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• What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

  - by durandai

  I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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• forward invocation, by hand vs magically?

  - by John Smith

  I have the following two class: //file FruitTree.h @interface FruitTree : NSObject { Fruit * f; Leaf * l; } @end //file FruitTree.m @implementation FruitTree //here I get the number of seeds from the object f @end //file Fruit @interface Fruit : NSObject { int seeds; } -(int) countfruitseeds; @end My question is at the point of how I request the number of seeds from f. I have two choices. Either: Since I know f I can explicitly call it, i.e. I implement the method -(int) countfruitseeds { return [f countfruitseeds]; } Or: I can just use forwardInvocation: - (NSMethodSignature *)methodSignatureForSelector:(SEL)selector { // does the delegate respond to this selector? if ([f respondsToSelector:selector]) return [f methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else if ([l respondsToSelector:selector]) return [l methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else return [super methodSignatureForSelector: selector]; } - (void)forwardInvocation:(NSInvocation *)invocation { [invocation invokeWithTarget:f]; } (Note this is only a toy example to ask my question. My real classes have lots of methods, which is why I am asking.) Which is the better/faster method?

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• jquery: Writing a method

  - by Mark

  This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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• Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

  - by merweirdo

  I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

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• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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• Objective-C protocol vs inheritance vs extending?

  - by ryanjm.mp

  I have a couple classes that have nearly identical code. Only a string or two is different between them. What I would like to do is to make them "x" from another class that defines those functions and then uses constants or something else to define those strings that are different. I'm not sure if "x" is inheritance or extending or what. That is what I need help with. For example: objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld { NSLog("Hello %@",child.name); } objectBob.m: #define name @"Bob" objectJoe.m #define name @"Joe" (I'm not sure if it's legal to define strings, but this gets the point across) It would be ideal if objectBob.m and objectJoe.m didn't have to even define the methods, just their relationship to objectA.m. Is there any way to do something like this? It is kind of like protocol, except in reverse, I want the "protocol" to actually define the functions. If all else fails I'll just make objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld:(NSString *name) { NSLog("Hello %@",name); } And have the other files call that function (and just #import objectA.m).

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• toggleClass messing something up.

  - by Mathias Nielsen

  Hi I am using playing around with the Pretty-checkboxes-plugin and have a problem. The plugin can be seen here http://aaronweyenberg.com/90/pretty-checkboxes-with-jquery As you can see, this uses two links to select and deselect. I want it to only use one link and then change the class to make it work the other way the next time it is clicked. It should be simple enough. I have been trying to get it working with toggleClass. I simply put in the toggleClass statement so the code looks like so: $(document).ready(function() { /* see if anything is previously checked and reflect that in the view*/ $(".checklist input:checked").parent().addClass("selected"); /* handle the user selections */ $(".checklist .checkbox-select").click( function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $(this).parent().addClass("selected"); $(this).parent().find(":checkbox").attr("checked","checked"); $(this).toggleClass("checkbox-select checkbox-deselect"); } ); $(".checklist .checkbox-deselect").click( function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $(this).parent().removeClass("selected"); $(this).parent().find(":checkbox").removeAttr("checked"); $(this).toggleClass("checkbox-select checkbox-deselect"); } ); }); This works to some extend. The classes toggle just fine, but the rest of the code only works the first time it is run. All subsequent clicks just toggle the class og the link and nothing else. Does anyone have any idea why this is?

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• How to call a function from another class file

  - by Guy Parker

  I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

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• Java Concurrency in practice sample question

  - by andy boot

  I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. According to the book this piece of code is at risk of of failure if it has not been published properly. Because I like to code examples and break them to prove how they work. I have tried to make it throw an AssertionError but have failed. (Leading me to my previous question) Can anyone post sample code so that an AssertionError is thrown? Rule: Do not modify the Holder class. public class Holder{ private int n; public Holder(int n){ this.n = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } I have modified the class to make it more fragile but I still can not get an AssertionError thrown. class Holder2{ private int n; private int n2; public Holder2(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(200); this.n2 = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n2) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } Is it possible to make either of the above classes throw an AssertionError? Or do we have to accept that they may occasionally do so and we can't write code to prove it?

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• Hide table rows if Cookie is there

  - by kuswantin

  Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• confused about how to use JSON in C#

  - by Josh

  The answer to just about every single question about using C# with json seems to be "use JSON.NET" but that's not the answer I'm looking for. the reason I say that is, from everything I've been able to read in the documentation, JSON.NET is basically just a better performing version of the DataContractSerializer built into the .net framework... Which means if I want to deserialize a JSON string, I have to define the full, strongly-typed class for EVERY request I might have. so if I have a need to get categories, posts, authors, tags, etc, I have to define a new class for every one of these things. This is fine if I built the client and know exactly what the fields are, but I'm using someone else's api, so I have no idea what the contract is unless I download a sample response string and create the class manually from the JSON string. Is that the only way it's done? Is there not a way to have it create a kind of hashtable that can be read with json["propertyname"]? Finally, if I do have to build the classes myself, what happens when the API changes and they don't tell me (as twitter seems to be notorious for doing)? I'm guessing my entire project will break until I go in and update the object properties... So what exactly is the general workflow when working with JSON? And by general I mean library-agnostic. I want to know how it's done in general, not specifically to a target library... I hope that made sense, this has been a very confusing area to get into... thanks!

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• How to create TestContext for Spring Test?

  - by HDave

  Newcomer to Spring here, so pardon me if this is a stupid question. I have a relatively small Java library that implements a few dozen beans (no database or GUI). I have created a Spring Bean configuration file that other Java projects use to inject my beans into their stuff. I am now for the first time trying to use Spring Test to inject some of these beans into my junit test classes (rather than simply instantiating them). I am doing this partly to learn Spring Test and partly to force the tests to use the same bean configuration file I provide for others. In the Spring documentation is says I need to create an application context using the "TestContext" class that comes with Spring. I believe this should be done in a spring XML file that I reference via the @ContextConfiguration annotation on my test class. @ContextConfiguration({"/test-applicationContext.xml"}) However, there is no hint as to what to put in the file! When I go to run my tests from within Eclipse it errors out saying "failed to load Application Context"....of course.

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• Is it possible to restrict instantiation of an object to only one other (parent) object in VB.NET?

  - by Casey

  VB 2008 .NET 3.5 Suppose we have two classes, Order and OrderItem, that represent some type of online ordering system. OrderItem represents a single line item in an Order. One Order can contain multiple OrderItems, in the form of a List(of OrderItem). Public Class Order Public Property MyOrderItems() as List(of OrderItem) End Property End Class It makes sense that an OrderItem should not exist without an Order. In other words, an OrderItem class should not be able to be instantiated on its own, it should be dependent on an Order class to contain it and instantiate it. However, the OrderItem should be public in scope so that it's properties are accessible to other objects. So, the requirements for OrderItem are: Can not be instantiated as a stand alone object; requires Order to exist. Must be public so that any other object can access it's properties/methods through the Order object. e.g. Order.OrderItem(0).ProductID. OrderItem should be able to be passed to other subs/functions that will operate on it. How can I achieve these goals? Is there a better approach?

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• Dynamic Method Creation

  - by TJMonk15

  So, I have been trying to research this all morning, and have had no luck. I am trying to find a way to dynamically create a method/delegate/lambda that returns a new instance of a certain class (not known until runtime) that inherits from a certain base class. I can guarantee the following about the unknown/dynamic class It will always inherit from one known Class (Row) It will have atleast 2 constructors (one accepting a long, and one accepting an IDataRecord) I plan on doign the following: Finding all classes that have a certain attribute on them Creating a delegate/method/lambda/whatever that creates a new instance of the class Storing the delegate/whatever along with some properties in a struct/class Insert the struct into a hashtable When needed, pull the info out of the hashtable and calling the delegate/whatever to get a new instance of the class and returning it/adding it to a list/etc. I need help only with #2 above!!! I have no idea where to start. I really just need some reference material to get me started, or some keywords to throw into google. This is for a compact/simple to use ORM for our office here. I understand the above is not simple, but once working, should make maintaining the code incredibly simple. Please let me know if you need any more info! And thanks in advance! :)

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• Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

  - by sal

  Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

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• jQuery sliding animation not working

  - by Jake Zeitz

  I have three divs stacked on each other but offset so that a part of each div is visible. When one of the bottom divs is clicked I want the top div to animate out and back into the stack at the bottom, then the div that is clicked will appear at the top. So far I only have the code for when the middle div is clicked, but I cannot get it to work properly. What am I doing wrong? (I also realize that the code I wrote is probably terrible, this is the first jQuery code I have written.) The css is very very simple: .first { z-index: 3; } .second { z-index: 2; } .third { z-index: 1; } The basic html is this: <div class="first"></div> <div class="second"></div> <div class="third"></div> Here is my code: $("div.second").click(function () { $("div.first").animate({ left: "-=200px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.first").removeClass("first").addClass("third").animate({left: "+=350px", top: "+=60px"}, "fast"); } }); $("div.second").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.second").removeClass("second").addClass("first"); } }); $("div.third").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.third").removeClass("third").addClass("second"); } }); }); I can get the div.first to move to the side and back. But now I can't get the classes to stay changed. What keeps happening is the div.second will remove it's class and add .first in the animation, but when the animation is complete, it acts like it still has a class of .second.

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• What's the difference between these LINQ queries ?

  - by SnAzBaZ

  I use LINQ-SQL as my DAL, I then have a project called DB which acts as my BLL. Various applications then access the BLL to read / write data from the SQL Database. I have these methods in my BLL for one particular table: public IEnumerable<SystemSalesTaxList> Get_SystemSalesTaxList() { return from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists select s; } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.SalesTaxID == strSalesTaxID).FirstOrDefault(); } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.ZipCode == strZipCode).FirstOrDefault(); } All pretty straight forward I thought. Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode is always returning a null value though, even when it has a ZIP Code that exists in that table. If I write the method like this, it returns the row I want: public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { var salesTax = from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists where s.ZipCode == strZipCode select s; return salesTax.FirstOrDefault(); } Why does the other method not return the same, as the query should be identical ? Note that, the overloaded Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) returns a record just fine when I give it a valid SalesTaxID. Is there a more efficient way to write these "helper" type classes ? Thanks!

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• What are Code Smells? What is the best way to correct them?

  - by Rob Cooper

  OK, so I know what a code smell is, and the Wikipedia Article is pretty clear in its definition: In computer programming, code smell is any symptom in the source code of a computer program that indicates something may be wrong. It generally indicates that the code should be refactored or the overall design should be reexamined. The term appears to have been coined by Kent Beck on WardsWiki. Usage of the term increased after it was featured in Refactoring. Improving the Design of Existing Code. I know it also provides a list of common code smells. But I thought it would be great if we could get clear list of not only what code smells there are, but also how to correct them. Some Rules Now, this is going to be a little subjective in that there are differences to languages, programming style etc. So lets lay down some ground rules: ** ONE SMELL PER ANSWER PLEASE! & ADVISE ON HOW TO CORRECT! ** See this answer for a good display of what this thread should be! DO NOT downmod if a smell doesn't apply to your language or development methodology We are all different. DO NOT just quickly smash in as many as you can think of Think about the smells you want to list and get a good idea down on how to work around. DO downmod answers that just look rushed For example "dupe code - remove dupe code". Let's makes it useful (e.g. Duplicate Code - Refactor into separate methods or even classes, use these links for help on these common.. etc. etc.). DO upmod answers that you would add yourself If you wish to expand, then answer with your thoughts linking to the original answer (if it's detailed) or comment if its a minor point. DO format your answers! Help others to be able to read it, use code snippets, headings and markup to make key points stand out!

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• Why are my event listeners firing more than once?

  - by Arms

  In my Flash project I have a movieclip that has 2 keyframes. Both frames contain 1 movieclip each. frame 1 - Landing frame 2 - Game The flow of the application is simple: User arrives on landing page (frame 1) User clicks "start game" button User is brought to the game page (frame 2) When the game is over, the user can press a "play again" button which brings them back to step 1 Both Landing and Game movieclips are linked to separate classes that define event listeners. The problem is that when I end up back at step 1 after playing the game, the Game event listeners fire twice for their respective event. And if I go through the process a third time, the event listeners fire three times for every event. This keeps happening, so if I loop through the application flow 7 times, the event listeners fire seven times. I don't understand why this is happening because on frame 1, the Game movieclip (and I would assume its related class instance) does not exist - but I'm clearly missing something here. I've run into this problem in other projects too, and tried fixing it by first checking if the event listeners existed and only defining them if they didn't, but I ended up with unexpected results that didn't really solve the problem. I need to ensure that the event listeners only fire once. Any advice & insight would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

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• DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

  - by Jammer

  I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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• Third party multipart request in playframework

  - by Brian

  I'm making an application to post photos to yfrog and twitpic and I am having a little trouble figuring out how to set the parameters. Here is my code: public static Result index() { HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); WSRequestHolder holder = WS.url("http://api.twitpic.com/2/upload.json"); holder.setHeader("Authorization", ""); return async(holder.post("").map(new Function<WS.Response, Result>() { public Result apply(WS.Response response) { return ok(response.getBody()); } })); } Now, I don't expect this to actually get an ok response from the server, as I am just testing the responses that I get back from the server, and that is one that says I need to provide the api key. I figured as much, but I'm not sure of the syntax for providing that parameter, as I need to also give the name of the file and the file. I tried setting holder.post("key=somekey"), with the hope that I would get a different error message (like the key you provided is invalid) but I just get the same error. I'm assuming that I probably need to send it in the for of a multipart request, but I am not very experienced with this kind of request and can't find any play documentation on how to create a multipart request, other than in an html form. Any suggestions and help will be much appreciated. And fyi, I do know that there are yfrog and twitpic java classes to handle this kind of stuff, but I want to do it myself, more so for learning how to do this kind of stuff. Thanks in advance!

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• Creating a Ruby method that pads an Array

  - by CJ Johnson

  I'm working on creating a method that pads an array, and accepts 1. a desired value and 2. an optional string/integer value. Desired_size reflects the desired number of elements in the array. If a string/integer is passed in as the second value, this value is used to pad the array with extra elements. I understand there is a 'fill' method that can shortcut this - but that would be cheating for the homework I'm doing. The issue: no matter what I do, only the original array is returned. I started here: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) desired_size >= self.length ? return self : (desired_size - self.length).times.do { |x| self << value } end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) From what I researched the issue seemed to be around trying to alter self's array, so I learned about .inject and gave that a whirl: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) if desired_size >= self.length return self else (desired_size - self.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) The interwebs tell me the problem might be with any reference to self so I wiped that out altogether: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) array = [] self.each { |x| array << x } if desired_size >= array.length return array else (desired_size - array.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) I'm very new to classes and still trying to learn about them. Maybe I'm not even testing them the right way with my test_array? Otherwise, I think the issue is I get the method to recognize the desired_size value that's being passed in. I don't know where to go next. Any advice would be appreciated. Thanks in advance for your time.

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• Test MVC using moq

  - by Raminder

  I am new to moq and I was trying to test a controller (MVC) behaviour that when the view raises a certain event, controller calls a certain function on model, here are the classes - public class Model { public void CalculateAverage() { ... } ... } public class View { public event EventHandler CalculateAverage; private void RaiseCalculateAverage() { if (CalculateAverage != null) { CalculateAverage(this, EventArgs.Empty); } } ... } public class Controller { private Model model; private View view; public Controller(Model model, View view) { this.model = model this.view = view; view.CalculaeAverage += view_CalculateAverage; } priavate void view_CalculateAverage(object sender, EventArgs args) { model.CalculateAverage(); } } and the test - [Test] public void ModelCalculateAverageCalled() { Mock<Model> modelMock = new Mock<Model>(); Mock<View> viewMock = new Mock<View>(); Controller controller = new Controller(modelMock.Object, viewMock.Object); viewMock.Raise(x => x.CalculateAverage += null, new EventArgs.Empty); modelMock.Verify(x => x.CalculateAverage()); //never comes here, test fails in above line and exits Assert.True(true); } The issue is that the test is failing in the second last line with "Invocation was not performed on the mock: x = x.CalculateAverage()". Another thing I noticed is that the test terminates on this second last line and the last line is never executed. Am I doing everything correct?

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• What does the windbg command "kd" do?

  - by Oskar

  I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

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• Strange inheritance behaviour in Objective-C

  - by Smikey

  Hi all, I've created a class called SelectableObject like so: #define kNumberKey @"Object" #define kNameKey @"Name" #define kThumbStringKey @"Thumb" #define kMainStringKey @"Main" #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface SelectableObject : NSObject <NSCoding> { int number; NSString *name; NSString *thumbString; NSString *mainString; } @property (nonatomic, assign) int number; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *thumbString; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *mainString; @end So far so good. And the implementation section conforms to the NSCoding protocol as expected. HOWEVER, when I add a new class which inherits from this class, i.e. #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "SelectableObject.h" @interface Pet : SelectableObject <NSCoding> { } @end I suddenly get the following compiler error in the Selectable object class! SelectableObject.h:16: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before 'interface' This makes no sense to me. Why is the interface declaration for the SelectableObject class suddenly broken? I also import it in a couple of other classes I've written... Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Michael

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