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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • Linking Mapkit with Core Data, Search and user location. Converting annotations from a database in a tableview with search to display in a mapview?

    - by Jon
    Xcode is quite new to me so explanations are appreciated. I am looking to build an application that displays annotations in a mapview (zoomed in on current user location). I want the applications to come from some sort of database rather than manually inputting all the annotations (which is what I'm currently doing) What would be my application type? tab based? window based? i want a tab for a tableview with a list of my annotations and a mapview tab that will show my database of annotations but with the map zoomed in on current location. In a perfect world, it would be great if the user could add favourites from these annotations and keep them in a favourites tableview tab. I'm desperate to work this out and create a fully functional app for a final uni project. i have a working application already but it's nothing like what i am trying to achieve, any help would be much appreciated!!!! Jon (if looked through countless tutorials and as of yet found nothing i can understand to achieve a project like this. Some would call me too ambitious, I just want to make a decent app)

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  • Importing from referenced assembly - MEF

    - by cmaduro
    I have the following simplified code: namespace Silverbits.Applications { public partial class SilverbitsApplication : Application { [Import("MainPage")] public UserControl MainPage { get { return RootVisual as UserControl; } set { RootVisual = value; } } public SilverbitsApplication() { this.Startup += this.SilverbitsApplication_StartUp; this.Exit += new EventHandler(SilverbitsApplication_Exit); this.UnhandledException += this.SilverbitsApplication_UnhandledException; InitializeComponent(); } private void SilverbitsApplication_StartUp(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { CompositionInitializer.SatisfyImports(this); } } namespace Manpower4U { public class App : SilverbitsApplication { public App() : base() { } } } namespace Manpower4U { [Export("MainPage")] public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } } } The idea is that I have a Silverbits Library which is a completely different solution. And I have Manpower4U silverlight application that references my Silverbits library. I want to export MainPage from Manpower4U and set it to the RootVisual in my SilverbitsApplication class. SilverbitsApplication class is basically App.xaml/App.cs from the silverlight application, only I put it in a class library and subclassed App.cs file in Manpower4U, which is now the entry point of Manpower4U. MEF cannot resolve the import. How do I get this to work?

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  • How to use Data aware controls "correctly"?

    - by lyborko
    Hi, I would like to ask experienced users, if you prefer to use data aware controls to add, insert, delete and edit data in DB or you favor to do it manualy. I developed some DB applications, in which for the sake of "user friendly policy" I run into complicated web of table events (afterinsert, afteredit, after... and beforeedit, beforeinsert, before...). After that it was a quite nasty work to debug the application. Aware of this risk (later by another application) I tried to avoid this problem, so I paid increased attention to write code well, readable and comprehensive. It seemed everything all right from the beginning, but as I needed to handle some preprocessing stuff before sending and loading data etc, I run into the same problems again, "slowly and inevitably". Sometime I could not use dataaware controls anyway, and what seemed to be a "cool" feature of DAControl at the beginning it turned to an obstacle on the end. I "had to" write special routine for non-dataaware controls, in order to behave as dataaware. Then I asked myself, why on earth should I use dataaware controls? Is it better to found application architecture on non-dataaware controls? It requires more time to write bug-proof code, of course, but does it worth of it? I do not know... I happened to me several times, like jinxed : paradise on the beginning hell on the end... I do not know, if I use wrong method to write DB program, if there is some standard common practice how to proceed. Or if it is common problem to everybody? Thanx for advices and your experiences

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  • Is this a good job description? What title would you give this position?

    - by Zack Peterson
    Department: Information Technology Reports To: Chief Information Officer Purpose: Company's ________________ is specifically engaged in the development of World Wide Web applications and distributed network applications. This person is concerned with all facets of the software development process and specializes in software product management. He or she contributes to projects in an application architect role and also performs individual programming tasks. Essential Duties & Responsibilities: This person is involved in all aspects of the software development process such as: Participation in software product definitions, including requirements analysis and specification Development and refinement of simulations or prototypes to confirm requirements Feasibility and cost-benefit analysis, including the choice of architecture and framework Application and database design Implementation (e.g. installation, configuration, customization, integration, data migration) Authoring of documentation needed by users and partners Testing, including defining/supporting acceptance testing and gathering feedback from pre-release testers Participation in software release and post-release activities, including support for product launch evangelism (e.g. developing demonstrations and/or samples) and subsequent product build/release cycles Maintenance Qualifications: Bachelor's degree in computer science or software engineering Several years of professional programming experience Proficiency in the general technology of the World Wide Web: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) JavaScript Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) Proficiency in the following principles, practices, and techniques: Accessibility Interoperability Usability Security (especially prevention of SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks) Object-oriented programming (e.g. encapsulation, inheritance, modularity, polymorphism, etc.) Relational database design (e.g. normalization, orthogonality) Search engine optimization (SEO) Asynchronous JavaScript and XML (AJAX) Proficiency in the following specific technologies utilized by Company: C# or Visual Basic .NET ADO.NET (including ADO.NET Entity Framework) ASP.NET (including ASP.NET MVC Framework) Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) Language Integrated Query (LINQ) Extensible Application Markup Language (XAML) jQuery Transact-SQL (T-SQL) Microsoft Visual Studio Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) Microsoft SQL Server Adobe Photoshop

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  • Memory Leak Looping cfmodule inside cffunction

    - by orangepips
    Hoping someone else can confirm or tell me what I'm doing wrong. I am able to consistently reproduce an OOM running by calling the file oom.cfm (shown below). Using jconsole I am able to see the request consumes memory and never releases it until complete. The issue appears to be calling <cfmodule> inside of <cffunction>, where if I comment out the <cfmodule> call things are garbage collected while the request is running. ColdFusion version: 9,0,1,274733 JVM Arguments java.home=C:/Program Files/Java/jdk1.6.0_18 java.args=-server -Xms768m -Xmx768m -Dsun.io.useCanonCaches=false -XX:MaxPermSize=512m -XX:+UseParallelGC -Xbatch -Dcoldfusion.rootDir={application.home}/ -Djava.security.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/coldfusion.policy -Djava.security.auth.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/neo_jaas.policy -Xdebug -Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,server=y,suspend=n,address=56033 Test Case oom.cfm (this calls template.cfm below) <cffunction name="fun" output="false" access="public" returntype="any" hint=""> <cfset var local = structNew()/> <!--- comment out cfmodule and no OOM ---> <cfmodule template="template.cfm"> </cffunction> <cfset size = 1000 * 200> <cfloop from="1" to="#size#" index="idx"> <cfset fun()> <cfif NOT idx mod 1000> <cflog file="se-err" text="#idx# of #size#"> </cfif> </cfloop> template.cfm <!--- I am empty! --->

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  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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  • Flex 4 - Highlight keywords in a block of text using TextLine

    - by Baz
    I have a search and results page that I would like to highlight the keywords that were searched for, in the text of the results. It was suggested that I use TextLine for this, but I am having trouble figuring out how to make it work. I started a simple, compilable dummy application and was hoping someone could give me some tips on how to continue: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" initialize="initApp();"> <fx:Script> import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.text.engine.*; private var textLine:TextLine; private function initApp():void { var normalFormat:ElementFormat = new ElementFormat(null, 12, 0x000000); var highlightFormat:ElementFormat = new ElementFormat(null, 14, 0xff0000); var textBlock:TextBlock = new TextBlock(new TextElement("This is text that has KEYWORDS. I would like to highlight these KEYWORDS by changing their font color and adding a light yellow background graphic.", normalFormat)); textLine = textBlock.createTextLine(); textLine.y = 100; embeddedFontHolder.addChild(textLine); } </fx:Script> <mx:UIComponent width="100%" id="embeddedFontHolder" /> </s:Application> Anyone have any ideas? Cheers, Baz

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  • Relative Paths in .htaccess, how to attach to a variable?

    - by devians
    I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome.

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  • Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

    - by Sam
    I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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  • Why are Managed Beans not loaded in Tomcat?

    - by c0d3x
    Hi, I created a JSF 2 web application with facelets. The libs for JSF where stored at tomcat/lib, to share it between several applications. I thought maybe it would be better to store the libs inside the WEB-INF/lib folder of the application, to get the application more independent from server configurations. Now when I start tomcat via eclipse, the managed beans are loaded and working. But when I start tomcat directly / standalone the managed beans are not loaded automatically. I used @ManagedBean @SessionScoped / @RequestScoped annotations to declare classes as managed beans. Why is this? What can I do to fix it? I don't use any faces-config.xml file yet. Thanks in advance. edited: Maybe this helps to see whats going on: javax.el.PropertyNotFoundException: /Artikel.xhtml @12,108 value="#{artikelBackingBean.nameFilterPattern}": Target Unreachable, identifier 'artikelBackingBean' resolved to null at com.sun.faces.facelets.el.TagValueExpression.getType(TagValueExpression.java:93) at com.sun.faces.renderkit.html_basic.HtmlBasicInputRenderer.getConvertedValue(HtmlBasicInputRenderer.java:95) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.getConvertedValue(UIInput.java:1008) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.validate(UIInput.java:934) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.executeValidate(UIInput.java:1189) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.processValidators(UIInput.java:691) at javax.faces.component.UIForm.processValidators(UIForm.java:243) at javax.faces.component.UIComponentBase.processValidators(UIComponentBase.java:1080) at javax.faces.component.UIViewRoot.processValidators(UIViewRoot.java:1180) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ProcessValidationsPhase.execute(ProcessValidationsPhase.java:76) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.Phase.doPhase(Phase.java:101) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:118) at javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet.service(FacesServlet.java:312) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.authenticator.AuthenticatorBase.invoke(AuthenticatorBase.java:433) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:293) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:849) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:454) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619)

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  • Play youtube video in full screen ?

    - by Madhup
    Hi all, First of all sorry, If somebody finds this question is repeated (haven't found any by myself). I am developing for an iPad application and trying to play youtube videos using this code: NSString *embedHTML = @"\ <html><head>\ <style type=\"text/css\">\ body {\ background-color: transparent;\ color: white;\ }\ </style>\ </head><body style=\"margin:0\">\ <embed id=\"yt\" src=\"%@\" type=\"application/x-shockwave-flash\" \ width=\"%0.0f\" height=\"%0.0f\"></embed>\ </body></html>"; NSString *html = [NSString stringWithFormat:embedHTML, youTubeUrl, 142.0, 129.5]; [wbView loadHTMLString:html baseURL:nil]; The code works fine when used in an iphone application (i.e. you touch on the webview and it starts playing the youtube video in fullscreen.) But when used in the iPad, on clicking the web view it starts playing the video in the web view itself and shows options to go to full screen, while I want to start the playback in the full screen from the beginning, like it does in the iPhone. Anybody having some ideas or people who have done it before please help. Thanks, Madhup

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  • How to optimize an asp.net spawning a new process for each request ?

    - by Recycle Bin
    I have an asp.net mvc application that spawns a Process as follows: Process p = new Process(); p.EnableRaisingEvents = true; p.Exited += new EventHandler(p_Exited); p.StartInfo.Arguments = "-interaction=nonstopmode " + inputpath; p.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = dir; p.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; p.StartInfo.FileName = "pdflatex.exe"; p.StartInfo.LoadUserProfile = true; p.Start(); p.WaitForExit(); Before going further, I need to know whether, e.g., pdflatex.exe is a managed code or a native code? Edit I need to consider this because: (Hopely I am not wrong...) Each Asp.net application runs in an separate/isolated AppDomain as opposed to a separate/isolated process. A native executable cannot live in an AppDomain. to be continued... Shortly speaking, I hope my site does not spawn a new process for each request. Because a process is more expensive than an application domain.

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  • Programming Concepts: What should be done when an exception is thrown?

    - by Dooms101
    This does not really apply to any language specifically, but if it matters I am using VB.NET in Visual Studio 2008. I can't seem to find anything really that useful using Google about this topic, but I was wondering what is common practice when an exception is thrown and caught but since it has been thrown the application cannot continue operating. For example I have exceptions that are thrown by my FileLoader class when a file cannot be found or when a file is deemed corrupt. The exception is only thrown within the class and is not handled really. If the error is detected, then the exception is thrown and whatever function is was thrown is basically quits. So in the code trying to create that object or call one of its members I use a Try...Catch statement. However, I was wondering, what should even do when this exception is caught? My application needs these files to be intact, and if they are not, the application is almost useless. So far I just pop up a message box telling the user their is an error and to reinstall. What else can I do, or better, what's common practice in these situations?

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  • My android tests don't get internet access!

    - by Malachii
    The subject says it all. My application gets internet access thanks to the android.permission.INTERNET permission, but my test cases don't while using the instrumentation test runner. This means I can't test my server IO routines in my test cases. What's up? Here's my manifest in case it helps you. Thanks! Sorry about the lack of indents - could not get it working on short notice with this site. Thanks! <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.example.helloandroid" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <uses-library android:name="android.test.runner" /> <activity android:name=".HelloAndroid" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="2" /> <instrumentation android:name="android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner" android:targetPackage="qnext.mobile.redirect" android:label="Qnext Redirect Tests" /> </manifest>

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  • Message queue proxy in Python + Twisted

    - by gasper_k
    Hi, I want to implement a lightweight Message Queue proxy. It's job is to receive messages from a web application (PHP) and send them to the Message Queue server asynchronously. The reason for this proxy is that the MQ isn't always avaliable and is sometimes lagging, or even down, but I want to make sure the messages are delivered, and the web application returns immediately. So, PHP would send the message to the MQ proxy running on the same host. That proxy would save the messages to SQLite for persistence, in case of crashes. At the same time it would send the messages from SQLite to the MQ in batches when the connection is available, and delete them from SQLite. Now, the way I understand, there are these components in this service: message listener (listens to the messages from PHP and writes them to a Incoming Queue) DB flusher (reads messages from the Incoming Queue and saves them to a database; due to SQLite single-threadedness) MQ connection handler (keeps the connection to the MQ server online by reconnecting) message sender (collects messages from SQlite db and sends them to the MQ server, then removes them from db) I was thinking of using Twisted for #1 (TCPServer), but I'm having problem with integrating it with other points, which aren't event-driven. Intuition tells me that each of these points should be running in a separate thread, because all are IO-bound and independent of each other, but I could easily put them in a single thread. Even though, I couldn't find any good and clear (to me) examples on how to implement this worker thread aside of Twisted's main loop. The example I've started with is the chatserver.py, which uses service.Application and internet.TCPServer objects. If I start my own thread prior to creating TCPServer service, it runs a few times, but the it stops and never runs again. I'm not sure, why this is happening, but it's probably because I don't use threads with Twisted correctly. Any suggestions on how to implement a separate worker thread and keep Twisted? Do you have any alternative architectures in mind?

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  • How do I design a Wizard-based system with SoC in mind?

    - by Erik Forbes
    I'm building a Windows Forms system (in C# if it matters to anyone) that provides an application automation service. As this application is targeted at users who are not computer savvy, I've decided to break up the functions of the application into various tasks, and provide these tasks via a wizard UI. I'd like to avoid coupling the views and view engine (from which the Wizard will be built) to the automation engine. The problem I'm having is that the automation engine, which runs on a separate thread while it does its thing, needs to report status information back to the user, as well as listen for cancel or pause events from the user. Since I don't want the view engine or the automation engine to rely on each other, I'm having a hard time figuring out how to provide for this information conduit. Any insights into this issue I'm having would be greatly appreciated. I've been wracking my brain for a couple weeks now on this point, and I really don't want to give up and just couple everything together. If anyone needs additional details to help come up with some sort of idea please let me know and I'll be happy to provide them.

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  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

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  • Simulating mouse clicks on Mac OS X does not work for some applications.

    - by Thomi
    I'm writing an application for Mac OS X 10.6 and later in C++. One part of the application needs to simulate mouse movement and mouse clicks. I do this currently by posting CGEvent objects using CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event);. This works, for the most part - I can simulate mouse movement and clicks just fine, but it seems to fail in some areas. For example: In Mozilla Firefox and Safari, I can click on all the menus, but cannot click on a link within a website. When I try, the link is highlighted, but the browser never follows the link. However, I can right-click on a link, select "open link in new tab", and everything works as expected. Solved - creating the mouse event using CGEventCreateMouseEvent(...) makes the event work within web browser. I can click on the "Dashboard" icon to brink up the dashboard, but I cannot click on the "i" button on any of the dashboard widgets. Similarly, clicking on any of the search results from the spotlight search widget doesn't work either. This inconsistency is along application boundaries. What might be the cause?

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  • Webcam video stream processing.

    - by vikramtheone
    Hi Guys, I'm working with an image processing project, my final goal is to detect features on a real time video and finally track those features. I will be working with an Embedded Processor Platform called Freescale's i.MX515, it is a 32-bit media processor running on Ubuntu 9.04. Right now I'm working on the algorithms to locate the features, so, I'm using still images. When I'm satisfied with the results I will have to start using a video stream and I don't want to make use of a video file as a source stream, because then I will have to worry about video decoders then. Instead I would like to plug in a USB Wecam to the embedded platform (It has USB ports on it), directly take the frames as they are captured and send it to my application. I will take care to buy a webcam which will be supported in Linux (Device driver). But my question is will I be able to capture the incoming video stream from the webcam and send it to my application? Will I be able to configure the webcam and DMA to write the incoming frames in a particular memory location whose pointer I can simply pass to my application? (Confused!!!) I hope I could convey my doubts, can anyone guide me with what steps that I have to take to achieve all of these easily? Do you foresee any impossibility here? Help!!! Regards Vikram

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  • Why does my iOS app crash when trying presentModalViewController?

    - by user555807
    I've been banging my head against this all day, it seems like something simple but I can't figure it out. I've got an iOS app that I created using the "View-based Application" template in XCode. Here is essentially the code I have: AppDelegate.h: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface AppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; MainViewController *viewController; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet MainViewController *viewController; @end AppDelegate.m: #import "AppDelegate.h" #import "MainViewController.h" @implementation AppDelegate @synthesize window, viewController; - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { [self.window addSubview:viewController.view]; [self.window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end MainViewController.h: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MainViewController : UIViewController { } -(IBAction) button:(id)sender; @end MainViewController.m: #import "MainViewController.h" #import "ModalViewController.h" @implementation MainViewController ... -(IBAction) button:(id)sender { ModalViewController *mvc = [[[ModalViewController alloc] initWithNibName:NSStringFromClass([ModalViewController class]) bundle:nil] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:mvc animated:YES]; } @end There's nothing of interest in the ModalViewController. So the modal view should display when the button is pressed. When I press the button, it hangs for a second then crashes back to the home screen with no error message. I am stumped, please show me what I'm doing wrong!

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  • c# sending sms from computer

    - by I__
    i have this code: private SerialPort port = new SerialPort("COM1", 115200, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); Console.WriteLine("Incoming Data:"); port.WriteTimeout = 5000; port.ReadTimeout = 5000; // Attach a method to be called when there is data waiting in the port's buffer port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); // Begin communications port.Open(); #region PhoneSMSSetup port.Write("AT+CMGF=1\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CNMI=2,2\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CSCA=\"+4790002100\"\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); #endregion // Enter an application loop which keeps this thread alive Application.Run(); i got it from here: http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/C_Sharp/Q_22832563.html i have a new winforms empty application: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } } can you please tell me: where exactly would i paste the code? how do i get the code to run? i am sending AT COMMANDS to my cell phone that is attached to the computer

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  • FindWindowEx from user32.dll is returning a handle of Zero and error code of 127 using dllimport

    - by puretechy
    I need to handle another windows application programatically, searching google I found a sample which handles windows calculator using DLLImport Attribute and importing the user32.dll functions into managed ones in C#. The application is running, I am getting the handle for the main window i.e. Calculator itself, but the afterwards code is not working. The FindWindowEx method is not returning the handles of the children of the Calculator like buttons and textbox. I have tried using the SetLastError=True on DLLImport and found that I am getting an error code of 127 which is "Procedure not found". This is the link from where I got sample application: http://www.codeproject.com/script/Articles/ArticleVersion.aspx?aid=14519&av=34503 Please help if anyone knows how to solve it. UPDATE: The DLLImport is: [DllImport("user32.dll", SetLastError = true)] public static extern IntPtr FindWindowEx(IntPtr parentHandle, IntPtr childAfter, string className, string windowTitle); The Code that is not working is: hwnd=FindWindow(null,"Calculator"); // This is working, I am getting handle of Calculator // The following is not working, I am getting hwndChild=0 and err = 127 hwndChild = FindWindowEx((IntPtr)hwnd,IntPtr.Zero,"Button","1"); Int32 err = Marshal.GetLastWin32Error();

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  • Connecting to database on web host in Visual Studio

    - by Anders Svensson
    I have a web site developed locally with a local Sql Server database. I also have a web host that provides one Sql Server database for my site. Now I want to deploy the application, and I would like to be able to manage the remote database from the Server Explorer in Visual Studio. I have the connection string used in the application, which works fine for adding, say, a datasource to a control etc. But I don't know if there's any way to use it to connect the database inside the Server Explorer so that I can add tables etc. I have read that you're supposed to be able to this instead of using the Sql Server Management Studio, but I have'nt read anything about how to connect to the remote database in it. What I have tried so far is this: I have selected Add database in Server Explorer. This brings up first a dialog where I choose Sql Server. And then I get a dialog where I can set Server name (which I tried using the ip address in the connection string below), and Authentication (where I chose Sql Server Authentication, with the user id and password from below). But when I test the connection it fails. Here's the connection string, which works fine when used for datasources in the application (obviously with different user name and password): Any help appreciated!

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  • CLI include paths to run zend framework via cron

    - by summerg
    I wrote a command line utility using Zend Framework to do some nightly reporting. It uses a ton of the same functionality the accompanying site. It works great when I run it by hand, but when I run it on cron I have include path issues. Seems like it should be easily fixed with set_include_path, but maybe I'm missing something? My directory structure looks like this: /var/www/clientname/ application Globals.php commandline commandline_bootstrap.php public_html public_bootstrap.php library Zend In public_bootstrap.php I use set_include_path without a problem, relative to the current directory: set_include_path('../library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path()); If I understand correctly, in commandline_bootstrap.php I need to put in the absolute path, so cron knows where everything is. My file starts like this: error_reporting(E_ALL); set_include_path('/var/www/clientname/library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path()); require_once "../application/Globals.php"; But when I run it via cron I get the following error: PHP Fatal error: require_once(): Failed opening required '../application/Globals.php' (include_path='/var/www/clientname/library/') in /var/www/clientname/commandline/zfcli.php on line 11 I think PHP is accepting my new path, because when I run it command line and dump the phpinfo I can see: include_path = /var/www/clientname/library/:.:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php = .:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php I admit the syntax here looks a little strange, but I can’t figure out how to fix it. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks summer

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