johnrock
    I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

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  • Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

    - by Lirik
    I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

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  • window.setInterval from inside an object

    - by Keith Rousseau
    I'm currently having an issue where I have a javascript object that is trying to use setInterval to call a private function inside of itself. However, it can't find the object when I try to call it. I have a feeling that it's because window.setInterval is trying to call into the object from outside but doesn't have a reference to the object. FWIW - I can't get it to work with the function being public either. The basic requirement is that I may need to have multiple instances of this object to track multiple uploads that are occurring at once. If you have a better design than the current one or can get the current one working then I'm all ears. The following code is meant to continuously ping a web service to get the status of my file upload: var FileUploader = function(uploadKey) { var intervalId; var UpdateProgress = function() { $.get('someWebService', {}, function(json) { alert('success'); }); }; return { BeginTrackProgress: function() { intervalId = window.setInterval('UpdateProgress()', 1500); }, EndTrackProgress: function() { clearInterval(intervalId); } }; }; This is how it is being called: var fileUploader = new FileUploader('myFileKey'); fileUploader.BeginTrackProgress();

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  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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  • Fix hard-coded display setting without source (24-bit, need 32-bit)

    - by FerretallicA
    I wrote a program about 10 years ago in Visual Basic 6 which was basically a full-screen game similar to Breakout / Arkanoid but had 'demoscene'-style backgrounds. I found the program, but not the source code. Back then I hard-coded the display mode to 800x600x24, and the program crashes whenever I try to run it as a result. No virtual machine seems to support 24-bit display when the host display mode is 16/32-bit. It uses DirectX 7 so DOSBox is no use. I've tried all sorts of decompiler and at best they give me the form names and a bunch of assembly calls which mean nothing to me. The display mode setting was a DirectX 7 call but there's no clear reference to it in the decompilation. In this situation, is there any pointers on how I can: pin-point the function call in the program which is setting the display mode to 800x600x24 (ResHacker maybe?) and change the value being passed to it so it sets 800x600x32 view/intercept DirectX calls being made while it's running or if that's not possible, at least run the program in an environment that emulates a 24-bit display I don't need to recover the source code (as nice as it would be) so much as just want to get it running.

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  • How does someone without a CS degree get an interview in a sluggish economy?

    - by Anon
    I've been programming off and on since 4th grade (for about 20 years). Technology is one of my passions but after working in the field for a couple years out of High School, I spent nine months and $15,000 getting an accredited certificate in music performance instead of CS. I've been doing lots of self study but I think a CS degree is overkill for most line of business applications. Even so, HR departments can't be expected to know that... How does one get their foot in the proverbial door without a degree, especially in a smaller "fly-over country" market? ...or... Where can I get the cheapest/easiest degree that will pass muster (including testing out of as much as possible)? Don't get me wrong, I'm down with learning new things but I don't necessarily need the expense or coaching to motivate me. EDIT Consolidating good answers: Networking/User Groups Portfolio/Open Source Contributions Look for hybrid jobs (How I got my start :) ) Seek un-elitist companies/hiring managers. (Play the numbers game) Start my own business. (This is a bit challenging for a family man but a very good answer. My reason for searching is to reduce my commute thereby allowing more time to cultivate income on the side) Avail myself of political subsidies to constituents in the teachers' unions ;) .

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  • Generating a field setter and getter with ASM

    - by ng
    I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and maybe one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Problem in printing array of char pointer passing from Python

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    My following C code works quite well, till my Python code trying to pass an array of char pointer to it. The output I obtain is The file_name is python-file Another 3 string is not being printed out. Anything I had missed out? C Code #include <iostream> #include "c_interface.h" int foo(const char* file_name, const char** names) { std::cout << "The file_name is " << file_name << std::endl; while (*names) { std::cout << "The name is " << *names << std::endl; names++; } return 0; } /* int main() { const char *c[] = {"123gh", "456443432", "789", 0}; foo("hello", c); getchar(); } */ Python Code #!c:/Python27/python.exe -u from ctypes import * name0 = "NAME0" name1 = "NAME1" name2 = "NAME2" names = ((c_char_p * 1024) * 4)() names[0].value = name0 names[1].value = name1 names[2].value = name2 names[3].value = 0 libc = CDLL("foo.dll") libc.foo("python-file", names)

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  • Passing variables to a Custom Zend Form Element

    - by user322003
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom form element which extends Zend_Form_Element_Text with a validator (so I don't have to keep setting up the validator when I use certain elements). Anyway, I'm having trouble passing $maxChars variable to it when I instantiate it in my Main form. I've provided my shortened code below This is my custom element below class My_Form_Custom_Element extends Zend_Form_Element_Text { public $maxChars public function init() { $this->addValidator('StringLength', true, array(0, $this->maxChars)) } public function setProperties($maxChars) { $this->maxChars= $maxChars; } } This is where I instantiate my custom form element. class My_Form_Abc extends Zend_Form { public function __construct($options = null) { parent::__construct($options); $this->setName('abc'); $customElement = new My_Form_Custom_Element('myCustomElement'); $customElement->setProperties(100); //**<----This is where i set the $maxChars** $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $submit -> setAttrib('id', 'submitbutton'); $this->addElements(array($customElement ,$submit)); } } When I try to pass '100' using $customElement-setProperties(100) in my Form, it doesnt get passed properly to my StringLength validator. I assume it's because the validator is getting called in Init? How can I fix this?

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  • accessing a method from a button within a class?

    - by flo
    #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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  • Do COM Dll References Require Manual Disposal? If so, How?

    - by Drew
    I have written some code in VB that verifies that a particular port in the Windows Firewall is open, and opens one otherwise. The code uses references to three COM DLLs. I wrote a WindowsFirewall class, which Imports the primary namespace defined by the DLLs. Within members of the WindowsFirewall class I construct some of the types defined by the DLLs referenced. The following code isn't the entire class, but demonstrates what I am doing. Imports NetFwTypeLib Public Class WindowsFirewall Public Shared Function IsFirewallEnabled as Boolean Dim icfMgr As INetFwMgr icfMgr = CType(System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type.GetTypeFromProgID("HNetCfg.FwMgr")), INetFwMgr) Dim profile As INetFwProfile profile = icfMgr.LocalPolicy.CurrentProfile Dim fIsFirewallEnabled as Boolean fIsFirewallEnabled = profile.FirewallEnabled return fIsFirewallEnabled End Function End Class I do not reference COM DLLs very often. I have read that unmanaged code may not be cleaned up by the garbage collector and I would like to know how to make sure that I have not introduced any memory leaks. Please tell me (a) if I have introduced a memory leak, and (b) how I may clean it up. (My theory is that the icfMgr and profile objects do allocate memory that remains unreleased until after the application closes. I am hopeful that setting their references equal to nothing will mark them for garbage collection, since I can find no other way to dispose of them. Neither one implements IDisposable, and neither contains a Finalize method. I suspect they may not even be relevant here, and that both of those methods of releasing memory only apply to .Net types.)

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  • How to get SimpleRpcClient.Call() to be a blocking call to achieve synchronous communication with RabbitMQ?

    - by Nick Josevski
    In the .NET version (2.4.1) of RabbitMQ the RabbitMQ.Client.MessagePatterns.SimpleRpcClient has a Call() method with these signatures: public virtual object[] Call(params object[] args); public virtual byte[] Call(byte[] body); public virtual byte[] Call(IBasicProperties requestProperties, byte[] body, out IBasicProperties replyProperties); The problem: With various attempts, the method still continues to not block where I expect it to, so it's unable ever handle the response. The Question: Am I missing something obvious in the setup of the SimpleRpcClient, or earlier with the IModel, IConnection, or even PublicationAddress? More Info: I've also tried various paramater configurations of the QueueDeclare() method too with no luck. string QueueDeclare(string queue, bool durable, bool exclusive, bool autoDelete, IDictionary arguments); Some more reference code of my setup of these: IConnection conn = new ConnectionFactory{Address = "127.0.0.1"}.CreateConnection()); using (IModel ch = conn.CreateModel()) { var client = new SimpleRpcClient(ch, queueName); var queueName = ch.QueueDeclare("t.qid", true, true, true, null); ch.QueueBind(queueName, "exch", "", null); //HERE: does not block? var replyMessageBytes = client.Call(prop, msgToSend, out replyProp); } Looking elsewhere: Or is it likely there's an issue in my "server side" code? With and without the use of BasicAck() it appears the client has already continued execution.

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  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Which technology should I use to pop up a simple form in my add-in DLL?

    - by Decker
    I'm building an assembly that runs as an "add-on" to a vendor's Outlook add-in. When it is time for me to execute my "action", I have to put up a simple window with a few simple controls. The vendor's add-in provides me with the parent window's integer handle. I am able to put up a form pretty easily with WinForms by adding are reference to System.Windows.Forms from my assembly and with the following code: FrmHistoryDisplay frm = new FrmHistoryDisplay(); frm.ShowDialog(new ParentWindowWrapper(_parentWindowHandle)); where ParentWindowWrapper is a shim class around the window handle I'm given private class ParentWindowWrapper : IWin32Window { private int _parentWindowHandle; public ParentWindowWrapper(int parentWindowHandle) { _parentWindowHandle = parentWindowHandle; } public IntPtr Handle { get { return new IntPtr(_parentWindowHandle); } } } The Form's ShowDialog method takes an IWin32Window implementor to wrap the parent's window handle. This all works and seems simple enough. I was just wondering whether something similar can be done with a WPF window rather than a WinForm Form? Should I care?

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  • Is there a way to validates_presence_of only one time? (to skip that validation once the user's been

    - by GoodGets
    So, I'd like for a user to see an error message if he submits a comment and the :name is blank (typical error message, don't need help with that). However, I'd then like to allow the user to skip that validation once he's been notified that "we like all comments to have a name." So, he submits the comment once, sees the notification, then can submit the form again unchanged if he really doesn't want to add a name, and the validates_presences_of :name is skipped. But, I'm not sure how to go about doing this. I thought about checking to see where the request is coming from, but after a create, errors are handed off to the "new" action, which is the same as actual "new" comments. I then thought about checking to see if flash[errors] were present, but that won't work because there are other validations a comment has to pass. Finally, I thought about trying a validates_presences_of :name, :unless = :notified but wasn't sure how to define notified. I honestly hate asking such an open ended question, but wasn't sure where to get started. So, is there a way to just check a certain validation once?

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • AS3 and the loader class

    - by Acti67
    Hi, I write here, because after looking for a solution, I could not resolve my error... var test:MovieClip; var sign:Loader = new Loader(); sign.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completSIGN); sign.load(new URLRequest("http://files.zebest-3000.com/278374/3011/3011.swf")); function completSIGN(e:Event):void { test = MovieClip(e.target.content); addChild(test); } This is the error: TypeError: Error #1009: Il est impossible d'accéder à la propriété ou à la méthode d'une référence d'objet nul. at Main::StateManager() So, the movie (some videos work perfectly and others not) does not want to load in my container ; it seems there is a problem in the mapping... and can't modify the distant movie. Is there an other method of loading a movie inside one other (I have try also to load with bytearray, but it's the same)? Can we catch this error and relocate the instance to help him to find the correct way?

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  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

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  • TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

    - by larryq
    (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

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  • Referencing not-yet-defined variables - Java

    - by user2537337
    Because I'm tired of solving math problems, I decided to try something more engaging with my very rusty (and even without the rust, very basic) Java skills. I landed on a super-simple people simulator, and thus far have been having a grand time working through the various steps of getting it to function. Currently, it generates an array of people-class objects and runs a for loop to cycle through a set of actions that alter the relationships between them, which I have stored in a 2d integer array. When it ends, I go look at how much they all hate each other. Fun stuff. Trouble has arisen, however, because I would like the program to clearly print what action is happening when it happens. I thought the best way to do this would be to add a string, description, to my "action" class (which stores variables for the actor, reactor, and the amount the relationship changes). This works to a degree, in that I can print a generic message ("A fight has occurred!") with no problem. However, ideally I would like it to be a little more specific ("Person A has thrown a rock at Person B's head!"). This latter goal is proving more difficult: attempting to construct an action with a description string that references actor and reactor gets me a big old error, "Cannot reference field before it is defined." Which makes perfect sense. I believe I'm not quite in programmer mode, because the only other way I can think to do this is an unwieldy switch statement that negates the need for each action to have its own nicely-packaged description. And there must be a neater way. I am not looking for examples of code, only a push in the direction of the right concept to handle this.

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