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• Aggregating, restructuring hourly time series data in R

  - by Advait Godbole

  I have a year's worth of hourly data in a data frame in R: > str(df.MHwind_load) # compactly displays structure of data frame 'data.frame': 8760 obs. of 6 variables: $ Date : Factor w/ 365 levels "2010-04-01","2010-04-02",..: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 ... $ Time..HRs. : int 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ... $ Hour.of.Year : int 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ... $ Wind.MW : int 375 492 483 476 486 512 421 396 456 453 ... $ MSEDCL.Demand: int 13293 13140 12806 12891 13113 13802 14186 14104 14117 14462 ... $ Net.Load : int 12918 12648 12323 12415 12627 13290 13765 13708 13661 14009 ... While preserving the hourly structure, I would like to know how to extract a particular month/group of months the first day/first week etc of each month all mondays, all tuesdays etc of the year I have tried using "cut" without result and after looking online think that "lubridate" might be able to do so but haven't found suitable examples. I'd greatly appreciate help on this issue.

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• Django server side AJAX validation

  - by MMRUser

  Hi, Recently I'm trying to implement a simple Django application that include one server side AJAX validation, it's a simple form input field (username). I have used a pre-built in line AJAX validation library which uses jQuery. So the code goes like this HTML snippet <form id="simpleform" method="post" action="/done/"> Username:<input value="" class="validate[required,custom[noSpecialCaracters],length[0,20],ajax[ajaxUser]]" type="text" name="user" id="user" /> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Validate"/> </form> The server side code snippet (embedded in to a php script) /* RECEIVE VALUE */ $validateValue=$_POST['validateValue']; $validateId=$_POST['validateId']; $validateError=$_POST['validateError']; /* RETURN VALUE */ $arrayToJs = array(); $arrayToJs[0] = $validateId; $arrayToJs[1] = $validateError; if($validateValue =="testname"){ // validate?? $arrayToJs[2] = "true"; // RETURN TRUE echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH success }else{ for($x=0;$x<1000000;$x++){ if($x == 990000){ $arrayToJs[2] = "false"; echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH ERROR } } } So my question is that how do I get this in to Python code (in order to use in Django environment) how do I get the user name from the input field in to the back end,I think the server side script snippet already does it but I want to know how to use this in my Pyhon code,and this is my first time using jQuery and I do need to use this same exact validation library. Your valuable corporation is needed. Thanks.

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• cannot get thickbox to open / tb_show function ignored

  - by user357034

  I have two links that should open up thickbox's in iframes but only one works (the one with the id of product_photo_zoom_url2). I have the following jquery code that works when this code... All that happens when the first zoom image is clicked is the page goes to the top so it seems that the .click bind is being ignored? How do I get this to work? onload="vZoom.add(this, '/v/vspfiles/photos/70367301P-2.jpg');" / is removed from the markup. The above code loads a picture zoom function. See complete markup below. var titleattr = $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr("title"); function picurl() { tb_show(titleattr, '/PhotoDetails.asp?ShowDESC=N&ProductCode='+ global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode + '&TB_iframe=true&height=600&width=520');return false; } $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").click(picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").click(picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('href', '#'); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('href', '#'); Here is the html code <a id="product_photo_zoom_url" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=70367301P" title="70367301P Ignition Box"> <img id="product_photo" src="/v/vspfiles/photos/70367301P-2T.jpg" border="0" alt="70367301P Ignition Box" onload="vZoom.add(this, '/v/vspfiles/photos/70367301P-2.jpg');" /></a>

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• Writing XML in different character encodings with Java

  - by Roman Myers

  I am attempting to write an XML library file that can be read again into my program. The file writer code is as follows: XMLBuilder builder = new XMLBuilder(); Document doc = builder.build(bookList); DOMImplementation impl = doc.getImplementation(); DOMImplementationLS implLS = (DOMImplementationLS) impl.getFeature("LS", "3.0"); LSSerializer ser = implLS.createLSSerializer(); String out = ser.writeToString(doc); //System.out.println(out); try{ FileWriter fstream = new FileWriter(location); BufferedWriter outwrite = new BufferedWriter(fstream); outwrite.write(out); outwrite.close(); }catch (Exception e){ } The above code does write an xml document. However, in the XML header, it is an attribute that the file is encoded in UTF-16. when i read in the file, i get the error: "content not allowed in prolog" this error does not occur when the encoding attribute is manually changed to UTF-8. I am trying to get the above code to write an XML document encoded in UTF-8, or successfully parse a UTF-16 file. the code for parsing in is DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder loader = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document document = loader.parse(filename); the last line returns the error.

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• Using a version control system as a data backend

  - by JacobM

  I'm involved in a project that, among other things, involves storing edits and changes to a large hierarchical document (HTML-formatted text). We want to include versioning of textual changes and of structural changes. Currently we're maintaining the tree of document sections in a relational database, but as we start working on how to manage versioning of structural changes, it's clear that we're in danger of having to write a lot of the functionality that a version control system provides. We don't want to reinvent the wheel. Is it possible that we could use an existing version control system as the data store, at least for the document itself? Presumably we could do so by writing out new versions to the filesystem, and keeping that directory under version control (and programmatically doing commits and so forth) but it would be better if we could directly interact with the repository via code. The VCS that we are most familiar with is Subversion, but I'm not thrilled with how Subversion represents changes to the directory structure -- it would be nice if we could see that a particular revision included moving a section from Chapter 2 to Chapter 6, rather than just seeing a new version of the tree. This sounds more like the way a system like Mercurial handles changes to the structure. Any advice? Do VCS's have public APIs and so forth? The project is in Java (with Spring) if it matters.

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• get lattitude and longitude of a place against its zipcode

  - by yunas

  Hello i have used the following code to get the location of the particular place on map using the following piece of code NSString * urlString = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?key=%@&output=xml&q=%@",GoogleMapsAPIKey,[placeName stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <kml xmlns="http://earth.google.com/kml/2.0"><Response> <name>postdam</name> <Status> <code>200</code> <request>geocode</request> </Status> <Placemark id="p1"> <address>Potsdam, Germany</address> <AddressDetails Accuracy="4" xmlns="urn:oasis:names:tc:ciq:xsdschema:xAL:2.0"><Country><CountryNameCode>DE</CountryNameCode><CountryName>Deutschland</CountryName><AdministrativeArea><AdministrativeAreaName>Brandenburg</AdministrativeAreaName><SubAdministrativeArea><SubAdministrativeAreaName>Potsdam</SubAdministrativeAreaName><Locality><LocalityName>Potsdam</LocalityName></Locality></SubAdministrativeArea></AdministrativeArea></Country></AddressDetails> <ExtendedData> <LatLonBox north="52.4513968" south="52.3424614" east="13.1866602" west="12.9305414" /> </ExtendedData> <Point><coordinates>13.0586008,52.3969627,0</coordinates></Point> </Placemark> </Response></kml> but now i want to get the information agianst the zipcode how to do that using the maps.google.com ???

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• Unhandled exception when DataTemplate created dynamically using Silverlight 3.0

  - by user333397

  Requirement is to create a reusable multi-select combobox custom control. To accomplish this, I am creating the DataTemplate dynamically through code and set the combobox ItemTemplate. I am able to load the datatemplate dynamically and set the ItemTemplate, but getting unhandled exception (code: 7054) when we select the combobox. Here is the code Class MultiSelCombBox: ComboBox { public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); CreateTemplate(); } void CreateTemplate() { DataTemplate dt = null; if (CreateItemTemplate) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(CheckBoxBind)) { dt = XamlReader.Load(@"<DataTemplate xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""DropDownTemplate""><Grid xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""CheckboxGrid""><TextBox xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""test"" xml:space=""preserve"" Text='{Binding " + TextContent + "}'/></Grid></DataTemplate>") as DataTemplate; this.ItemTemplate = dt; } } } //Other code goes here }} what am i doing wrong? suggestion?

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• How do I add IIS Virtual Directories and arbitrary files in TFS Solution

  - by chriscena

  We have a web portal product from which we customize portals from customers. We use the precompiled web app and create a virtual directory (vd) where the customization resides. In addition to this we do some changes web.config in the web app folder. We would obviously like to keep these customizations under TFS source control. When I try to add the precompiled web app (which I don't want to add to source control), a warning tells me that the vds cannot be added. If I only add the folder that is referenced to by the vd, I lose the references to assemblies in the precompiled web app. My questions are: How do I structure a solution for adding IIS (sub application level) virtual directories and still retain the references to assemblies? Is it possible to add other directories/files from the web application level (like App_Theme, web.config etc.) to the solution? Since we already use Visual Source Safe, we have established a tree structure for each customization project: Project Root | |-Custom Sql | |-Custom Portal Files (which is added as a virtual directory) | |-Other Customizations I could probably do a lot of this manually through the source control explorer, but I'd like to have everything done through a solution. I've followed the instructions using this article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb668986.aspx, but this doesn't address the exact problem that I have. Oh, and we are currently using Visual Source Safe for portal customizaton, but are eager to make the move to TFS. TIA

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• MySQL MyISAM table performance... painfully, painfully slow

  - by Salman A

  I've got a table structure that can be summarized as follows: pagegroup * pagegroupid * name has 3600 rows page * pageid * pagegroupid * data references pagegroup; has 10000 rows; can have anything between 1-700 rows per pagegroup; the data column is of type mediumtext and the column contains 100k - 200kbytes data per row userdata * userdataid * pageid * column1 * column2 * column9 references page; has about 300,000 rows; can have about 1-50 rows per page The above structure is pretty straight forwad, the problem is that that a join from userdata to page group is terribly, terribly slow even though I have indexed all columns that should be indexed. The time needed to run a query for such a join (userdata inner_join page inner_join pagegroup) exceeds 3 minutes. This is terribly slow considering the fact that I am not selecting the data column at all. Example of the query that takes too long: SELECT userdata.column1, pagegroup.name FROM userdata INNER JOIN page USING( pageid ) INNER JOIN pagegroup USING( pagegroupid ) Please help by explaining why does it take so long and what can i do to make it faster. Edit #1 Explain returns following gibberish: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE userdata ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE page eq_ref PRIMARY,pagegroupid PRIMARY 4 topsecret.userdata.pageid 1 1 SIMPLE pagegroup eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.page.pagegroupid 1 Edit #2 SELECT u.field2, p.pageid FROM userdata u INNER JOIN page p ON u.pageid = p.pageid; /* 0.07 sec execution, 6.05 sec fecth */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE u ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE p eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.u.pageid 1 Using index SELECT p.pageid, g.pagegroupid FROM page p INNER JOIN pagegroup g ON p.pagegroupid = g.pagegroupid; /* 9.37 sec execution, 60.0 sec fetch */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE g index PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 3646 Using index 1 SIMPLE p ref pagegroupid pagegroupid 5 topsecret.g.pagegroupid 3 Using where Moral of the story Keep medium/long text columns in a separate table if you run into performance problems such as this one.

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• Getting jQuery to return an ajax object

  - by japancheese

  Hello, The question title is a bit strange because I'm not exactly sure how to phrase the problem. The issue is that I have many links to which I want to bind a click event with an ajax call, and I'm just looking to refactor some duplicate code into a single area. The links I'm trying to bind an ajax call only have one thing that differentiates them, and that's an id from a previously declared object. So I have lots of code that looks like this: $("a.link").bind('click', function() { id = obj.id; $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); I was trying to refactor it into something like this: $("a.link").bind('click', ajax_link(obj.id)); function ajax_link(id) { $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); However, as you can imagine, this just actually makes the ajax call when the element is binded with the click event. Is there an easy way to refactor this code so I can extract out the common ajax code into its own function, and hopefully reduce the number of lines of jQuery in my current script?

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• Flash CS5- Problem with "navigateToURL" in web-browswer hosted on MySpace

  - by NervXT

  I made a quick flash document for my friend who posted it his MySpace. The document has 3 buttons, each with a URL attached to them. When I play the SWF file locally, the links work fine, however once it's published to MySpace, the links refuse to work. The hand icon comes up so it understands them at least as buttons, but it seems to do nothing when clicked in the web-browser. Also, I can open the SWF in my browser and it also works fine. I'm using Flash CS5 and working in ActionScript 3.0. The three buttons are on one layer called "Buttons". I right click the button and click "Actions". From there, I click the "Code Snippets" and under the folder "Actions" there is an item called "Click to Go To Webpage". Here is the code it gives you by default: button_2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fl_ClickToGoToWebPage_6); function fl_ClickToGoToWebPage_6(event:MouseEvent):void { navigateToURL(new URLRequest("http://www.adobe.com"), "_blank"); } I heard there was a problem with MySpace not allowing action scripts, but after checking the source code of the web-page, the values in the "param" code seem to "always" allow action scripts. At any point, I'm lost and not sure what it causing this. I don't think it's a browser issue, since it's working fine when I execute the SWF by itself, and when I load it into Firefox. It's just seems MySpace is having a problem with it. Any advice is appreciated.

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• JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

  - by OlliD

  Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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• jQuery Validate plugin - password check - minimum requirements - Regex

  - by QviXx

  I've got a little problem with my password-checker. There's got a registration form with some fields. I use jQuery Validate plugin to validate user-inputs. It all works except the password-validation: The password should meet some minimum requirements: minimum length: 8 - I just use 'minlength: 8' at least one lower-case character at least one digit Allowed Characters: A-Z a-z 0-9 @ * _ - . ! At the moment I use this code to validate the password: $.validator.addMethod("pwcheck", function(value, element) { return /^[A-Za-z0-9\d=!\-@._*]+$/.test(value); }); This Code works for the allowed characters but not for minimum requirements. I know that you can use for example (?=.*[a-z]) for a lower-case-requirement. But I just don't get it to work. If I add (?=.*[a-z]) the whole code doesn't work anymore. I need to know how to properly add the code to the existing one. Thank you for your answers! This is the complete code <script> $(function() { $("#regform").validate({ rules: { forename: { required: true }, surname: { required: true }, username: { required: true }, password: { required: true, pwcheck: true, minlength: 8 }, password2: { required: true, equalTo: "#password" }, mail1: { required: true, email: true }, mail2: { required: true, equalTo: "#mail1" } }, messages: { forename: { required: "Vornamen angeben" }, surname: { required: "Nachnamen angeben" }, username: { required: "Usernamen angeben" }, password: { required: "Passwort angeben", pwcheck: "Das Passwort entspricht nicht den Kriterien!", minlength: "Das Passwort entspricht nicht den Kriterien!" }, password2: { required: "Passwort wiederholen", equalTo: "Die Passwörter stimmen nicht überein" }, mail1: { required: "Mail-Adresse angeben", email: "ungültiges Mail-Format" }, mail2: { required: "Mail-Adresse wiederholen", equalTo: "Die Mail-Adressen stimmen nicht überein" } } }); $.validator.addMethod("pwcheck", function(value, element) { return /^[A-Za-z0-9\d=!\-@._*]+$/.test(value); }); }); </script>

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• Differences in ansychronous VB.NET and C#???

  - by Jim Beam

  So I've been posting this week for help with an API that has asynchronous calls. You can view the CODE here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2638920/c-asynchronous-event-procedure-does-not-fire With a little more digging, I found out that the API is written in VB.NET and I created a VB.NET example and guess what . . . the asynchronous calls work like a charm. So, now I need to find out why the calls are not firing in the C# code I have. The API being written in VB really shouldn't matter, but again, the VB.NET code works and my C# does not. Is there a problem with the event handler and hows its being declared that causes it to not fire? UPDATE VB Code added Imports ClientSocketServices Imports DHS_Commands Imports DHS Imports Utility Imports SocketServices Class Window1 Public WithEvents AppServer As New ClientAppServer Public Token As LoginToken Private Sub login() Dim handler As New LoginHandler Token = handler.RequestLogin("admin", "admin", localPort:=12000, serverAddress:="127.0.0.1", serverLoginPort:=11000, clienttype:=LoginToken.eClientType.Client_Admin, timeoutInSeconds:=20) If Token.Authenticated Then AppServer = New ClientAppServer(Token, True) AppServer.RetrieveCollection(GetType(Gateways)) End If End Sub Private Sub ReceiveMessage(ByVal rr As RemoteRequest) Handles AppServer.ReceiveRequest If TypeOf (rr.TransferObject) Is Gateways Then MsgBox("dd") End If End Sub Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) Handles Button1.Click login() End Sub End Class

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• .NET - A way to add my own clipboard format to existing formats

  - by A9S6

  I have a Excel addin that displays some structures on the worksheet. Users can copy the structures and paste them in another worksheet or another application which is handled by the Clipboard formats. When a user copies the structure, I convert the structure into a specific format and put it on the clipboard using the DataObject::SetData(). Please note that when a copy is initiated in Excel, it puts a number of formats on the clipboard (see image). The problem is that there is a third party application that depends on the data on the clipboard(Copy from Excel and paste into this 3rd party app) but the funny thing is that I am not sure which format it depends on. I need to preserve the existing formats that Excel has put up there and also add my own format to it. Currently when I use the Clipboard class in .NET (taking the DataObject and calling SetData inside it), all the other formats are replaced by new ones. I then tried to create a new DataObject, copy the existing format data to this data object and then set this data object in the Clipboard. This works fine but it takes time to copy the data. // Copying existing data in clipboard to our new DataObject IDataObject existingDataObject = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); DataObject dataObject = new DataObject(); string[] existingFormats = existingDataObject.GetFormats(); foreach (string existingFormat in existingFormats) dataObject.SetData(existingFormat, existingDataObject.GetData(existingFormat)); I am looking for a solution to just access the existing DataObject and quietly add my own data to it without affecting other formats. Excel Clipboard Formats - (Ignore the Native Format)

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• Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

  - by Bart

  I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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• How to customize the content of each page using Page Control and UIScrollView?

  - by viper15

  I have problem with customizing each page using pagecontrol and UIScrollView. I'm customizing Page Control from Apple. Basically I would like to have each page different with text and image alternately on different page. Page 1 will have all text, Page 2 will have just images, Page 3 will have all text and goes on. This is original code: // Set the label and background color when the view has finished loading. - (void)viewDidLoad { pageNumberLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Page %d", pageNumber + 1]; self.view.backgroundColor = [MyViewController pageControlColorWithIndex:pageNumber]; } As you can see, this code shows only Page 1, Page 2 etc as you scroll right. I tried to put in this new code but that didn't make any difference. There's no error. I know this is pretty simple code. I don't why it doesn't work. I declare pageText as UILabel. // Set the label and background color when the view has finished loading. - (void)viewDidLoad { pageNumberLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Page %d", pageNumber + 1]; self.view.backgroundColor = [MyViewController pageControlColorWithIndex:pageNumber]; if (pageNumber == 1) { pageText.text = @"Text in page 1"; } if (pageNumber == 2) { pageText.text = @"Image in page 2"; } if (pageNumber == 3) { pageText.text = @"Text in page 3"; } } I don't know why it doesn't work. Also if you have better way to do it, let me know. Thanks.

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• [Doxygen] How to documenting global dependencies for functions?

  - by Thomas Matthews

  I've got some C code from a 3rd party vendor (for an embedded platform) that uses global variables (for speed & space optimizations). I'm documenting the code, converting to Doxygen format. How do I put a note in the function documentation that the function requires on global variables and functions? Doxygen has special commands for annotating parameters and return values as describe here: Doxygen Special Commands. I did not see any commands for global variables. Example C code: extern unsigned char data_buffer[]; //!< Global variable. /*! Returns the next available data byte. * \return Next data byte. */ unsigned char Get_Byte(void) { static unsigned int index = 0; return data_buffer[index++]; //!< Uses global variable. } In the above code, I would like to add Doxygen comments that the function depends on the global variable data_buffer.

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• Timer a usage in msp430 in high compiler optimization mode

  - by Vishal

  Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code, //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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• multiple calender in exchange web service

  - by user3559462

  i have multiple calender in my mailbox, i can retrieve only one calender that is main calnder folder using ews api 2.0, now i want whole list of calenders and appointments and meetings in that. like i have three calender one is main calnder 1.Calender(color-code:default) 2.Jorgen(color-code:pink) 3.Soren(color-code: yellow) i can retrieve all the values of main "Calnder", using the below code Folder inbox = Folder.Bind(service, WellKnownFolderName.Calendar); view.PropertySet = new PropertySet(BasePropertySet.IdOnly); // This results in a FindItem call to EWS. FindItemsResults<Item> results = inbox.FindItems(view); i = 1; m = results.TotalCount; if (results.Count() > 0) { foreach (var item in results) { PropertySet props = new PropertySet(AppointmentSchema.MimeContent,AppointmentSchema.ParentFolderId,AppointmentSchema.Id,AppointmentSchema.Categories,AppointmentSchema.Location); // This results in a GetItem call to EWS. var email = Appointment.Bind(service, item.Id, props); string iCalFileName = @"C:\export\appointment" +i ".ics"; // Save as .eml. using (FileStream fs = new FileStream(iCalFileName, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write)) { fs.Write(email.MimeContent.Content, 0, email.MimeContent.Content.Length); } i++; } now i want to get all the remaining calender schedules also, i am not able to get is Please help, need it urgently

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• Trouble Shoot JavaScript Function in IE

  - by CreativeNotice

  So this function works fine in geko and webkit browsers, but not IE7. I've busted my brain trying to spot the issue. Anything stick out for you? Basic premise is you pass in a data object (in this case a response from jQuery's $.getJSON) we check for a response code, set the notification's class, append a layer and show it to the user. Then reverse the process after a time limit. function userNotice(data){ // change class based on error code returned var myClass = ''; if(data.code == 200){ myClass='success'; } else if(data.code == 400){ myClass='error'; } else{ myClass='notice'; } // create message html, add to DOM, FadeIn var myNotice = '<div id="notice" class="ajaxMsg '+myClass+'">'+data.msg+'</div>'; $("body").append(myNotice); $("#notice").fadeIn('fast'); // fadeout and remove from DOM after delay var t = setTimeout(function(){ $("#notice").fadeOut('slow',function(){ $(this).remove(); }); },5000); }

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• Use external datasource with NUnit's TestCaseAttribute

  - by Hamman359

  Is it possible to get the values for a TestCaseAttribute from an external data source such as an Excel Spreadsheet, CSV file or Database? i.e. Have a .csv file with 1 row of data per test case and pass that data to NUnit one at a time. Here's the specific situation that I'd like to use this for. I'm currently merging some features from one system into another. This is pretty much just a copy and paste process from the old system into the new one. Unfortunately, the code being moved not only does not have any tests, but is not written in a testable manner (i.e. tightly coupled with the database and other code.) Taking the time to make the code testable isn't really possible since its a big mess, i'm on a tight schedule and the entire feature is scheduled to be re-written from the ground up in the next 6-9 months. However, since I don't like the idea of not having any tests around the code, I'm going to create some simple Selenium tests using WebDriver to test the page through the UI. While this is not ideal, it's better than nothing. The page in question has about 10 input values and about 20 values that I need to assert against after the calculations are completed, with about 30 valid combinations of values that I'd like to test. I already have the data in a spreadsheet so it'd be nice to simply be able to pull that out rather than having to re-type it all in Visual Studio.

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• JDBC/OSGi and how to dynamically load drivers without explicitly stating dependencies in the bundle?

  - by Chris

  Hi, This is a biggie. I have a well-structured yet monolithic code base that has a primitive modular architecture (all modules implement interfaces yet share the same classpath). I realize the folly of this approach and the problems it represents when I go to deploy on application servers that may have different conflicting versions of my library. I'm dependent on around 30 jars right now and am mid-way though bnding them up. Now some of my modules are easy to declare the versioned dependencies of, such as my networking components. They statically reference classes within the JRE and other BNDded libraries but my JDBC related components instantiate via Class.forName(...) and can use one of any number of drivers. I am breaking everything up into OSGi bundles by service area. My core classes/interfaces. Reporting related components. Database access related components (via JDBC). etc.... I wish for my code to be able to still be used without OSGi via single jar file with all my dependencies and without OSGi at all (via JARJAR) and also to be modular via the OSGi meta-data and granular bundles with dependency information. How do I configure my bundle and my code so that it can dynamically utilize any driver on the classpath and/or within the OSGi container environment (Felix/Equinox/etc.)? Is there a run-time method to detect if I am running in an OSGi container that is compatible across containers (Felix/Equinox/etc.) ? Do I need to use a different class loading mechanism if I am in a OSGi container? Am I required to import OSGi classes into my project to be able to load an at-bundle-time-unknown JDBC driver via my database module? I also have a second method of obtaining a driver (via JNDI, which is only really applicable when running in an app server), do I need to change my JNDI access code for OSGi-aware app servers?

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• Noob question about a statement in a Java program

  - by happysoul

  I am beginner to java and was trying out this code puzzle from the book head first java which I solved as follows and got the output correct :D class DrumKit { boolean topHat=true; boolean snare=true; void playSnare() { System.out.println("bang bang ba-bang"); } void playTopHat() { System.out.println("ding ding da-ding"); } } public class DrumKitTestDriver { public static void main(String[] args) { DrumKit d =new DrumKit(); if(d.snare==true) { d.playSnare(); } d.playTopHat(); } } Output is :: bang bang ba-bang ding ding da-ding Now the problem is that in that code puzzle one code snippet is left that I did not include..it's as follows d.snare=false; Even though I did not write it , I got the output like the book. I am wondering why is there need for us to set it's value as false even when we know the code is gonna run without it too !?? I am wondering what the coder had in mind ..I mean what could be the possible future use and motive behind doing this ? I am sorry if it's a dumb question. I just wanna know why or why not to include that particular statement ? It's not like there's a loop or something that we need to come out of. Why is that statement there ?

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• Console app showing message box on error

  - by holz

  I am trying to integrate with a vendors app by calling it with command args from c#. It is meant to automate a process that we need to do with out needing anyone to interact with the application. If there are no errors when running the process it works fine. However if there are any errors the vendors application will show a message box with the error code and error message and wait for someone to click the ok button. When the ok button is clicked it will exit the application returning the error code as the exit code. As my application is going to be a windows service on a server, needing someone to click an okay button will be an issue. Just wondering what the best solution would be to get around this. My code calling the vendor app is... ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.FileName = "someapp.exe" startInfo.Arguments = "somefile.txt"; Process jobProcess = Process.Start(startInfo); jobProcess.WaitForExit(); int exitCode = jobProcess.ExitCode;

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