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  • not able to Deserialize xml into object

    - by Ravisha
    I am having following peice of code ,where in i am trying to serialize and deserailize object of StringResource class. Please note Resource1.stringXml = its coming from resource file.If i pass strelemet.outerXMl i get the object from Deserialize object ,but if i pass Resource1.stringXml i am getting following exception {"< STRING xmlns='' was not expected."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringResource str = new StringResource(); str.DELETE = "CanDelete"; str.ID= "23342"; XmlElement strelemet = SerializeObjectToXmlNode (str); StringResource strResourceObject = DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<StringResource>(Resource1.stringXml); Console.ReadLine(); } public static T DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<T>(string objectNodeOuterXml) { try { TextReader objStringsTextReader = new StringReader(objectNodeOuterXml); XmlSerializer stringResourceSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T),string.Empty); return (T)stringResourceSerializer.Deserialize(objStringsTextReader); } catch (Exception excep) { return default(T); } } public static XmlElement SerializeObjectToXmlNode(object obj) { using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { try { XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlNameSpace = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlNameSpace.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlWriterSettings writerSettings = new XmlWriterSettings(); writerSettings.CloseOutput = false; writerSettings.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; writerSettings.Indent = false; writerSettings.OmitXmlDeclaration = true; XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, writerSettings); XmlSerializer xmlserializer = new XmlSerializer(obj.GetType()); xmlserializer.Serialize(writer, obj, xmlNameSpace); writer.Close(); memoryStream.Position = 0; XmlDocument serializeObjectDoc = new XmlDocument(); serializeObjectDoc.Load(memoryStream); return serializeObjectDoc.DocumentElement; } catch (Exception excep) { return null; } } } } public class StringResource { [XmlAttribute] public string DELETE; [XmlAttribute] public string ID; } < STRING ID="1" DELETE="True" /

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  • php symfony and apache2 - inst't serving .phtml

    - by pmoniq
    Hi, I have a problem with apache2 settings (Ubuntu system). I would like to run symfony project on my localhost but instead of serving .phtml files, browser is trying to download files. this is my file .host: 127.0.0.3 test this is apache2/sites-available/default file < VirtualHost 127.0.0.3:80 ServerName test DocumentRoot "/home/m/Pr/workspace/php/test/web" DirectoryIndex frontend_dev.php < Directory "/home/m/Pr/workspace/php/test/web" AllowOverride All Allow from All Alias /sf /home/m/Pr/workspace/php/test/lib/vendor/symfony/data/web/sf < Directory "/home/m/Pr/workspace/php/test/lib/vendor/symfony/data/web/sf" AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> and this is .htaccess in /test RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /web/$1 Options +FollowSymLinks +ExecCGI AddHandler application/x-httpd-php5 .php .phtml and this is .htaccess in /test/web Options +FollowSymLinks +ExecCGI RewriteEngine On # uncomment the following line, if you are having trouble # getting no_script_name to work RewriteBase / # we skip all files with .something #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ..+$ #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !.html$ #RewriteRule .* - [L] # we check if the .html version is here (caching) RewriteRule ^$ index.html [QSA] RewriteRule ^([^.]+)$ $1.html [QSA] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f # no, so we redirect to our front web controller RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php [QSA,L] Another problem is I think apache don't read .htaccess files. What am i doing wrong? Maybe I forgot about something? Please, help me becouse i have no idea.

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  • Java RMI AccessControlException: access denied

    - by Gwilym
    Hey im getting a AccessControlException: access denied when attempting to start up a RMI app im writing, I cant work out why I get this exception if I open it on the default port 1099, or on another dynamic port, my policy file currently grants everything (will change when app is finished). I am stuck as to where It is going wrong, any help would but of great use My code public class Main { /** * @param args the command line arguments */ public static void main(String[] args) throws RemoteException, AlreadyBoundException, MalformedURLException { if (System.getSecurityManager() == null) { System.setSecurityManager ( new RMISecurityManager() ); } CreditCardServer ccs = new CreditCardServer(); int port = 1099; try { port = Integer.valueOf(args[0]); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Invlaid Port"); } if (((port <= 65535) && (port >= 49152)) || port ==1099) { System.out.println("Valid Port"); } else { port = 1099; System.out.println("Port not in Dynamic Range 49152<-->65535"); } System.out.println(port); LocateRegistry.createRegistry(port); LocateRegistry.getRegistry().bind("CreditCardServer", ccs); while (true) { //hum? } } } The Stack Trace vega3 [ia32.linux] 23% java -Djava.security.policy=wideopen.policy -jar "BookStore-CreditCardServer.jar 65000" Valid Port 65000 Exception in thread "main" java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.net.SocketPermission 127.0.0.1:1099 connect,resolve) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:342) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:553) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:549) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkConnect(SecurityManager.java:1051) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:536) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:492) at java.net.Socket.<init>(Socket.java:389) at java.net.Socket.<init>(Socket.java:203) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIDirectSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIDirectSocketFactory.java:40) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIMasterSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIMasterSocketFactory.java:146) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(TCPEndpoint.java:613) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPChannel.createConnection(TCPChannel.java:216) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPChannel.newConnection(TCPChannel.java:202) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.newCall(UnicastRef.java:340) at sun.rmi.registry.RegistryImpl_Stub.bind(Unknown Source) at bookstorecreditcardserver.Main.main(Main.java:56) My Policy File grant { // Allow everything for now permission java.security.AllPermission; };

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  • BN_hex2bn magicaly segfaults in openSSL

    - by xunil154
    Greetings, this is my first post on stackoverflow, and i'm sorry if its a bit long. I'm trying to build a handshake protocol for my own project and am having issues with the server converting the clients RSA's public key to a Bignum. It works in my clent code, but the server segfaults when attempting to convert the hex value of the clients public RSA to a bignum. I have already checked that there is no garbidge before or after the RSA data, and have looked online, but i'm stuck. header segment: typedef struct KEYS { RSA *serv; char* serv_pub; int pub_size; RSA *clnt; } KEYS; KEYS keys; Initializing function: // Generates and validates the servers key /* code for generating server RSA left out, it's working */ //Set client exponent keys.clnt = 0; keys.clnt = RSA_new(); BN_dec2bn(&keys.clnt->e, RSA_E_S); // RSA_E_S contains the public exponent Problem code (in Network::server_handshake): // *Recieved an encrypted message from the network and decrypt into 'buffer' (1024 byte long)* cout << "Assigning clients RSA" << endl; // I have verified that 'buffer' contains the proper key if (BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) < 0) { Error("ERROR reading server RSA"); } cout << "clients RSA has been assigned" << endl; The program segfaults at BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) with the error (valgrind output) Invalid read of size 8 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) by 0x40F23E: Network::server_handshake() (Network.cpp:177) by 0x40EF42: Network::startNet() (Network.cpp:126) by 0x403C38: main (server.cpp:51) Address 0x20 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) Access not within mapped region at address 0x20 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) And I don't know why it is, Im using the exact same code in the client program, and it works just fine. Any input is greatly appriciated!

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  • SharePoint 2010 HttpModule problem

    - by Chris W
    I'm trying to write an HttpModule to run on our SharePoint farm - essentially it will check whether the user is authenticated and if they are it will validate some info against another database and potentially redirect the user to sign a variety of usage agreements. Whenever I enable the module in the web.config I'm finding that SharePoint has issues rendering the page - it's almost like the CSS is not getting loaded as the page is devoid of any styling. As a test I've even tried an empty module - i.e. an empty init block so it's not even hooking up any code to any events and the same issue arises. At this point it's an empty class that just implements IHttpModule so it's not even my dodgy coding causing the issue! The module is in a class library that I've dropped in to the bin folder of the application it needs to run against. In the web.config of the app I've simply added an entry as below: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> ... (default stuff ommitted) <add name="SharePointAUP" type="SPModules.SharePointAUP" /> </modules> I must be missing something really obvious here as I've done exactly the same as every sample I've found and yet I'm getting this strange behaviour. Is there something extra I need to do to get SharePoint to play nice with a custom module?

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  • Codeigniter image manipulation class rotates image during resize

    - by someoneinomaha
    I'm using Codeigniter's image manipulation library to re-size an uploaded image to three sizes, small, normal and large. The re-sizing is working great. However, if I'm resizing a vertical image, the library is rotating the image so it's horizontal. These are the config settings I have in place: $this->resize_config['image_library'] = 'gd2'; $this->resize_config['source_image'] = $this->file_data['full_path']; $this->resize_config['maintain_ratio'] = TRUE; // These change based on the type (small, normal, large) $this->resize_config['new_image'] = './uploads/large/'.$this->new_file_name.'.jpg'; $this->resize_config['width'] = 432; $this->resize_config['height'] = 288; I'm not setting the master_dim property because the default it set to auto, which is what I want. My assumption is that the library would take a vertical image, see that the height is greater than the width and translate the height/width config appropriately so the image remains vertical. What is happening (apparently) is that the library is rotating the image when it is vertical and sizing it per the configuration. This is the code in place I have to do the actual re-sizing: log_message('debug', 'attempting '.$size.' photo resize'); $this->CI->load->library('image_lib'); $this->CI->image_lib->initialize($this->resize_config); if ($this->CI->image_lib->resize()) { $return_value = TRUE; log_message('debug', $size.' photo resize successful'); } else { $this->errors[] = $this->CI->image_lib->display_errors(); log_message('debug', $size.' photo resize failed'); } $this->CI->image_lib->clear(); return $return_value;

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  • Explicit behavior with checks vs. implicit behavior

    - by Silviu
    I'm not sure how to construct the question but I'm interested to know what do you guys think of the following situations and which one would you prefer. We're working at a client-server application with winforms. And we have a control that has some fields automatically calculated upon filling another field. So we're having a field currency which when filled by the user would determine an automatic filling of another field, maybe more fields. When the user fills the currency field, a Currency object would be retrieved from a cache based on the string introduced by the user. If entered currency is not found in the cache a null reference is returned by the cache object. Further down when asking the application layer to compute the other fields based on the currency, given a null currency a null specific field would be returned. This way the default, implicit behavior is to clear all fields. Which is the expected behavior. What i would call the explicit implementation would be to verify that the Currency object is null in which case the depending fields are cleared explicitly. I think that the latter version is more clear, less error prone and more testable. But it implies a form of redundancy. The former version is not as clear and it implies a certain behavior from the application layer which is not expressed in the tests. Maybe in the lower layer tests but when the need arises to modify the lower layers, so that given a null currency something else should be returned, i don't think a test that says just that without a motivation is going to be an impediment for introducing a bug in upper layers. What do you guys think?

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  • How to configure hbm2java and hbm2dao to add packagename to generated classes

    - by mmm
    Hi, I'm trying to configure hbm2java with maven to generate POJO classes and DAO objects. One of the issues I'm dealing with is package names aren't generated. I'm using the following pom for that: <execution> <id>hbm2java</id> <phase>generate-sources</phase> <goals> <goal>hbm2java</goal> </goals> <inherited>false</inherited> <configuration> <components> <component> <name>hbm2java</name> <implementation>configuration</implementation> </component> </components> <componentProperties> <packagename>package.name</packagename> <configurationfile>target/hibernate3/generated-mappings/hibernane.cfg.xml</configurationfile> </componentProperties> </configuration> </execution> Yet the generated code begins with the following: // default package // Generated 2010-05-17 13:11:51 by Hibernate Tools 3.2.2.GA /** * Messages generated by hbm2java */ public class Messages implements java.io.Serializable { Is there a way to force maven to generate the package part as defined in packagename?

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  • MDA BindingFailure detected

    - by Vnuk
    WebForms web site upon first launch from VS2008 throws this exception on my dev machine, after clicking continue everything works. Also, everything works on server when deployed. What is this VJSharpCodeProvider, why is it being loaded in vb.net project and why did it start happening all of a sudden? The assembly with display name 'VJSharpCodeProvider' failed to load in the 'LoadFrom' binding context of the AppDomain with ID 2. The cause of the failure was: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = quad7\devuser LOG: DisplayName = VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/dev/ins/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\dev\ins\bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\dev\ins\web.config LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/fakturaTest/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE.

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  • TypeConverter prevents ApplyPropertyChanges in EntityFramework

    - by Felix
    I ran into an interesting problem (hopefully, interesting not just for me :) I am running Entity Framework 1 (.NET 3.5) and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have a Customer class that has many-to-one relationship with Country class (in other words, Country is a lookup table for customers - I described more in this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2404801/explicit-casting-doesnt-work-in-default-model-binding ) I got TypeConverter to work; so I am getting a perfect object into controller's Post method. Create works fine; however, in Edit I am getting the following error when I call ApplyPropertyChanges: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. The controller code is fairly trivial: public ActionResult Edit(Customer customerToEdit) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Customer cust = (Customer)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Customers", "CustomerID", customerToEdit.CustomerID)); context.ApplyPropertyChanges(cust.EntityKey.EntitySetName, customerToEdit); context.SaveChanges(); } return View(...); } If I remove country from the form, it works fine; and if I assign dropdown value to EntityReference "manually" - it works as well. TypeConverter code is also fairly simple, but I've never used TypeConverter before, so I may be missing something here: public override object ConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext typeContext, CultureInfo culture, object value) { if (value is string) { int countryID = Int16.Parse((string)value); Country country = (Country)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } return base.ConvertFrom(typeContext, culture, value); }

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  • Java how can I add an accented "e" to a string?

    - by behrk2
    Hello, With the help of tucuxi from the existing post Java remove HTML from String without regular expressions I have built a method that will parse out any basic HTML tags from a string. Sometimes, however, the original string contains html hexadecimal characters like é (which is an accented e). I have started to add functionality which will translate these escaped characters into real characters. You're probably asking: Why not use regular expressions? Or a third party library? Unfortunately I cannot, as I am developing on a BlackBerry platform which does not support regular expressions and I have never been able to successfully add a third party library to my project. So, I have gotten to the point where any é is replaced with "e". My question now is, how do I add an actual 'accented e' to a string? Here is my code: public static String removeHTML(String synopsis) { char[] cs = synopsis.toCharArray(); String sb = new String(); boolean tag = false; for (int i = 0; i < cs.length; i++) { switch (cs[i]) { case '<': if (!tag) { tag = true; break; } case '>': if (tag) { tag = false; break; } case '&': char[] copyTo = new char[7]; System.arraycopy(cs, i, copyTo, 0, 7); String result = new String(copyTo); if (result.equals("&#x00E9")) { sb += "e"; } i += 7; break; default: if (!tag) sb += cs[i]; } } return sb.toString(); } Thanks!

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  • web.xml - Java Servlet Filters and WebSphere - URL Pattern issues

    - by Ed
    Hi, So we are running a web application that has been tested on Tomcat, Glassfish, WebLogic and WebSphere. All run correctly except WebSphere. The issue is that filters are not processed for files under a certain directory. For example I have a filter that checks the user's lanuage from browser cookies and another that get the user's username, in the web.xml there are configured like so: <!-- ****************************** --> <!-- * Security context filtering * --> <!-- ****************************** --> <filter> <filter-name>SetSecurityContextFilter</filter-name> <filter-class> com.test.security.SecurityContextServletFilter </filter-class> </filter> <!-- ****************************** --> <!-- ** Locale context filtering ** --> <!-- ****************************** --> <filter> <filter-name>SetLocaleFilter</filter-name> <filter-class> com.test.locale.LocaleServletFilter </filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>SetSecurityContextFilter</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>SetLocaleFilter</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> Both filters set a static threadlocal variable which can be accessed from a static getter, but when the same file 'test.jsp' invokes the getters, under 'contextroot/js' they return the default values (as if unset) while under 'contextroot/pages' they are correct. Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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  • Polymorphic NHibernate mappings

    - by Ben Aston
    I have an interface IUserLocation and a concrete type UserLocation. When I use ICriteria, specifying the interface IUserLocation, I want NHibernate to instantiate a collection of the concrete UserLocation type. I have created an HBM mapping file using the table per concrete type strategy (shown below). However, when I query NHibernate using ICriteria I get: NHibernate cannot instantiate abstract class or interface MyNamespace.IUserLocation Can anyone see why this is? (source code for the relevant bit of NHibernate here (I think)) My ICriteria: var filter = DetachedCriteria.For<IUserLocation>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("UserId", userId)); return filter.GetExecutableCriteria(UoW.Session) .List<IUserLocation>(); My mapping file: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" default-lazy="true"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" name="MyNamespace.IUserLocation,MyAssembly" abstract="true" table="IUserLocations"> <composite-id> <key-property name="UserId" column="UserId" type="System.Guid"></key-property> <key-many-to-one name="Location" column="LocationId" class="MyNamespace.ILocation,MyAssembly"></key-many-to-one> </composite-id> <union-subclass table="UserLocations" name="MyNamespace2.UserLocation,MyAssembly2"> <property name="IsAdmin" /> </union-subclass> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • Crystal report subreport parameter autobinding logic feeds duplicate parameters to different subrepo

    - by quillbreaker
    I have a report, and I place the same subreport within the footer twice. The report has three parameters and the subreport has four parameters. When I try to run the report through the report designer, it prompts me for seven parameters instead of the eleven I was hoping for. It prompts for one set of parameters for the subreport (with a default prompt of @parameter(subreport.rpt)/@parameter(subreport.rpt - 01), and passes the same set of parameters to both subreports. This isn't what I want the report to do. Furthermore, if I look at 'show report parameters', it does show eleven parameters, with the same value for both subreport parameter sets. So it knows that it's two different subreports, but it does not want to let me enter it that way. Is there some way I can make crystal designer realize that it should take different values for each subreport? The only solution I've found is to add 8 more parameters, one for each subreport / subreport parameter combination, and bind them individually. It works, but it feels like a workaround. Does anyone have a better solution?

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  • How do I hook into the action method for an iPad popover toolbar button?

    - by Elisabeth
    Hi, I am using the split view template to create a simple split view that has, of course, a popover in Portrait mode. I'm using the default code generated by template that adds/removes the toolbar item and sets the popover controller and removes it. These two methods are splitViewController:willShowViewController:... and splitViewController:willHideViewController:... I'm trying to figure out how to make the popover disappear if the user taps on the toolbar button while the popover is displayed. You can make the popover disappear without selecting an item if you tap anywhere outside the popover, but I would also like to make it disappear if the user taps the button again. Where I'm stuck is this: there doesn't seem to be an obvious, easy way to hook into the action for the toolbar button. I can tell, using the debugger, that the action that's being called on the button is showMasterInPopover. And I am new to working with selectors programmatically, I admit. Can I somehow write an action and set it on the toolbar item without overriding the action that's already there? e.g. add an action that calls the one that's there now? Or would I have to write an action that shows/hides the popover myself (behavior that's being done behind the scenes presumably by the split view controller now???). Or am I missing an easy way to add this behavior to this button without changing the existing behavior that's being set up for me? Thank you!

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  • mercurial .hgrc notify hook

    - by Eeyore
    Could someone tell me what is incorrect in my .hgrc configuration? I am trying to use gmail to send a e-mail after each push and/or commit. .hgrc [paths] default = ssh://www.domain.com/repo/hg [ui] username = intern <[email protected]> ssh="C:\Program Files (x86)\Mercurial\plink.exe" -ssh -i "C:\Program Files (x86)\Mercurial\key.pub" [extensions] hgext.notify = [hooks] changegroup.notify = python:hgext.notify.hook incoming.notify = python:hgext.notify.hook [email] from = [email protected] [smtp] host = smtp.gmail.com username = [email protected] password = sure port = 587 tls = true [web] baseurl = http://dev/... [notify] sources = serve push pull bundle test = False config = /path/to/subscription/file template = \ndetails: {baseurl}{webroot}/rev/{node|short}\nchangeset: {rev}:{node|short}\nuser: {author}\ndate: {date|date}\ndescription:\n{desc}\n maxdiff = 300 Error Incoming comand failed for P/project. running ""C:\Program Files (x86)\Mercurial\plink.exe" -ssh -i "C:\Program Files (x86)\Mercurial\key.pub" [email protected] "hg -R repo/hg serve --stdio"" sending hello command sending between command remote: FATAL ERROR: Server unexpectedly closed network connection abort: no suitable response from remote hg! , error code: -1 running ""C:\Program Files (x86)\Mercurial\plink.exe" -ssh -i "C:\Program Files (x86)\Mercurial\key.pub" [email protected] "hg -R repo/hg serve --stdio"" sending hello command sending between command remote: FATAL ERROR: Server unexpectedly closed network connection abort: no suitable response from remote hg!

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  • php: how to return an HTTP 500 code on any error, no matter what

    - by Jake
    Hi guys. I'm writing an authentication script in PHP, to be called as an API, that needs to return 200 only in the case that it approves the request, and 403 (Forbidden) or 500 otherwise. The problem I'm running into is that php returns 200 in the case of error conditions, outputting the error as html instead. How can I make absolutely sure that php will return an HTTP 500 code unless I explicitly return the HTTP 200 or HTTP 403 myself? In other words, I want to turn any and all warning or error conditions into 500s, no exceptions, so that the default case is rejecting the authentication request, and the exception is approving it with a 200 code. I've fiddled with set_error_handler() and error_reporting(), but so far no luck. For example, if the code outputs something before I send the HTTP response code, PHP naturally reports that you can't modify header information after outputting anything. However, this is reported by PHP as a 200 response code with html explaining the problem. I need even this kind of thing to be turned into a 500 code. Is this possible in PHP? Or do I need to do this at a higher level like using mod_rewrite somehow? If that's the case, any idea how I'd set that up? Thanks for any help. Jake

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  • Call to undefined function query() - using PDO in PHP

    - by webworm
    I have a written a script in PHP that reads from data from a MySQL database. I am new to PHP and I have been using the PDO library. I have been developing on a Windows machine using the WAMP Server 2 and all has been working well. However, when I uploaded my script to the LINUX server where it will be used I get the following error when I run my script. Fatal error: Call to undefined function query() This is the line where the error is occuring ... foreach($dbconn->query($sql) as $row) The variable $dbconn is first defined in my dblogin.php include file which I am listing below. <?php // Login info for the database $db_hostname = 'localhost'; $db_database = 'MY_DATABASE_NAME'; $db_username = 'MY_DATABASE_USER'; $db_password = 'MY_DATABASE_PASSWORD'; $dsn = 'mysql:host=' . $db_hostname . ';dbname=' . $db_database . ';'; try { $dbconn = new PDO($dsn, $db_username, $db_password); $dbconn->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); } catch (PDOException $e) { echo 'Error connecting to database: ' . $e->getMessage(); } ?> Inside the function where the error occurs I have the database connection defined as a superglobal as such ... global $dbconn; I am a bit confused as to what is happening since all worked well on my development machine. I was wondering if the PDO library was installed but from what I thought it was installed by default as part of PHP v5. The script is running on an Ubuntu (5.0.51a-3ubuntu5.4) machine and the PHP version is 5.2.4. Thank you for any suggestions. I am really lost on this.

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  • How can I log and retrieve error messages from a client-side desktop app?

    - by KeyboardMonkey
    Update: The service-based answers below are most likely the way to go, I am also curious to see if there are any out-the-box solutions anyone has tried in the field. Our system uses a client-server architecture, and with more clients using it I'm thinking of better ways to log client application errors, and get them sent to us. Currently we just show a simple error message, with a button that preps an email (with the default system email client) and the clients send this on to our support address. This contains extra info like the stack trace. We also tried saving errors to a network share in the company, but I'm not too keen on that archaic solution either. Now there are only two businesses that refer to clients as users, and I'm sure some of ours support both lifestyles, as they just ignore the email button, and sends a full screen-shot wrapped nicely in a word document. Some factors I'm thinking of include A solution to log errors, like the contrived one above, A robust solution; Logging to a SQL database won't work; if that fails too, then what? Is at least semi-automated, preferably to the point where the logs reach my side. It copes with load, our client base is growing and the current solution, and our inboxes, won't hold up. Minimise installing extra 3rd party components on clients, I want to keep the SPOF to a min. I'd love to hear about any experience or suggestions you have on how I can implement such a solution. System Details It's a Microsoft .Net 2 based system with a SQL backend. Some users work remotely over the net, so network shares aren't always available (unless they VPN, which is awesomely slow at any rate). We have users across different companies, their DB's are hosted on-site. We have remote access to 90% of them.

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  • Creating custom IP-STS for sharepoint foundation 2010 without ADFS

    - by user252229
    I plan to create very simple custom IP-STS for SharePoint foundation 2010 without ADFS server so anyone can integrate Windows Live ID to SharePoint foundation 2010 simply without ADFS, I can't use ADFS server because it could not install on Windows Web Server 2008 (Web Edition), also I found many article use LDAP provider but it does not exists in SharePoint Foundation too (it requires Sharepoint Server Edition). After too much searching I just found the following article and find all technique except one problem. 1) Creating Custom Claim Provider: blogs.technet.com/b/speschka/archive/2010/03/13/writing-a-custom-claims-provider-for-sharepoint-2010-part-1.aspx 2) Creating Custom STS Provider: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/chunliu/archive/2010/04/02/how-to-make-use-of-a-custom-ip-sts-with-sharepoint-2010-part-1.aspx Only one step remains: I got following error after enter username in STS site and redirect to localhost/_trust/default.aspx , ( I leave EncryptingCertificateName empty). Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object I expect to get access denied error instead of that error. 1.Is it possible anyway? 2.Can anyone help me where can I find working article to create custom IP-STS without ADFS server Any idea will help me Thanks

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  • How do I declare an IStream in idl so visual studio maps it to s.w.interop.comtypes?

    - by Grahame Grieve
    hi I have a COM object that takes needs to take a stream from a C# client and processes it. It would appear that I should use IStream. So I write my idl like below. Then I use MIDL to compile to a tlb, and compile up my solution, register it, and then add a reference to my library to a C# project. Visual Studio creates an IStream definition in my own library. How can I stop it from doing that, and get it to use the COMTypes IStream? It seems there would be one of 3 answers: add some import to the idl so it doesn't redeclare IStream (importing MSCOREE does that, but doesn't solve the C# problem) somehow alias the IStream in visual studio - but I don't see how to do this. All my thinking i s completely wrong and I shouldn't be using IStream at all help...thanks [ uuid(3AC11584-7F6A-493A-9C90-588560DF8769), version(1.0), ] library TestLibrary { importlib("stdole2.tlb"); [ uuid(09FF25EC-6A21-423B-A5FD-BCB691F93C0C), version(1.0), helpstring("Just for testing"), dual, nonextensible, oleautomation ] interface ITest: IDispatch { [id(0x00000006),helpstring("Testing stream")] HRESULT _stdcall LoadFromStream([in] IStream * stream, [out, retval] IMyTest ** ResultValue); }; [ uuid(CC2864E4-55BA-4057-8687-29153BE3E046), noncreatable, version(1.0) ] coclass HCTest { [default] interface ITest; }; };

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  • iphone sdk - UITableView - cannot assign a table to the table view

    - by kossibox
    hello, this is a part of my code. My application crashes when i try to load the view including the uitableview. i think there's a problem with the table i'm tryin to use but can't find it. help please gameTimingTable=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"2min + 10sec/coup",@"1min + 15sec/coup",@"5min",nil]; declared in .h as NSArray *gameTimingTable; this is the code i'm using to assign the table to the uitableview - (void)viewDidLoad { gameTimingTable=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"2min + 10sec/coup",@"1min + 15sec/coup",@"5min",nil]; } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // There is only one section. return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of time zone names. return [gameTimingTable count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; // Try to retrieve from the table view a now-unused cell with the given identifier. UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; // If no cell is available, create a new one using the given identifier. if (cell == nil) { // Use the default cell style. cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:MyIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Set up the cell. NSString *cadence = [gameTimingTable objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = cadence; return cell; } /* To conform to Human Interface Guildelines, since selecting a row would have no effect (such as navigation), make sure that rows cannot be selected. */ - (NSIndexPath *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { return nil; } thanks a lot

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  • Circular file references not allowed

    - by Program.X
    Hi, I am having a problem in building my solution in VS2008. Normally, it compiles fine in the environment. Sometimes, it fails with: /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. I rebuild and it works fine. Now, however, I am in the middle of setting up a CruiseControl.NET system and am testing my checked out code with MSBuild before I integrate the build into CC. Now, everytime I MSBuild, I get: "Q:\cc\xxx\checked out from svn\xxx.sln" (default target) (1) -> (xxx_WEB target) -> /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. Problem is, I can't see where this reference is. I have searched for the reference across the entire solution and canf ind no references to the page itself (CMSManagedTargetPage) anywhere other than in the page or its codebehind, or within a string, eg: C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(82): inputFile = context.Server.MapPath("~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"); C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(83): virtualPath = "~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"; My assembly references are also fine (as far as I know). My Web Application is at the "top" of the dependencies, and nothing references it and therefore the faulting page so cannot cause a circular reference. Of course, the page itself may reference something such as a UserControl within the same assembly/web site, but as mentioned earlier, a search on CMSManagedTargetPage yielded no results so this is not happening. Changing the batch attribute in web.config had no effect on MSBuild. I find it very odd that it "sometimes" fails in VS and always fails in MSBuild. Am I missing some subtlety?

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  • Model validation with enumerations

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I'm using DataAnnotations attributes to validate my model objects. My model class looks similar to this: public class MyModel { [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public List<User> Editors { get; set; } } public class User { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string FullName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Email)] public string Email { get; set; } } My controller action looks like: public ActionResult NewItem(MyModel data) { //... } User is presented with a view that has a form with: a text box with dummy name where users enter user's names. For each user they enter, there's a client script coupled with ajax that creates an <input type="hidden" name="data.Editors[0].Id" value="userId" /> for each user entered (enumeration index is therefore not always 0 as written here), so default model binder is able to consume and bind the form without any problems. a text box where users enter the title Since I'm using Asp.net MVC 2 RTM which does model validation instead of input validation I don't know how to avoid validation errors. The thing is I have to use BindAttribute on my controller action. I would have to either provide a white or a black list of properties. It's always a better practice to provide a white list. It's also more future proof. The problem My form works fine, but I get validation errors about user's FullName and Email properties since they are not provided. I also shouldn't feed them to the client (via ajax when user enters user data), because email is personal contact data and is not shared between users. If there was just a single user reference on MyModel I would write [Bind(Include = "Title, Editor.Id")] But I have an enumeration of them. How do I provide Bind white list to work with my model?

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  • Clear form field after select for jQuery UI Autocomplete

    - by jonfhancock
    I'm developing a form, and using jQuery UI Autocomplete. When the user selects an option, I want the selection to pop into a span appended to the parent <p> tag. Then I want the field to clear rather than be populated with the selection. I have the span appearing just fine, but I can't get the field to clear. How do you cancel jQuery UI Autocomplete's default select action? Here is my code: var availableTags = ["cheese", "milk", "dairy", "meat", "vegetables", "fruit", "grains"]; $("[id^=item-tag-]").autocomplete({ source: availableTags, select: function(){ var newTag = $(this).val(); $(this).val(""); $(this).parent().append("<span>" + newTag + "<a href=\"#\">[x]</a> </span>"); } }); Simply doing $(this).val(""); doesn't work. What is maddening is that almost the exact function works fine if I ignore autocomplete, and just take action when the user types a comma as such: $('[id^=item-tag-]').keyup(function(e) { if(e.keyCode == 188) { var newTag = $(this).val().slice(0,-1); $(this).val(''); $(this).parent().append("<span>" + newTag + "<a href=\"#\">[x]</a> </span>"); } }); The real end result is to get autocomplete to work with multiple selections. If anybody has any suggestions for that, they would be welcome.

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