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• dynamically created controls and postback

  - by Mark

  Hi all, I have created dynamic controls (Radiobuttonlists) in an asp.net page (c#). I create them after a button click like this. RadioButtonList rbl = new RadioButtonList(); c2.Controls.Add(rbl); //Set properties of rbl rbl.RepeatLayout = RepeatLayout.Flow; rbl.ID = string.Format("rbl{0}", item.QuestionID); rbl.RepeatDirection = RepeatDirection.Horizontal; rbl.Items.Add(new ListItem("True", "1")); rbl.Items.Add(new ListItem("False", "0")); rbl.Items.Add(new ListItem("?", "-1")); Now the problem arises when I click the submit button, the controls are lost. I know it's better to actually put the controls in page_init event. but is there no workaround so I can still initiate my controls after button click? And is it good to first create button, then add it to control collection and then set its properties? Thankd in advance Kind regards, Mark

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• How can I get a custom made set of checkboxes return values in the postback?

  - by AngryHacker

  I have the following in an aspx page: <td colspan="2"> <% DisplayParties(); %> </td> In the code behind for the aspx page, i have this (e.g. I build HTML for the checkboxes): public void DisplayParties() { var s = new StringBuilder(); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"12345\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"67890\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"adjuster\" value=\"125\"/>"); Response.WriteLine(s.ToString()); } Not my proudest moment, but whatever. The problem is that when this page posts back via some event on the page, I never get these tags in the Request.Form collection. Is this simply how ASP.NET works (e.g. only server-side control post back) or am I missing something simple. My understanding was that a postback should bring back all the form variables.

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• Set focus to a button in a new TabItem

  - by Jan

  I use a TabControl to display a list of items. The ItemView is a separate control I wrote. <TabControl SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentItem}" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding ItemList}"> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ctrls:ItemView/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> <TabControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ShortItemDescription}"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ItemTemplate> </TabControl> If the user presses a Button a new ViewModel is added to the list of ViewModels and the TabControl displays it as a new tab. After adding the new tab is selected. <Button Command="{Binding AddItemCommand}" Content="Add item"/> Inside of the new ViewModel is a button that needs to be focused each time a new tab is added. I have tried to use the FocusManager and the Initialized event in the ItemView but these are only called for the first time I add a new tab. <UserControl x:Class="ItemView" ... Initialized="ViewInitialized"> <Grid> ... <!-- Set focus to this button --> <Button Content="Search" Command="{Binding SearchCommand}" Name="SearchButton" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0"/> </Grid> </UserControl> Any ideas?

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• How can I redirect directory using htaccess including files with spaces in the names

  - by James

  Hi, I am dealing with a situation where someone has handed me a bunch of old files on the server which already have a lot of incoming links directly to them (mostly pdf files). I now have the files organized but in a different directory. Before it was 'domain/manuals/file' now it is 'domain/media/manual/file'. I am trying to resolve this issue using an htaccess file. Many of the files have spaces in the names (not something I can control) and because they already have links to them I can't just go through renaming them. I have found that I can redirect files individually when they have spaces in the names by using quotes such as: redirect 301 "/manuals/file 123.pdf" "http://www.domain.com/manuals/file 123.pdf" However, there are loads of these files and I wondered if there is a way to create a regular expression that will handle spaces in file names that I could use to redirect the entire directory. I should add that some files contain decent file names with no spaces in, some have one space and others more than one space. It's not pretty. If you've encountered this problem before I would really appreciate hearing your advice, I'm running out of ideas. Thanks.

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• How to delete a cell in UITableView by using custom button in cell ?

  - by srikanth rongali

  I have UITableView. I customized the cell height (increased). I have 4 labels(UILabel) and 1 image(UIImage) and 3 buttons (UIButton). one of the button is delete button. By touching the cell or button(play button) on the image a video is loaded and played. I need to delete the cell by touching delete button. If I touched the delete button the corresponding video is deleted from library . But, how to delete the cell and all remaining data in it ? I am not able to delete the cells or the data in the cells. How to do it ? I used these. But the control is not entering in to second method committedEditingStyle: - (BOOL)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView canEditRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { return YES; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { } } Thank you. The following image shows the delete button of my program.

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• WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

  - by user320849

  Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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• What Getters and Setters should and shouldn't do.

  - by cyclotis04

  I've run into a lot of differing opinions on Getters and Setters lately, so I figured I should make it into it's own question. A previous question of mine received an immediate comment (later deleted) that stated setters shouldn't have any side effects, and a SetProperty method would be a better choice. Indeed, this seems to be Microsoft's opinion as well. However, their properties often raise events, such as Resized when a form's Width or Height property is set. OwenP also states "you shouldn't let a property throw exceptions, properties shouldn't have side effects, order shouldn't matter, and properties should return relatively quickly." Yet Michael Stum states that exceptions should be thrown while validating data within a setter. If your setter doesn't throw an exception, how could you effectively validate data, as so many of the answers to this question suggest? What about when you need to raise an event, like nearly all of Microsoft's Control's do? Aren't you then at the mercy of whomever subscribed to your event? If their handler performs a massive amount of information, or throws an error itself, what happens to your setter? Finally, what about lazy loading within the getter? This too could violate the previous guidelines. What is acceptable to place in a getter or setter, and what should be kept in only accessor methods?

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• What database strategy to choose for a large web application

  - by Snoopy

  I have to rewrite a large database application, running on 32 servers. The hardware is up to date, each machine has two quad core Xeon and 32 GByte RAM. The database is multi-tenant, each customer has his own file, around 5 to 10 GByte each. I run around 50 databases on this hardware. The app is open to the web, so I have no control on the load. There are no really complex queries, so SQL is not required if there is a better solution. The databases get updated via FTP every day at midnight. The database is read-only. C# is my favourite language and I want to use ASP.NET MVC. I thought about the following options: Use two big SQL servers running SQL Server 2012 to serve the 32 servers with data. On the 32 servers running IIS hosting providing REST services. Denormalize the database and use Redis on each webserver. Use booksleeve as a Redis client. Use a combination of SQL Server and Redis Use SQL Server 2012 together with Hadoop Use Hadoop without SQL Server What is the best way for a read-only database, to get the best performance without loosing maintainability? Does Map-Reduce make sense at all in such a scenario? The reason for the rewrite is, the old app written in C++ with ISAM technology is too slow, the interfaces are old fashioned and not nice to use from an website, especially when using ajax. The app uses a relational datamodel with many tables, but it is possible to write one accerlerator table where all queries can be performed on, and all other information from the other tables are possible by a simple key lookup.

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• Basic Team Foundation Server 2010 Question - System Resource Usage?

  - by user127954

  Guys / Gals i have a real basic Team Foundation Server 2010 question. For those of you who have played around with tfs 2010 is it a lot more light weight than tfs2008 is? I remember installing all the pieces needed for TFS 2008 one one machine at work. I remember it being a pain to install (i know 2010 is supposed to be much better) We wanted to play around with it a little bit to see if it met our needs. Well it brought that machine to a screeching halt. I'm needing a source control repository for home and i thought why not just install tfs 2010 so i can get familiar with it and maybe in the future i can make a better sell to my organization and FINALLY get them to move off of Source Safe but my concern is i only have one server at home (granted i already have SQL Server installed) and don't want to buy a machine just for this purpose. I'd also like to get more familiar with CI too. Anyways, if team is going to be to heavy i'll just use subversion but i'd like to use TFS if possible. Any help would be appreciated. thanks, Ncage

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• WCF cross-domain policy security error

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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• Problem in getting response from server in jquery

  - by Alvin

  Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

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• Javascript + PHP $_POST array empty

  - by Peterim

  While trying to send a POST request via xmlhttp.open("POST", "url", true) (javascript) to the server I get an empty $_POST array. Firebug shows that the data is being sent. Here is the data string from Firebug: a=1&q=151a45a150.... But $_POST['q'] returns nothing. The interesting thing is that file_get_contents('php://input') does have my data (the string above), but PHP somehow doesn't recognize it. Tried both $_POST and $_REQUEST, nothing works. Headers being sent: POST /test.php HTTP/1.1 Host: website.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://website.com/ Content-Length: 156 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Thank you for any suggestions.

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• WebView and HTML5 <video>

  - by brian moore

  I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

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• DataGridView update datasource directly after changed Checkbox value

  - by SchlaWiener

  I have a System.Windows.Forms DataGridView that is bound to a List<MyObject>. The class MyObject contains a boolean property that is bound to DataGridViewCheckboxCell within the DataGridView. public class MyObject { public decimal DefaultValue {get; set; } public bool HasCustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CurrentValue { get { return HasCustomValue ? CustomValue : DefaultValue; } } If I change the value of HasCustomValue another (readonly) property CurrentValue changes it's value, too. That is done by implementing the INotifyPropertyChanged event (I left that part in the source example for simplicity) If I changed HasCustomValue from outside the DataGridView, the column bound to CurrentValue gets updated immediately. Howevery, If the users enables/disables the checkbox, HasCustomValue is not changed in the underlying datasource unless he leaves the column by clicking with the mouse or pressing the TAB key. Is there a way to force the grid to update the datasource directly after changing a checkbox value? If I bind a Control Property I have the ability to set the DataSourceUpdateMode to Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged but I haven't found anything like that in a DataGridView

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• Need an Overview of Possibilities for multicolumn programming

  - by Sam

  Hi folks, From source1 and source2 i gather that IE9 will NOT support multi-column css3!! Since it is still the most popular browser (another thing i cannot understand), i am left but no other choice than to use Programming Power to make multi-columns work. Now, I use three divs that float to left, and which are manually filled with text. Please don't laugh i know its stupid! But I would wish to not to have to worry about the columns and just have a one piece of (un-interrupted) text which all goes into only 1 div, and then have a program smart enough to split it up into X equally wide columns. Question: before i start reinvent the wheel, what methods of programming power have you known that tackle this elegantly? Please suggest your best working multi-column layout sources so I can evaluate which option is the best (I will update the below table). Exploring all possibilities 2011 and further, to enable multi column text user experience: Language Author SourceCodeUsage WorksOnAllMajorBrowser? ================================================================================= html manual labour put text manually in separate left-floating divs "Y" // Upside: control! Downside: few changes necessitates to reflow 3 divs manually! CSS3 w3c css3.info/preview/multi-column-layout/ "N" // {-moz-column-count: 3; -webkit-column-count: 3; } Thats all! javascript a list apart will add url soon ? // php ? ? ? //

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• Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

  - by Ev

  Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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• JavaFX MouseEvent continues when I remove the object it happened on

  - by Kyle

  It took me a while to realize what was going on with mouse events going through my blocking dialog boxes when I closed them, but I finally figured out why. I still don't know any good way to fix it. I have a custom dialog box (that blocks the mouse) with a close button. When I click the close button, I remove the dialog box from the scene, but JavaFx is still processing the MouseEvent and now it finds that there is nothing blocking the screen behind where the cancel button was, so that component receives a MouseEvent. How do I make the mouseEvent stop processing when I see that they pressed cancel and remove the dialog box? Or, is there a way to make the removing of the dialog box not happen until after it is done processing the MouseEvent? Example Code for the problem: import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Rectangle; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.scene.control.Button; var theScene:Scene; var btn:Button; Stage { title: "Application title" scene: theScene= Scene { width: 500 height: 200 content: [ Rectangle{ width: bind theScene.width height: bind theScene.height onMouseClicked: function(e:MouseEvent):Void{ println("Rectangle");} }, Button{ layoutX: 20 layoutY: 50 blocksMouse: true text: "JustPrint" action:function():Void{ println("JustPrint");} }, btn = Button{ layoutX: 20 layoutY: 20 blocksMouse: true text: "Cancel" action:function():Void{ println("Cancel"); delete btn from theScene.content;} }, ] } } When you press "JustPrint" you get: JustPrint When you press "Cancel" you get: Cancel Rectangle

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• How to extract byte-array from one xml and store it in another in Java

  - by grobartn

  So I am using DocumentBuilderFactory and DocumentBuilder to parse an xml. So it is DOM parser. But what I am trying to do is extract byte-array data (its an image encoded in base64) Store it in one object and later in code write it out to another xml encoded in base64. What is the best way to store this in btw. Store it as string? or as ByteArray? How can I extract byte array data in best way and write it out. I am not experienced with this so wanted to get opinion from the group. UPDATE: I am given XML I do not have control of incoming XML that comes in binary64 encoded < byte-array > ... base64 encoded image ... < /byte-array > Using parser I have I need to store this node and question is should that be byte or string and then writing it out to another node in new xml. again in base64 encoding. thanks

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• How to get value of h:inputText when binded in JSF

  - by Tr?n Minh Phuong

  How can i get 2 h:inputTextValue from this? <h:dataTable cellspacing="0" value="#{managerManagedBean.lstMatch}" var="m" binding="#{managerManagedBean.datatableMatch}"> <!-- cellspacing='0' is important, must stay --> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team One</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamOneName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Score</f:facet> <h:inputText value="#{m.teamOneResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center" binding="#{input}"></h:inputText> - <h:inputText value="#{m.teamTwoResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center"></h:inputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Half Time</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.haveHalfTime}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team Two</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamTwoName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Date</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.matchDate}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Control</f:facet> <h:commandButton action="#{managerManagedBean.update(m, input.value)}" value="Update Match"> </h:commandButton> </h:column> </h:dataTable>

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• SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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• Populate a column as a result of performing math on two columns in a jqGrid.

  - by HacksawOnRye

  Background: Our company selected a workflow tool that has some "interersting" UI restrictions. jqGrid has been identified as one of best ways to overcome these restrictions. Consequently, the answers to this question need to be restricted to functionlity available within the jqGrid space. It pains me to pose this question and I know you will tempted to go down a million other paths - most that we have already traveled before. :( Question: Can jqGrid populate a column as a result of performing math on two other columns. The source of those two columns is in our control so we can "guarantee" that numeric data will be returned. Also, the result is something that we simplay want to display on demand but not store yet. On the example below, is there a function that allow the 'total' column to be populated from the following calculation: 'amount' * 'tax' Example jqGrid javascript: jQuery("#list3").jqGrid({ url:'server.php?q=2', datatype: "json", colNames:['Inv No','Date', 'Client', 'Amount','Tax','Total','Notes'], colModel:[ {name:'id',index:'id', width:60, sorttype:"int"}, {name:'invdate',index:'invdate', width:90, sorttype:"date"}, {name:'name',index:'name', width:100}, {name:'amount',index:'amount', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'tax',index:'tax', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'total',index:'total', width:80,align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'note',index:'note', width:150, sortable:false} ], rowNum:20, rowList:[10,20,30], pager: '#pager3', sortname: 'id', viewrecords: true, sortorder: "desc", loadonce: true, caption: "Load Once Example" });

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• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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• How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

  - by Frerich Raabe

  I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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