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  • How do I specify the regular expression to disable the use of underscores after the '@' sign in php for email validation?

    - by Qlidnaque
    Currently the following email in the script validates even though there are no underscores indicated in the second part of the regular expression validation after the '@' sign. How do I make underscores invalid in the second part of the email? <?php $email = 'firstname.lastname@a_aa.bbb.co_m'; $regexp = "/^[^0-9][A-z0-9_]+([.][A-z0-9_]+)*[@][A-z0-9]+([.][A-z0-9]+)*[.][A-z]{2,4}$/"; if (preg_match($regexp, $email)) { echo "Email address is valid."; } else { echo "Email address is <u>not</u> valid."; } ?>

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  • MySQLi String comparisons using keys

    - by asdasd
    I have a table with lets say 2 columns. id number, and value. Value is a string (var char). Lets say i have a number x, and a list of numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5..... where x is not in the list. All of these numbers correspond to a unique row in the table. I want to know if the string value for x in the table is contained in one of the string values for any table entry for a1, a2, a3, a4... Lets say i have these rows: x, aaa a1, bbb a2, ccc a3, ddd a4, aaabbbcc then i want somehow a confirmation that yes, the value for x is included in one of the values in my list of numbers (a4 contains x). I know i can do this in a couple queries and shove it down some PHP and get my answer. But can i do this with one query?

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  • Reference to an instance method of a particular object

    - by Andrey
    In the following code, if i try to pass method reference using the class name, works. But passing the reference variable compiler gives an error, i do not understand why? public class User { private String name; public User(String name) { this.name = name; } public void printName() { System.out.println(name); } } public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { User u1 = new User("AAA"); User u2 = new User("BBB"); User u3 = new User("ZZZ"); List<User> userList = Arrays.asList(u1, u2, u3); userList.forEach(User::printName); // works userList.forEach(u1::printName); // compile error } } Thanks,

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  • Identifying when there is more than 1 in a group based on grouped field

    - by Brian Cascone
    Sorry for the bad description it is tough to explain in one sentence. I have a dataset that has Cause field (RootCause) and an ID field (GroupID). Both can be many things but I need to identify where a GroupID has a multiple different rootcauses. for example: RootCause GrpId AAA 111 BBB 222 CCC 111 I am looking to be able to identify that GrpId 111 has two different RootCauses. This is what I have so far: Select [RootCause], GrpId, Count(GrpID) as CntGrpId From DB.dbo.Table Where DatatypeField <> '' Group BY [RootCause],GrpId This results set visualy gives me enough information to identify what I am looking for, but i need something better. I am looking to return only the ones that have multiples. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How to foreach through a 2 dimensional array?

    - by Scott Langham
    If I've got a 2 dimensional array. string[,] table = { { "aa", "aaa" }, { "bb", "bbb" } }; And I'd like to foreach through it like this. foreach (string[] row in table) { Console.WriteLine(row[0] + " " + row[1]); } But, I get the error "Can't convert type string to string[] Is there a way I can achieve what I want, i.e. iterate through the first dimension of the array with the iterator variable returning me the 1 dimensional array for that row? Thanks.

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  • jquery elements by class

    - by tom
    Hi there im trying to get all dropdown lists by class and change their names, my code is not working, is there something i am missing? $(document).ready(function () { $('.mutuallyexclusive').live("click", function () { checkedState = $(this).attr('checked'); $('.mutuallyexclusive:checked').each(function () { $(this).attr('checked', false); $(this).attr('name', 'chk'); }); $(this).attr('checked', checkedState); if (checkedState) { var prev = $(this).prev('select').attr("name", 'cat.parent_id'); elements = $('select.selected'); elements.each(function () { $(this).attr("name", "bbb"); }); } else { var prev = $(this).prev('select').attr("name", 'dd'); } }); });

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  • MySQL, select from different table... IF

    - by gubbfett
    I'm having a small trouble since it was a long time ago i studies databases and querys. For example i'll have two tables for cd:s, one with data and one with alternative translations. In the CD-table i have the original language, and it looks something like this Table for CDs (cds): id | name | language ----------------------- 1 | aaa | en 2 | bbb | en 3 | ccc | fi Table for languages (languages): cd_id | language | name ----------------------- 1 | fi | AAA 1 | de | AAACHTUNG 3 | en | CCC Now, i want to get all these cd:s in for example german, if there's no translation made i want it to be in the original language... How can i do this?

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  • How to Creat custom content for nginx error 502 page, keep origin url on browser

    - by user123862
    i'm trying to get custom language and message for nginx error page but keep url on browser.. not success for eg: i go to url : xaluan.com/aaa/bbb.html on the time server down.. nginx will show error 502. with the same url but custom message as my language. test 1. I created a custom page at /usr/local/nginx/html/205.html as following config but it show on web site when error is default nginx error at domain.com/50.html ( the content of webpage not same as i created) error_page 502 /502.html; location = /502.html { root /usr/local/nginx/html; } test 2. Then i create same page at my www domain folder /home/xaluano/public_html/502.html but this keep redirect me to root domain.com/502.html the content now same as i created. but.. the url still not as i need error_page 502 /502.html; location = /502.html { root /home/xaluano/public_html; internal; } EDIT UPDATE for more detail 10/06/2012 please download my nginx config http://pastebin.com/7iLD6WQq and vhost config following: http://pastebin.com/ZZ91KiY6 == the case test.. if apache httpd service stop: #service httpd stop then open browser go to: xaluan.com/modules.php?name=News&file=article&sid=123456 I will see the 502 error with the same url on browser address == Custome error page I need the config which help when apache fail .. will show the custom message tell user wail for 1 minute for service back then refress current page with same url ( refresh I can do easy by javascript ), Nginx dosent change url so java-script can work out. any help will be great.. thank in advance

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  • How to create custom content for nginx error 502 page, keep origin url on browser

    - by user123862
    i'm trying to get custom language and message for nginx error page but keep url on browser.. not success for eg: i go to url : xaluan.com/aaa/bbb.html on the time server down.. nginx will show error 502. with the same url but custom message as my language. test 1. I created a custom page at /usr/local/nginx/html/205.html as following config but it show on web site when error is default nginx error at domain.com/50.html ( the content of webpage not same as i created) error_page 502 /502.html; location = /502.html { root /usr/local/nginx/html; } test 2. Then i create same page at my www domain folder /home/xaluano/public_html/502.html but this keep redirect me to root domain.com/502.html the content now same as i created. but.. the url still not as i need error_page 502 /502.html; location = /502.html { root /home/xaluano/public_html; internal; } EDIT UPDATE for more detail 10/06/2012 please download my nginx config http://pastebin.com/7iLD6WQq and vhost config following: http://pastebin.com/ZZ91KiY6 == the case test.. if apache httpd service stop: #service httpd stop then open browser go to: xaluan.com/modules.php?name=News&file=article&sid=123456 I will see the 502 error with the same url on browser address == Custome error page I need the config which help when apache fail .. will show the custom message tell user wail for 1 minute for service back then refress current page with same url ( refresh I can do easy by javascript ), Nginx dosent change url so java-script can work out. any help will be great.. thank in advance

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  • How is a subdomain passed to the webserver?

    - by Joshua Frank
    I know that dns resolves an address like example.com to an IP address like 11.22.33.44, but I'm a little confused about how subdomains are resolved, so that when you type http://subdomain.example.com, what actually gets passed to the server at 11.22.33.44? In other words, example.com = 11.22.33.44, but subdomain.example.com/path = ??? Are "subdomain" and "path" passed as http headers, or mapped in the url in some way, or what? Thanks in advance. Edit: If I'm understanding correctly, BloodPhilia says that subdomain.example.com actually is a different domain that in principle could resolve to a totally different IP. But if that's so, then what about hosts that have huge numbers of (what look like) subdomains, but which actually map to some path on the site. For instance, blogspot hosts millions of blogs, and they all look like this: aaa.blogspot.com bbb.blogspot.com ...millions more... yyy.blogspot.com zzz.blogspot.com Those are clearly not subdomains with their own IP's, but rather some mapping like aaa.blogspot.com -- www.blogspot.com/aaa, but how is this accomplished? What actually gets passed to the web server at blogspot.com?

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  • How to create a new background process in a KSH "while read" loop?

    - by yael
    The following test script has a problem. When I add the line (sleep 5 ) & in the script then the "while read" loop does not read all lines from the file, but only prints the first line. But when I remove the ( sleep 5 ) & from the script, then the script prints all lines as defined in the file. Why the ( sleep 5 ) & causes this? And how to solve the problem? I want to create a new process (for which the sleep is just an example) in the while loop: $ more test #!/bin/ksh while read -r line ; do echo Read a line: echo $line ( sleep 5 )& RESULT=$! echo Started background sleep with process id $RESULT sleep 1 echo Slept for a second kill $RESULT echo Killed background sleep with process id $RESULT done < file echo Completed On my Linux, when using the following contents of file: $ more file 123 aaa 234 bbb 556 ccc ...running ./test just gives me: Read a line: 123 aaa Started background sleep with process id 4181 Slept for a second Killed background sleep with process id 4181 Completed

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  • jquery ui slider IE7 bug...

    - by Reigel
    When you are holding the handles to slide them the width of the range blows out to 100% width, but snaps back to the width it's supposed to be once you release the handle. jQuery 1.4.2 UI 1.8.2 please help jQuery if ($("#topImageSlider").length){ var max = 120; var initialValue = 40; function refreshValue(){ //$('#sliderValue .current').text($("#topImageSlider").slider("value")); $('#sliderValue .current').text($('.ui-slider-range').width()); } $("#topImageSlider").slider({ orientation: 'horizontal', range: "min", max: max, min: 1, value: initialValue, slide: refreshValue, change: refreshValue }).after('<div id="sliderValue"><span class="current">'+ initialValue +'</span> / <span class="max">'+ max +'</span></div>'); } css #topImageSlider, #sliderValue { margin: 0 auto; width: 572px; text-align: center; } #topImageSlider { margin-top: 20px; background: url(../img/bg/slider.png) no-repeat; height: 5px; } #topImageSlider .ui-slider-range { background: url(../img/bg/slider-progress.gif) repeat-x; left: 2px; height: 5px; } #topImageSlider .ui-slider-handle { background: url(../img/btn/slider-handle.png) no-repeat; width: 24px; height: 24px; top: -8px; outline: 0; cursor: pointer; z-index: 999; } #sliderValue { margin-top: 10px; color: #bbb; font-weight: bold; } #sliderValue .current { color: #ff6e0d; }

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  • Pass table as parameter to SQLCLR TV-UDF

    - by Skeolan
    We have a third-party DLL that can operate on a DataTable of source information and generate some useful values, and we're trying to hook it up through SQLCLR to be callable as a table-valued UDF in SQL Server 2008. Taking the concept here one step further, I would like to program a CLR Table-Valued Function that operates on a table of source data from the DB. I'm pretty sure I understand what needs to happen on the T-SQL side of things; but, what should the method signature look like in the .NET (C#) code? What would be the parameter datatype for "table data from SQL Server?" e.g. /* Setup */ CREATE TYPE InTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), Lat FLOAT, Lon FLOAT) GO CREATE TYPE OutTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), NeighborName VARCHAR(50), Distance FLOAT) GO CREATE ASSEMBLY myCLRAssembly FROM 'D:\assemblies\myCLR_UDFs.dll' WITH PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS GO CREATE FUNCTION GetDistances(@locations InTableType) RETURNS OutTableType AS EXTERNAL NAME myCLRAssembly.GeoDistance.SQLCLRInitMethod GO /* Execution */ DECLARE @myTable InTableType INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('aaa', -50.0, -20.0) INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('bbb', -20.0, -50.0) SELECT * FROM @myTable DECLARE @myResult OutTableType INSERT INTO @myResult MyCLRTVFunction @myTable --returns a table result calculated using the input The lat/lon - distance thing is a silly example that should of course be better handled entirely in SQL; but I hope it illustrates the general intent of table-in - table-out through a table-valued UDF tied to a SQLCLR assembly. I am not certain this is possible; what would the SQLCLRInitMethod method signature look like in the C#? public class GeoDistance { [SqlFunction(FillRowMethodName = "FillRow")] public static IEnumerable SQLCLRInitMethod(<appropriateType> myInputData) { //... } public static void FillRow(...) { //... } } If it's not possible, I know I can use a "context connection=true" SQL connection within the C# code to have the CLR component query for the necessary data given the relevant keys; but that's sensitive to changes in the DB schema. So I hope to just have SQL bundle up all the source data and pass it to the function. Bonus question - assuming this works at all, would it also work with more than one input table?

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  • How to get a TextBlock to wrap text inside a DockPanel area?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    What do I have to do to get the inner TextBlock below to wrap its text without defining an absolute width? I've tried Width=Auto, Stretch, TextWrapping, putting it in a StackPanel, nothing seems to work. XAML: <UserControl x:Class="Test5.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:tk="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Toolkit" Width="800" Height="600"> <tk:DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <StackPanel tk:DockPanel.Dock="Top" Width="Auto" Height="50" Background="#eee"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding TopContent}"/> </StackPanel> <StackPanel tk:DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" Background="#bbb" Width="Auto" Height="50"> <TextBlock Text="bottom area"/> </StackPanel> <StackPanel tk:DockPanel.Dock="Right" Background="#ccc" Width="200" Height="Auto"> <TextBlock Text="info panel"/> </StackPanel> <StackPanel tk:DockPanel.Dock="Left" Background="#ddd" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <ScrollViewer HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" Padding="10" BorderThickness="0" Width="Auto" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <tk:DockPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="Auto" > <StackPanel tk:DockPanel.Dock="Top" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <Button Content="Add More" Click="Button_Click"/> </StackPanel> <TextBlock tk:DockPanel.Dock="Top" Text="{Binding MainContent}" Width="Auto" TextWrapping="Wrap" /> </tk:DockPanel> </ScrollViewer> </StackPanel> </tk:DockPanel> </UserControl>

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  • Unable to read in my custom .config section

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, NOTE: this is very very similar to this SO question, but I need some more help. i'm trying to make the following section in my .config file, but i get an exception when trying to access this section. .config file <configSections> <section name="foos" type="Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foo.FooCollection, Ackbar.Mvc" requirePermission="false"/> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <foos> <add name="aaa" something="zzz"/> <add name="bbb" something="yyy"/> <add name="ccc" something="xxx"/> </foos> Ok, so this means i need to make two classes classes public class FooCollection : ConfigurationElementCollection { ... with my custom overrides, etc. ... } and public class FooElement : ConfigurationElement { [ConfigurationProperty("Name", IsRequired = true)] public string Name { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("Something ", IsRequired = true)] public string Something { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("IsDefault ", IsRequired = false, DefaultValue = false)] public bool IsDefault { .. } } Kewl. Now, when i do the following .... var whatever = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("foos") is throws the following exception :- An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for foos: Type 'Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foos.FooCollection' does not inherit from 'System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler'. Can someone please help me? I don't want to wrap the collection INSIDE a parent section. Cheers :)

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  • Java to JavaScript (Encryption related)

    - by balexandre
    Hi guys, I'm having difficulties to get the same string in Javascript and I'm thinking that I'm doing something wrong... Java code: import java.io.UnsupportedEncodingException; import java.security.MessageDigest; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.util.Date; import java.util.GregorianCalendar; import sun.misc.BASE64Encoder; private static String getBase64Code(String input) throws UnsupportedEncodingException, NoSuchAlgorithmException { String base64 = ""; byte[] txt = input.getBytes("UTF8"); byte[] text = new byte[txt.length+3]; text[0] = (byte)239; text[1] = (byte)187; text[2] = (byte)191; for(int i=0; i<txt.length; i++) text[i+3] = txt[i]; MessageDigest md = MessageDigest.getInstance("MD5"); md.update(text); byte digest[] = md.digest(); BASE64Encoder encoder = new BASE64Encoder(); base64 = encoder.encode(digest); return base64; } I'm trying this using Paj's MD5 script as well Farhadi Base 64 Encode script but my tests fail completely :( my code: function CalculateCredentialsSecret(type, user, pwd) { var days = days_between(new Date(), new Date(2000, 1, 1)); var str = type.toUpperCase() + user.toUpperCase() + pwd.toUpperCase() + days; var md5 = hex_md5(str); var b64 = base64Encode(md5); return encodeURIComponent(b64); } Does anyone know how can I convert this Java method into a Javascript one? Thank you Tests (for today, 3740 days after January 1st, 2000 var secret = CalculateCredentialsSecret('AAA', 'BBB', 'CCC'); // secret SHOULD be: S3GYAfGWlmrhuoNsIJF94w==

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  • How to get XML element/attribute name in SQL Server 2005

    - by OG Dude
    Hi, I have a simple procedure in SQL Server 2005 which takes some XML as input. The element attributes correspond to field names in tables. I'd like to be able to determine <elementName>, <attribNameX> dynamically as to avoid having to hardcode them into the procedure. How can I do this? The XML looks like this: <ROOT> <elementName attribName1 = "xxx" attribName2 = "yyy"/> <elementName attribName1 = "aaa" attribName2 = "bbb"/> ... </ROOT> The stored procedure like this: CREATE PROC dbo.myProc ( @XMLInput varchar(1000) ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @XMLDocHandle int EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @XMLDocHandle OUTPUT, @XMLInput SELECT someTable.someCol FROM dbo.someTable JOIN OPENXML (@XMLDocHandle, '/ROOT/elementName',1) WITH (attrib1Name int, attrib2Name int) AS XMLData ON someTable.attribName1 = XMLData.attribName1 AND someTable.attribName2 = XMLData.attribName2 EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @XMLDocHandle END GO The question has been asked here before but maybe there is a cleaner solution. Additionally, I'd like to pass the tablename as a parameter as well - I read some stuff arguing that this is bad style - so what would be a good solution for having a dynamic tablename? Thanks a lot in advance, /David

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  • Starting a process in one HTTP call and getting results in another

    - by KillianDS
    Hi, I'm writing a very simple testing framework for my application, the design isn't perfect, but I don't have time to write something more complex. Essentially, I have a client and server-application, on my server I want a small python web server to start the server application with given test sequences on a GET or POST call. Also, the application prints some testdata to stderr which I'd like to catch and return in another HTTP call. At the moment I have this: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer p = None class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): global p if self.path.endswith("start/"): p = Popen(["./bin/Release/simplex264","BBB-360","127.0.0.1"], stderr=PIPE) print 'started' return elif self.path.endswith("getResults/"): self.wfile.write(p.stderr.read()) return self.send_error(404,'File Not Found: %s' % self.path) def main(): try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 9876), MyHandler) print 'Started server...' server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print 'Shutting down...' server.socket.close() if __name__ == '__main__': main() Which 'works', except for one part, when I try to open http://localhost:9876/start/, it does not return before the process ended. However, the 'started' appears in my shell immediately (I added this because I thought the Popen call would only return after execution). I do not know the perfect inner workings of Popen and BaseHTTPRequestHandler however and do not really know where it goes wrong. Is there any way to make this work asynchronously?

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  • [F#] Parallelize code in nested loops

    - by Juliet
    You always hear that functional code is inherently easier to parallelize than non-functional code, so I decided to write a function which does the following: Given a input of strings, total up the number of unique characters for each string. So, given the input [ "aaaaa"; "bbb"; "ccccccc"; "abbbc" ], our method will returns a: 6; b: 6; c: 8. Here's what I've written: (* seq<#seq<char>> -> Map<char,int> *) let wordFrequency input = input |> Seq.fold (fun acc text -> (* This inner loop can be processed on its own thread *) text |> Seq.choose (fun char -> if Char.IsLetter char then Some(char) else None) |> Seq.fold (fun (acc : Map<_,_>) item -> match acc.TryFind(item) with | Some(count) -> acc.Add(item, count + 1) | None -> acc.Add(item, 1)) acc ) Map.empty This code is ideally parallelizable, because each string in input can be processed on its own thread. Its not as straightforward as it looks since the innerloop adds items to a Map shared between all of the inputs. I'd like the inner loop factored out into its own thread, and I don't want to use any mutable state. How would I re-write this function using an Async workflow?

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  • Jquery set tr with empty td lower than with text in td

    - by PavelBY
    I have html, and jquery for sorting my table (also there is non-standart sorting (with multi-tbody)). My code could be found here: http://jsfiddle.net/GuRxj/ As you can see there, td with prices (on russian ????) are sorted ascending (but tech-as not!? why? (it a question too))... But as you see, i need to send this tr's with prices to top of this tbody (now there are in the bottom), while empty-price-tr send to bottom... How to do this? part of js: $('.prcol').click(function(e) { var $sort = this; var $table = $('#articles-table'); var $rows = $('tbody.analogs_art > tr',$table); $rows.sort(function(a, b){ var keyA = $('td:eq(3)',a).text(); var keyB = $('td:eq(3)',b).text(); if (keyA.length > 0 && keyB.length > 0) { if($($sort).hasClass('asc')){ console.log("bbb"); return (keyA > keyB) ? 1 : 0; } else { console.log(keyA+"-"+keyB); return (keyA > keyB) ? 1 : 0; } } }); $.each($rows, function(index, row){ //console.log(row); $table.append(row); //$("table.123").append(row); }); e.preventDefault(); });

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  • How to bind an ADF Table on button click

    - by Juan Manuel Formoso
    Coming from ASP.NET I'm having a hard time with basic ADF concepts. I need to bind a table on a button click, and for some reason I don't understand (I'm leaning towards page life cycle, which I guess is different from ASP.NET) it's not working. This is my ADF code: <af:commandButton text="#{viewcontrollerBundle.CMD_SEARCH}" id="cmdSearch" action="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.cmdSearch_click}" partialSubmit="true"/> <af:table var="row" rowBandingInterval="0" id="t1" value="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.transactionList}" partialTriggers="::cmdSearch" binding="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.table}"> <af:column sortable="false" headerText="idTransaction" id="c2"> <af:outputText value="#{row.idTransaction}" id="ot4"/> </af:column> <af:column sortable="false" headerText="referenceCode" id="c5"> <af:outputText value="#{row.referenceCode}" id="ot7"/> </af:column> </af:table> This is cmdSearch_click: public String cmdSearch_click() { List l = new ArrayList(); Transaction t = new Transaction(); t.setIdTransaction(BigDecimal.valueOf(1)); t.setReferenceCode("AAA"); l.add(t); t = new Transaction(); t.setIdTransaction(BigDecimal.valueOf(2)); t.setReferenceCode("BBB"); l.add(t); setTransactionList(l); // AdfFacesContext.getCurrentInstance().addPartialTarget(table); return null; } The commented line also doesn't work. If I populate the list on my Bean's constructor, the table renders ok. Any ideas?

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  • SQLite transaction doesn't work as expected

    - by troll
    I prepared 2 files, "1.php" and "2.php". "1.php" is like this. <?php $dbh = new PDO('sqlite:test1'); $dbh->beginTransaction(); print "aaa<br>"; sleep(55); $dbh->commit(); print "bbb"; ?> and "2.php" is like this. <?php $dbh = new PDO('sqlite:test1'); $dbh->beginTransaction(); print "ccc<br>"; $dbh->commit(); print "ddd"; ?> and I excute "1.php". It starts a transaction and waits 55 seconds. So when I immediately excute "2.php", my expectation is this: "1.php" is getting transaction and "1" holds a database lock "2" can not begin a transaction "2" can not get database lock so "2" have to wait 55 seconds BUT, but the test went another way. When I excute "2",then "2" immediately returned it's result "2" did not wait so I have to think that "1" could not get transaction, or could not get database lock. Can anyone help?

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  • error message The URI does not identify an external Java class

    - by iHeartGreek
    Hi! I am new to XSL, and thus new to using scripts within the XSL. I have taken example code (also using C#) and adapted it for my own use.. but it does not work. The error message is: The URI urn:cs-scripts does not identify an external Java class The relevant code I have is: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:strTok="urn:cs-scripts"> ... ... ... </xsl:template> <xsl:variable name="temp"> <xsl:value-of select="tok:getList('AAA BBB CCC', ' ')"/> </xsl:variable> <msxsl:script language="C#" implements-prefix="tok"> <![CDATA[ public string[] getList(string str, char[] delim) { return str.Split(delim, StringSplitOptions.None); } public string getString(string[] list, int i) { return list[i]; } ]]> </msxsl:script> </xsl:stylesheet>

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  • Passing HTML form data in the URL on local machine (file://)

    - by atzz
    Hi, I'm building a small HTML/JS application for primary use on local machine (i.e. everything is accessed via file:// protocol, though maybe in the future it will be hosted on a server within intranet). I'm trying to make a form with method="get" and action="target.html", in the hope that the browser will put form data in the URL (like, file://<path>/target.html?param1=aaa&param2=bbb). However, it's not happening (target.html opens fine, but no parameters is passed). What am I doing wrong? Is it possible to use forms over file:// at all? I can always build the url manually (via JS), but being lazy I'd prefer the browser do it for me. ;) Here is my sample form: <form name='config' action="test_form.html" method="get" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded"> <input type="text" name="param1"> <input type="text" name="param2"> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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  • The Cindy Shearin Group: New Scam Targets Renters in the Area

    - by user226089
    MONROE - Craigslist is a popular site when trying to find that perfect deal on a rental home or apartment. Experts warn some of these rental ads aren't what they seem. We decided to take a look. On our Craigslist search we found this house for rent. The problem is this home’s not for rent - it's for sale. “I think it’s a huge deal,” said Shane Wooten, the realtor for this home in Monroe. His properties have become the target of a common scam, aimed at taking your money. "It looks like they're trying to scam them out of their deposit and first months rent," adds Wooten. He says scammers copy and paste the sale ad's from legitimate realtor sites to Craigslist as rental ads. "I can usually tell when one hits craigslist because I’ll usually get 20 to 30 phone calls that day." They then pretend to be out of town on business or personal matters, and give only an email address as a point of contact. Usually they'll ask for money up front on a deal too good to miss. "You'll have a house that's supposed to rent for $950-1000 a month, and they'll have it renting for $600 a month,” says Wooten During our conversation, he shows us text messages from one scammer who says he'll mail the keys to this house if Wooten wires money for a deposit and first months rent. Jo Ann Deal of the Better Business Bureau says scammers are getting better at making themselves out to be realtors. "We’re really concerned for our real estate agents with this scam," says Deal. She says that realtors have to be more on top of their vacant homes in order to protect their businesses. So how can you tell if the house you want is really for rent? She says if the home owner lives out of the country, can't meet face to face or asks for a payment through a money wire it's probably a scam. “There are some catch-lines you watch for,” says Deal. “If the marketing is really good but there's no phone number, no physical address and they will communicate with you only by email and you can do it today, then it's probably a scam." You should always report fishy ad's to Craigslist or the BBB and never send money through a wire transfer.

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