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• What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

  - by durandai

  I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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• Java equivalent of the VB Request.InputStream

  - by Android Addict

  I have a web service that I am re-writing from VB to a Java servlet. In the web service, I want to extract the body entity set on the client-side as such: StringEntity stringEntity = new StringEntity(xml, HTTP.UTF_8); stringEntity.setContentType("application/xml"); httppost.setEntity(stringEntity); In the VB web service, I get this data by using: Dim objReader As System.IO.StreamReader objReader = New System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream) Dim strXML As String = objReader.ReadToEnd and this works great. But I am looking for the equivalent in Java. I have tried this: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[dataStream.toString().length()]; dataStream.read(data); but all it gets me is an unintelligible string: data = [B@68514fec Please advise. Edit Per the answers, I have tried: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int r; byte[] data = new byte[1024*1024]; while ((r = dataStream.read(data, 0, data.length)) != -1) { buffer.write(data, 0, r); } buffer.flush(); byte[] data2 = buffer.toByteArray(); System.out.println("DATA = "+Arrays.toString(data2)); whichs yields: DATA = [] and when I try: System.out.println("DATA = "+data2.toString()); I get: DATA = [B@15282c7f So what am I doing wrong? As stated earlier, the same call to my VB service gives me the xml that I pass in.

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• How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

  - by Michael Hopkins

  I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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• Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

  - by gisc

  I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

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• Blackberry: Passing KML file to Google Maps

  - by Pria

  I want to know that can I pass KML as a string to google map application? Code snippet: //KML String String document = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><kml xmlns=\"http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2\"><Document><Folder><name>Paths</name><open>0</open><Placemark><LineString><tessellate>1</tessellate><coordinates> -112.0814237830345,36.10677870477137,0 -112.0870267752693,36.0905099328766,0</coordinates></LineString></Placemark></Folder></Document></kml>"; //Invoke Google Maps int module = CodeModuleManager.getModuleHandle("GoogleMaps"); if (module == 0) { try { throw new ApplicationManagerException("GoogleMaps isn't installed"); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } String[] args = {document}; //Is this possible??? ApplicationDescriptor descriptor = CodeModuleManager.getApplicationDescriptors(module)[0]; ApplicationDescriptor ad2 = new ApplicationDescriptor(descriptor, args); try { ApplicationManager.getApplicationManager().runApplication(ad2, true); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); }

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• How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

  - by marue

  I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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• StrcutureMap Wiring - Sanity Check Please

  - by Steve Ward

  Hi - Im new to IOC and StructureMap and have an n-level application and am looking at how to setup the wirings (ForRequestedType ...) and just want to check with people with more experience that this is the best way of doing it! I dont want my UI application object to reference my persistence layer directly so am not able to wire everything up in this UI project. I now have it working by defining a Registry class in each project which wires up the types in the project as needed. The layer above registers its types and also calls the assembly below and looks for registries so that all types are registered throught the hierrachy. E.g. I have UI, Service, Domain, and Persistence libraries. In my service layer the registry looks like Scan(x => { x.Assembly("MyPersistenceProject"); x.LookForRegistries(); }); ForRequestedType<IService>().TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<MyService>(); Is this a recommended way of doing this in a setup such as this? Are there better ways and what are the advantages / disadvantages of these approaches in this case?

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• Dynamic Method Creation

  - by TJMonk15

  So, I have been trying to research this all morning, and have had no luck. I am trying to find a way to dynamically create a method/delegate/lambda that returns a new instance of a certain class (not known until runtime) that inherits from a certain base class. I can guarantee the following about the unknown/dynamic class It will always inherit from one known Class (Row) It will have atleast 2 constructors (one accepting a long, and one accepting an IDataRecord) I plan on doign the following: Finding all classes that have a certain attribute on them Creating a delegate/method/lambda/whatever that creates a new instance of the class Storing the delegate/whatever along with some properties in a struct/class Insert the struct into a hashtable When needed, pull the info out of the hashtable and calling the delegate/whatever to get a new instance of the class and returning it/adding it to a list/etc. I need help only with #2 above!!! I have no idea where to start. I really just need some reference material to get me started, or some keywords to throw into google. This is for a compact/simple to use ORM for our office here. I understand the above is not simple, but once working, should make maintaining the code incredibly simple. Please let me know if you need any more info! And thanks in advance! :)

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• Designing a class in such a way that it doesn't become a "God object"

  - by devoured elysium

  I'm designing an application that will allow me to draw some functions on a graphic. Each function will be drawn from a set of points that I will pass to this graphic class. There are different kinds of points, all inheriting from a MyPoint class. For some kind of points it will be just printing them on the screen as they are, others can be ignored, others added, so there is some kind of logic associated to them that can get complex. How to actually draw the graphic is not the main issue here. What bothers me is how to make the code logic such that this GraphicMaker class doesn't become the so called God-Object. It would be easy to make something like this: class GraphicMaker { ArrayList<Point> points = new ArrayList<Point>(); public void AddPoint(Point point) { points.add(point); } public void DoDrawing() { foreach (Point point in points) { if (point is PointA) { //some logic here else if (point is PointXYZ) { //...etc } } } } How would you do something like this? I have a feeling the correct way would be to put the drawing logic on each Point object (so each child class from Point would know how to draw itself) but two problems arise: There will be kinds of points that need to know all the other points that exist in the GraphicObject class to know how to draw themselves. I can make a lot of the methods/properties from the Graphic class public, so that all the points have a reference to the Graphic class and can make all their logic as they want, but isn't that a big price to pay for not wanting to have a God class?

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• Improving field get and set performance with ASM

  - by ng

  I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and maybe one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Why is a NullReferenceException thrown when a ToolStrip button is clicked twice with code in the `Click` event handler?

  - by Patrick

  I created a clean WindowsFormsApplication solution, added a ToolStrip to the main form, and placed one button on it. I've added also an OpenFileDialog, so that the Click event of the ToolStripButton looks like the following: private void toolStripButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { openFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); } I didn't change any other properties or events. The funny thing is that when I double-click the ToolStripButton (the second click must be quite fast, before the dialog opens), then cancel both dialogs (or choose a file, it doesn't really matter) and then click in the client area of main form, a NullReferenceException crashes the application (error details attached at the end of the post). Please note that the Click event is implemented while DoubleClick is not. What's even more strange that when the OpenFileDialog is replaced by any user-implemented form, the ToolStripButton blocks from being clicked twice. I'm using VS2008 with .NET3.5. I didn't change many options in VS (only fontsize, workspace folder and line numbering). Does anyone know how to solve this? It is 100% replicable on my machine, is it on others too? One solution that I can think of is disabling the button before calling OpenFileDialog.ShowDialog() and then enabling the button back (but it's not nice). Any other ideas? And now the promised error details: System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="System.Windows.Forms" StackTrace: at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.WindowClass.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.PeekMessage(MSG& msg, HandleRef hwnd, Int32 msgMin, Int32 msgMax, Int32 remove) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(Form mainForm) at WindowsFormsApplication1.Program.Main() w C:\Users\Marchewek\Desktop\Workspaces\VisualStudio\WindowsFormsApplication1\Program.cs:line 20 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

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• Lookup table size reduction

  - by Ryan

  Hello: I have an application in which I have to store a couple of millions of integers, I have to store them in a Look up table, obviously I cannot store such amount of data in memory and in my requirements I am very limited I have to store the data in an embebedded system so I am very limited in the space, so I would like to ask you about recommended methods that I can use for the reduction of the look up table. I cannot use function approximation such as neural networks, the values needs to be in a table. The range of the integers is not known at the moment. When I say integers I mean a 32 bit value. Basically the idea is use some copmpression method to reduce the amount of memory but without losing many precision. This thing needs to run in hardware so the computation overhead cannot be very high. In my algorithm I have to access to one value of the table do some operations with it and after update the value. In the end what I should have is a function which I pass an index to it and then I get a value, and after I have to use another function to write a value in the table. I found one called tile coding http://www.cs.ualberta.ca/~sutton/book/8/node6.html, this one is based on several look up tables, does anyone know any other method?. Thanks.

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• TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

  - by larryq

  (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

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• Nhibernate: Stop it from joining to a table that is not needed

  - by Aaron

  I have two tables (tbArea, tbPost) that relate to the following classes. class Area { int ID string Name ... } class Post { int ID string Title Area Area ... } These two classes map up with Fluent Nhibernate. Below is the post mapping. public class PostMapping : ClassMap<Post> { public PostMapping() { Cache.NonStrictReadWrite(); this.Table("tbPost"); Id(x => x.ID) .Column("PostID") .GeneratedBy .Identity(); References(x => x.Area) .ForeignKey("AreaID") .Column("AreaID"); ... } } Any time I perform a query on the Post table "where AreaID = 1(any AreaId)", nhibernate will join to the area table. (What Nhibernate generates for a query) SELECT post fields , area fields (automatically added) FROM tbPost p LEFT JOIN tbArea a on p.areaid = a.areaid where p.areaid = 1 I have tried setting Area to LazyLoad, to Fetch.Select, ReadOnly, and any other setting on the reference and still it will always join to Area. I am trying to optimize the backend database queries, and since I don't need the area object loaded just filtered I would like to eliminate the unnecessary join to Area each time I Query post. What configurations do I need to change or mappings to get area to still be related to post in my objects, but not query it when I filter on AreaID?

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• Which technology should I use to pop up a simple form in my add-in DLL?

  - by Decker

  I'm building an assembly that runs as an "add-on" to a vendor's Outlook add-in. When it is time for me to execute my "action", I have to put up a simple window with a few simple controls. The vendor's add-in provides me with the parent window's integer handle. I am able to put up a form pretty easily with WinForms by adding are reference to System.Windows.Forms from my assembly and with the following code: FrmHistoryDisplay frm = new FrmHistoryDisplay(); frm.ShowDialog(new ParentWindowWrapper(_parentWindowHandle)); where ParentWindowWrapper is a shim class around the window handle I'm given private class ParentWindowWrapper : IWin32Window { private int _parentWindowHandle; public ParentWindowWrapper(int parentWindowHandle) { _parentWindowHandle = parentWindowHandle; } public IntPtr Handle { get { return new IntPtr(_parentWindowHandle); } } } The Form's ShowDialog method takes an IWin32Window implementor to wrap the parent's window handle. This all works and seems simple enough. I was just wondering whether something similar can be done with a WPF window rather than a WinForm Form? Should I care?

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• How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

  - by ern

  Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

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• How do I run a VBScript in 32-bit mode on a 64-bit machine?

  - by Peter

  I have a text file that ends with .vbs that I have written the following in: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Provider = "Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" Conn.Properties("Data Source") = "C:\dummy.accdb" Conn.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Database Password") = "pass" Conn.Open Conn.Close Set Conn = Nothing When I execute this on a Windows 32-bit machine it runs and ends without any notion (expected). When I execute this on a Windows 64-bit machine it gets the error "Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed.". But it is installed. I think the root of the problem is that the provider is a 32-bit provider, as far as I know it doesn't exist as 64-bit. If I run the VBScript through IIS on my 64-bit machine (as a ASP file) I can select that it should run in 32-bit mode. It can then find the provider. How can I make it find the provider on Windows 64-bit? Can I tell CScript (which executes the .vbs text file) to run in 32-bit mode somehow?

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• Why can't I get the value of this text input?

  - by Spilot

  It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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• Copy and paste between sheets in a workbook with VBA code

  - by Hannah

  Trying to write a macro in VBA for Excel to look at the value in a certain column from each row of data in a list and if that value is "yes" then it copies and pastes the entire row onto a different sheet in the same workbook. Let's name the two sheets "Data" and "Final". I want to have the sheets referenced so it does not matter which sheet I have open when it runs the code. I was going to use a Do loop to cycle through the rows on the one data sheet until it finds there are no more entries, and if statements to check the values. I am confused about how to switch from one sheet to the next. How do I specifically reference cells in different sheets? Here is the pseudocode I had in mind: Do while DataCells(x,1).Value <> " " for each DataCells(x,1).Value="NO" if DataCells(x,2).Value > DataCells(x,3).Value or _ DataCells(x,4).Value < DataCells(x,5).Value 'Copy and paste/insert row x from Data to Final sheet adding a new 'row for each qualifying row else x=x+1 end else if DataCells(x,1).Value="YES" Loop 'copy and paste entire row to a third sheet 'continue this cycle until all rows in the data sheet are examined

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• SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

  - by Turro

  Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

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• How to implement generic callbacks in C++

  - by Kylotan

  Forgive my ignorance in asking this basic question but I've become so used to using Python where this sort of thing is trivial that I've completely forgotten how I would attempt this in C++. I want to be able to pass a callback to a function that performs a slow process in the background, and have it called later when the process is complete. This callback could be a free function, a static function, or a member function. I'd also like to be able to inject some arbitrary arguments in there for context. (ie. Implementing a very poor man's coroutine, in a way.) On top of that, this function will always take a std::string, which is the output of the process. I don't mind if the position of this argument in the final callback parameter list is fixed. I get the feeling that the answer will involve boost::bind and boost::function but I can't work out the precise invocations that would be necessary in order to create arbitrary callables (while currying them to just take a single string), store them in the background process, and invoke the callable correctly with the string parameter.

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• Worklight console app, update

  - by jarkko

  We're using Worklight 6.1.0.0 / WebSphere 8.0.0.2 (ND/aix). This seemed pretty close to my question too, but for version 6.0. I've successfully done uninstall/install to our worklight console war package. However, there is some extra work on re-deploying adapters and such. I was looking for a way to just update the console. Among the ant tasks there is a target 'minimal-update', which sounds like what I'm looking for (is it?). However when all other pieces fell into place, I have an error for mapping the datasources: ADMA0007E: A validation error occurred in task Mapping resource references to resources. The Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) name is not specified for resource reference jdbc/WorklightDS in module Worklight with EJB name . Contents of the 'minimal-update' task is pretty much the same as for 'install'. I tried that as update from websphere admin console (but i should use the ant task - right?), that gave me a wizard screen to map jdbc/WorklightDS from package to jdbc/WorklightDS on server. This left me wondering how could I tell this using the ant task.

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• Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

  - by AspOnMyNet

  1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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• django + south + python: strange behavior when using a text string received as a parameter in a func

  - by carlosescri

  Hello, this is my first question. I'm trying to execute a SQL query in django (south migration): from django.db import connection # ... class Migration(SchemaMigration): # ... def transform_id_to_pk(self, table): try: db.delete_primary_key(table) except: pass finally: cursor = connection.cursor() # This does not work cursor.execute('SELECT MAX("id") FROM "%s"', [table]) # I don't know if this works. try: minvalue = cursor.fetchone()[0] except: minvalue = 1 seq_name = table + '_id_seq' db.execute('CREATE SEQUENCE "%s" START WITH %s OWNED BY "%s"."id"', [seq_name, minvalue, table]) db.execute('ALTER TABLE "%s" ALTER COLUMN id SET DEFAULT nextval("%s")', [table, seq_name + '::regclass']) db.create_primary_key(table, ['id']) # ... I use this function like this: self.transform_id_to_pk('my_table_name') So it should: Find the biggest existent ID or 0 (it crashes) Create a sequence name Create the sequence Update the ID field to use sequence Update the ID as PK But it crashes and the error says: File "../apps/accounting/migrations/0003_setup_tables.py", line 45, in forwards self.delegation_table_setup(orm) File "../apps/accounting/migrations/0003_setup_tables.py", line 478, in delegation_table_setup self.transform_id_to_pk('accounting_delegation') File "../apps/accounting/migrations/0003_setup_tables.py", line 20, in transform_id_to_pk cursor.execute(u'SELECT MAX("id") FROM "%s"', [table.encode('utf-8')]) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 19, in execute return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) psycopg2.ProgrammingError: relation "E'accounting_delegation'" does not exist LINE 1: SELECT MAX("id") FROM "E'accounting_delegation'" ^ I have shortened the file paths for convenience. What does that "E'accounting_delegation'" mean? How could I get rid of it? Thank you! Carlos.

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• NHibernate listener/event to replace object before insert/update

  - by vIceBerg

  Hi! I have a Company class which have a collection of Address. Here's my Address class:(written top of my head): public class Address { public string Civic; public string Street; public City City; } This is the City class: public class City { public int Id; public string Name; public string SearchableName{ get { //code } } } Address is persisted in his own table and have a reference to the city's ID. City are also persisted in is own table. The City's SearchableName is used to prevent some mistakes in the city the user type. For example, if the city name is "Montréal", the searchable name will be "montreal". If the city name is "St. John", the searchable name will be "stjohn", etc. It's used mainly to to search and to prevent having multiple cities with a typo in it. When I save an address, I want an listener/event to check if the city is already in the database. If so, cancel the insert and replace the user's city with the database one. I would like the same behavior with updates. I tried this: public bool OnPreInsert(PreInsertEvent @event) { City entity = (@event.Entity as City); if (entity != null) { if (entity.Id == 0) { var city = (from c in @event.Session.Linq<City>() where c.SearchableName == entity.SearchableName select c).SingleOrDefault(); if (city != null) { //don't know what to do here return true; } } } return false; } But if there's already a City in the database, I don't know what to do. @event.Entity is readonly, if I set @event.Entity.Id, I get an "null identifier" exception. I tried to trap insert/update on Address and on Company, but the City if the first one to get inserted (it's logic...) Any thoughts? Thanks

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