Search Results

Search found 61449 results on 2458 pages for 'base class library'.

Page 707/2458 | < Previous Page | 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714  | Next Page >

  • Wordpress is_front_page if statement

    - by Anders Kitson
    I have the following code below. I am trying to get rid of the box articles div when I am on the home page the code works when the html is outside of the else portion of the IF statement, as soon as I put it inside the page goes blank, I can't seem to figure out where I have broken the code. Any help would be great. <?php if(is_front_page()) { if(function_exists('wp_content_slider')) { wp_content_slider(); } } else{ ?> <div class="box articles"> <div class="block" id="articles"> <h2><?php the_title(); ?></h2> <div class="article"> <div class="entry"> <?php the_content(); ?> </div> <?php edit_post_link('Modifca Contenuto.', '<p>', '</p>'); ?> </div> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> <? } ?>

    Read the article

  • How can I bind to a helper property in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    For the sake of argument, here's a simple person class public class Person : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public static readonly DependencyProperty FirstNameProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "FirstName", typeof ( string ), typeof ( Person ), null ); public static readonly DependencyProperty LastNameProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "LastName", typeof( string ), typeof( Person ), null ); public string FirstName { get { return ( string ) GetValue( FirstNameProperty ); } set { SetValue( FirstNameProperty, value ); if(PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs( "FirstName" )); } } public string LastName { get { return ( string ) GetValue( LastNameProperty ); } set { SetValue( LastNameProperty, value ); if ( PropertyChanged != null ) PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs( "LastName" ) ); } } } I want to go about creating a readonly property like this public string FullName { get { return FirstName + " " + LastName; } } How does binding work in this scenario? I've tried adding a DependancyProperty and raised the PropertyChanged event for the fullname. Basically I just want to have a property that I can bind to that returns the fullname of a user whenever the first or last name changes. Here's the final class I'm using with the modifications. public class Person : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public static readonly DependencyProperty FirstNameProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "FirstName", typeof ( string ), typeof ( Person ), null ); public static readonly DependencyProperty LastNameProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "LastName", typeof( string ), typeof( Person ), null ); public static readonly DependencyProperty FullNameProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "FullName", typeof( string ), typeof( Person ), null ); public string FirstName { get { return ( string ) GetValue( FirstNameProperty ); } set { SetValue( FirstNameProperty, value ); if ( PropertyChanged != null ) { PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs( "FirstName" ) ); PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs( "FullName" ) ); } } } public string LastName { get { return ( string ) GetValue( LastNameProperty ); } set { SetValue( LastNameProperty, value ); if ( PropertyChanged != null ) { PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs( "LastName" ) ); PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs( "FullName" ) ); } } } public string FullName { get { return GetValue( FirstNameProperty ) + " " + GetValue( LastNameProperty ); } } }

    Read the article

  • When to use @Singleton in a Jersey resource

    - by dexter
    I have a Jersey resource that access the database. Basically it opens a database connection in the initialization of the resource. Performs queries on the resource's methods. I have observed that when I do not use @Singleton, the database is being open at each request. And we know opening a connection is really expensive right? So my question is, should I specify that the resource be singleton or is it really better to keep it at per request especially when the resource is connecting to the database? My resource code looks like this: //Use @Singleton here or not? @Path(/myservice/) public class MyResource { private ResponseGenerator responser; private Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(MyResource.class); public MyResource() { responser = new ResponseGenerator(); } @GET @Path("/clients") public String getClients() { logger.info("GETTING LIST OF CLIENTS"); return responser.returnClients(); } ... // some more methods ... } And I connect to the database using a code similar to this: public class ResponseGenerator { private Connection conn; private PreparedStatement prepStmt; private ResultSet rs; public ResponseGenerator(){ Class.forName("org.h2.Driver"); conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:h2:testdb"); } public String returnClients(){ String result; try{ prepStmt = conn.prepareStatement("SELECT * FROM hosts"); rs = prepStmt.executeQuery(); ... //do some processing here ... } catch (SQLException se){ logger.warn("Some message"); } finally { rs.close(); prepStmt.close(); // should I also close the connection here (in every method) if I stick to per request // and add getting of connection at the start of every method // conn.close(); } return result } ... // some more methods ... } Some comments on best practices for the code will also be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Conversion between different template instantiation of the same template

    - by Naveen
    I am trying to write an operator which converts between the differnt types of the same implementation. This is the sample code: template <class T = int> class A { public: A() : m_a(0){} template <class U> operator A<U>() { A<U> u; u.m_a = m_a; return u; } private: int m_a; }; int main(void) { A<int> a; A<double> b = a; return 0; } However, it gives the following error for line u.m_a = m_a;. Error 2 error C2248: 'A::m_a' : cannot access private member declared in class 'A' d:\VC++\Vs8Console\Vs8Console\Vs8Console.cpp 30 Vs8Console I understand the error is because A<U> is a totally different type from A<T>. Is there any simple way of solving this (may be using a friend?) other than providing setter and getter methods? I am using Visual studio 2008 if it matters.

    Read the article

  • Who deletes the copied instance in + operator ? (c++)

    - by Dima
    Hello, I searched how to implement + operator properly all over the internet and all the results i found do the following steps : const MyClass MyClass::operator+(const MyClass &other) const { MyClass result = *this; // Make a copy of myself. Same as MyClass result(*this); result += other; // Use += to add other to the copy. return result; // All done! } I have few questions about this "process" : Isn't that stupid to implement + operator this way, it calls the assignment operator(which copies the class) in the first line and then the copy constructor in the return (which also copies the class , due to the fact that the return is by value, so it destroys the first copy and creates a new one.. which is frankly not really smart ... ) When i write a=b+c, the b+c part creates a new copy of the class, then the 'a=' part copies the copy to himself. who deletes the copy that b+c created ? Is there a better way to implement + operator without coping the class twice, and also without any memory issues ? thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • PHP what is faster to use

    - by user1631500
    What is faster / better to use? To put html into variables and print them later, or to just html print / echo print the content based on condition? EXAMPLE 1:(html into variables) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = "<span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span>" } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = You are cool enough to view the content; } echo $var; EXAMPLE 2:(print based on condition) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = 1; } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = 0; } if ($var==1) { ?> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span <?php } else { ?> You are cool enough to view the content. <?php } ?>

    Read the article

  • c# Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters?

    - by Rich Oliver
    Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters. I frequently have classes like: public class Example<T> where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} } Lets say BaseClass is as follows; public BaseClass { public int num; } I then want a method of say: public int MyArbitarySumMethod(Example example)//This won't compile Example not closed { int sum = 0; foreach(BaseClass i in example.myList)//myList being infered as an IEnumerable sum += i.num; sum = sum * example.a; return sum; } I then have to write an interface just to pass this one class as a parameter as follows: public interface IExample { public int a {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get;} } The generic class then has to be modified to: public class Example<T>: IExample where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get {return myList;} } } That's a lot of ceremony for what I would have thought the compiler could infer. Even if something can't be changed I find it psychologically very helpful if I know the reasons / justifications for the absence of Syntax short cuts.

    Read the article

  • How to face observable object containing an observable field

    - by iseek
    Hello, I need a hint concerning MVC and Observer-Pattern. For example a model contains the classes "Address" and "Person". The Address class contains the fields street:String, zipcode:String, location:String. Whereas the Person class contains the fields name:String, firstName:String, address:Address. My approach so far looks something like this: Both, Address and Person are observable. If one of their setters is being called, I validate whether the current value and new value differ. Only in this case an update event is fired. The event contains the source, the name of the changed field, the old and the new value. The class for the view contains text fields to display and edit the information of a person: name, firstname, street, zipcode, location. It knows the Person model and is an subscribed observer for the person. So it gets the update events from the person object. My questions concerns the address field from type Address in the person class, since an address is observable on its own. If the view gets an update event from person when a new address has been set, I can update all of the address related fields in the view. But what if a field of the address changes? Should the view also register for update events from the address? Any hints about common design approaches would be appreciated. Greetings.

    Read the article

  • How to setPage() a JEditorPane with a localfile which is outside of the .jar file?

    - by Jaguar
    My program has the following path in the .jar file src/test/Program.class and my program is as follow... Program.java package test; import java.io.File; import java.io.IOException; import javax.swing.JEditorPane; import javax.swing.JFrame; public class Program { JEditorPane editorPane; public Program() { File file = new File("temp.htm"); try { file.createNewFile(); editorPane = new JEditorPane(); editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public JEditorPane getEditorPane(){ return editorPane; } public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(400, 400); frame.setVisible(true); Program p = new Program(); frame.getContentPane().add(p.getEditorPane()); } } The problem is that I have compiled the program in a .jar file. The file.createNewFile(); creates the temp.htm file outside the .jar file So when editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); is called the file is not found as it searches for file inside the test package. How to setPage() the temp.htm file whiich is outside the .jar file but in the same folder as the .jar file? As the temp.htm is a localfile and I want a relative path instead of an absolute path. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Pushing elements into array as copy

    - by koko
    In prototypejs, why does the following code remove the matching divs from the #test div? What confuses me is that this happens when they are being inserted in the #droparea, and not when they are being pushed in the array. <div id="test"> <div class="foo" id="22.1234"> 1 </div> <div class="foo" id="22.1235"> 2 </div> <div class="foo" id="53.2345"> 3 </div> <div class="foo" id="53.2346"> 4 </div> </div> <div id="droparea"> </div> js var elArray = []; var els = $('test').select('.foo'); els.each(function(x){ if(x.id.split('.')[0] == 22){ elArray.push(x); } }); elArray.each(function(y){ $('droparea').insert({ bottom: y }); });

    Read the article

  • Preserving timestamps on Clojure .clj files when building shaded jar via Maven Shade Plugin

    - by Dereference
    When using the maven-shade-plugin to package our jar artifact that contained a few Clojure libs and some Java. We were using AOT compilation for our Clojure code. When we loaded the jar, it was having very slow load times. AOT compilation is supposed to help this quite a bit, but that wasn't what we were seeing. We noticed in java jar -verbose output that there was a lot of JVM__DEFINE_CLASS calls happening when Clojure classes were being loaded. This didn't make sense, since more of our Clojure code was AOT compiled to .class files. Turns out the maven-shade-plugin creates all new files, with new timestamps in the final artifact Clojure uses the timestamp information on a .clj file vs. a .class file, to determine if the file needs to be recompiled. The maven-shade-plugin was causing the .clj file and it's associated .class file to have the same timestamp, so Clojure always chose to dynamically recompile the source. The only workaround that we have been able to figure out, at this point, is to write a script that would re-open the shaded jar and bump the .clj file timestamps back to some time in the past, so that they wouldn't be equal to the timestamps of their associated .class files. Does anyone know of a better approach?

    Read the article

  • axis-java2wsdl task classpath setting problem

    - by qkrsppopcmpt
    Hey Guys, here is my build.xml <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <path id='axis2.classpath'> <fileset dir='D:\Tools\axis2-1.5.1-bin\axis2-1.5.1\lib'> <include name='**/*.jar' /> </fileset> </path> <path id='compiled.class.path'> <fileset dir='./bin/pkg'> <include name='*.class' /> </fileset> </path> <taskdef resource="axis-tasks.properties" classpathref="axis2.classpath" /> <target name="run" > <axis-java2wsdl output="out/TestService.wsdl" location="http://localhost:8080/axis2/service/TestService" namespace="service" classname="TestService"> <classpath refid="compiled.class.path"/> <mapping namespace="TestService" package="pkg"/> </axis-java2wsdl> </target> here is my file structure: prj-bin-pkg-TestService.class/////////// prj-src-pkg-TestService.java/////////// prj-build.xml I get java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: TestService. Can anybody tell me how to fix it? Thanks so much. !!!!!!!!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • Call event from original thread ??

    - by user311883
    Hi all, Here is my problem, I have a class which have a object who throw an event and in this event I throw a custom event from my class. But unfortunately the original object throw the event from another thread and so my event is also throw on another thread. This cause a exception when my custom event try to access from controls. Here is a code sample to better understand : class MyClass { // Original object private OriginalObject myObject; // My event public delegate void StatsUpdatedDelegate(object sender, StatsArgs args); public event StatsUpdatedDelegate StatsUpdated; public MyClass() { // Original object event myObject.AnEvent += new EventHandler(myObject_AnEvent); } // This event is called on another thread private void myObject_AnEvent(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Throw my custom event here StatsArgs args = new StatsArgs(..........); StatsUpdated(this, args); } } So when on my windows form I call try to update a control from the event StatsUpdated I get a cross thread exception cause it has been called on another thread. What I want to do is throw my custom event on the original class thread, so control can be used within it. Anyone can help me ?

    Read the article

  • Changing brightness in bufferedImage with DataBufferInt

    - by user2958025
    I must read some image and then I have to change brightness and contrast of this image I create main class and constructor where are panels, sliders and other stuff, I added changeListener to slider to take current value. My imagePanel is new Object of that class: public class Obrazek extends JPanel{ public static BufferedImage img = null; public Obrazek() { super(); try { img = ImageIO.read(new File("D:\\ja.jpg")); } catch (IOException e) {} } @Override public void paint(Graphics g) { g.drawImage(img, 0, 0, null); } } This is my load button private void przyciskWczytaj(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { int odpowiedz = jFileChooser1.showOpenDialog(this); if (odpowiedz == jFileChooser1.APPROVE_OPTION) { File file = jFileChooser1.getSelectedFile(); try { BufferedImage im = ImageIO.read(new File(file.getAbsolutePath())); Obrazek.img = im; } catch (IOException ex) { System.out.println("Error"); } } } And now I want to create class where I will change that brightness. I have to use but I don't know how to use that thing: BufferedImage(256, 256, Bufferedmage.TYPE_INT_RGB) and to get each pixel of image I need to do something like: int rgb []=((DataBufferInt)img.getRaster().getDataBuffer()).getData(); And here I is next problem: How can I change the value of each r,g,b and show that new image on my panel

    Read the article

  • How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

    - by feydr
    I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to tech myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

    Read the article

  • C# array of objects - conditional validation

    - by fishdump
    Sorry about the vague title! I have an class with a number of member variables (system, zone, site, ...) public sealed class Cello { public String Company; public String Zone; public String System; public String Site; public String Facility; public String Process; //... } I have an array of objects of this class. private Cello[] m_cellos = null; // ... I need to know whether the array contains objects with the same site but different systems, zones or companies since such a situation would be illegal. I have various other checks to make but they are all along similar lines. The Array class has a number of functions that look promising but I am not very up on defining 'key selector' functions and things like that. Any suggestions or pointers would be greatly appreciated. --- Alistair.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

    - by testing123
    Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

    Read the article

  • C++ destructor problem with boost::scoped_ptr

    - by bb-generation
    I have a question about the following code: #include <iostream> #include <boost/scoped_ptr.hpp> class Interface { }; class A : public Interface { public: A() { std::cout << "A()" << std::endl; } virtual ~A() { std::cout << "~A()" << std::endl; } }; Interface* get_a() { A* a = new A; return a; } int main() { { std::cout << "1" << std::endl; boost::scoped_ptr<Interface> x(get_a()); std::cout << "2" << std::endl; } std::cout << "3" << std::endl; } It creates the following output: 1 A() 2 3 As you can see, it doesn't call the destructor of A. The only way I see to get the destructor of A being called, is to add a destructor for the Interface class like this: virtual ~Interface() { } But I really want to avoid any Implementation in my Interface class and virtual ~Interface() = 0; doesn't work (produces some linker errors complaining about a non existing implementation of ~Interface(). So my question is: What do I have to change in order to make the destructor being called, but (if possible) leave the Interface as an Interface (only abstract methods).

    Read the article

  • Adding Variables to JavaScript in Joomla

    - by Vikram
    Hello friends! This is the script I am using to display an accordion in my Joomla site: <?php defined('JPATH_BASE') or die(); gantry_import('core.gantryfeature'); class GantryFeatureAccordion extends GantryFeature { var $_feature_name = 'accordion'; function init() { global $gantry; if ($this->get('enabled')) { $gantry->addScript('accordion.js'); $gantry->addInlineScript($this->_accordion()); } } function render($position="") { ob_start(); ?> <div id="accordion"> <dl> <?php foreach (glob("templates/rt_gantry_j15/features/accordion/*.php") as $filename) {include($filename);} ?> </dl> </div> <?php return ob_get_clean(); } function _accordion() { global $gantry; $js = " jQuery.noConflict(); (function($){ $(document).ready(function () { $('#accordion').easyAccordion({ slideNum: true, autoStart: true, slideInterval: 4000 }); }); })(jQuery); "; return $js; } } I want to call these three values in the templateDetails.XML file as a user input. slideNum: true, autoStart: true, slideInterval: 4000 Like this in the templateDetails.xml file: <param name="accordion" type="chain" label="ACCORDION" description="ACCORDION_DESC"> <param name="slideNum" type="text" default="true" label="Offset Y" class="text-short" /> <param name="autoStart" type="text" default="true" label="Offset Y" class="text-short" /> <param name="autoStart" type="text" default="4000" label="Offset Y" class="text-short" /> </param> How can I do so? What will be the exact syntax for the same. I am very new to programming ans specially to JavaScript. Kindly help.

    Read the article

  • ServiceStack razor default page

    - by Tom
    Say I have 2 pages /NotADefault.cshtml /Views/Default.cshtml Question 1. Now I run it, page A always gets called implicitly as start-up default page no matter what I name it. Page B will only be called when I explicitly call localhost/View/Default. How do I make page B (the one in View folder) my default page? Question 2. I also have NotADefaultService.cs and DefaultService.cs. I give each page a Service class at the back. However, when page A is called NotADefaultService.cs never gets called. Only DefaultService.cs gets called when page B is called... My observation is that only the pages in the View folder will get their back-end service class working. Outside of View folder it doesn't work. Combining Q1 and Q2. How do I: Option 1. get the backend service class working under / root outside "View" folder? OR Option 2. appoint /View/Default.schtml as my default at start-up where the service class can be hit?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Search + Spring

    - by Zane
    I'm trying to integrate Hibernate Search with Spring, but I can't seem to index anything. I was able to get Hibernate Search to work without Spring, but I'm having a problem integrating it with Spring. Any help would be much appreciated. Below is my springmvc-servlet.xml: <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="enewsclipsPersistenceUnit" /> </bean> And here is my DAO class: @Repository public class SearchDaoImpl implements SearchDao { JpaTemplate jpaTemplate; @Autowired public SearchDaoImpl(EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory) { this.jpaTemplate = new JpaTemplate(entityManagerFactory); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public void updateSearchIndex() { /* Implement the callback method */ jpaTemplate.execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { List<Article> articles = em.createQuery("select a from Article a").getResultList(); FullTextEntityManager ftEm = Search.getFullTextEntityManager(em); ftEm.getTransaction().begin(); for(Article article : articles) { System.out.println("Indexing Item " + article.getTitle()); ftEm.index(article); } ftEm.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); } } I think that it may have to do with the transactions but I'm not exactly sure. If you could just point me in the right direction, that would be helpful too! Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Make a <div> disappear inside a javascript script

    - by KeenClock
    First of all, I have this line of code on a random page : <script type="text/javascript" src="script.php"></script> On the page named "script.php", I have a <div class="something">random text</div> and the random text is displayed and everything is working fine. Now, I would like to know if it's possible to make that specific <div> to disappear without having to modify the code inside the "script.php" page. Thank you ! Edit: Thank you to all of you, you helped me found a solution, here is an example : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr" lang="fr"><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Random page</title> <style type="text/css"> div.something { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: underline; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hideSomething() { document.getElementsByClassName("something")[2].style.display = "none"; } </script> </head> <body> <div class="something">random text 1</div> <div class="something">random text 2</div> <div class="something">random text 3</div> <br /><input type="submit" value="Disappear" onclick="hideSomething()" /> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • jQuery slideDown + CSS Floats

    - by danilo
    I'm using a HTML Table with several rows. Every second row - containing details about the preceding row - is hidden using CSS. When clicking the first row, the second row gets showed using jQuery show(). This is quite nice, but I would prefer the slideDown-Effect. The problem is, inside the details row, there are two floating DIVs, one floating on the left, and one on the right. Now if i slideDown the previously hidden row, the contained DIVs behave strange and "jump around". See this animated gif to understand what I mean: http://ich-wars-nicht.ch/tmp/lunapic_127365879362365_.gif The markup: <tr class="row-vm"> <td>...</td> ... </tr> <tr class="row-details"> <td colspan="8"> <div class="vmdetail-left"> ... </div> <div class="vmdetail-right"> ... </div> </td> </tr> The CSS: .table-vmlist tr.row-details { display: none; } div.vmdetail-left { float: left; width: 50%; } div.vmdetail-right { float: right; width: 50%; } And the jQuery code: if ($(this).next().css('display') == 'none') { // Show details //$(this).next().show(); $(this).next().slideDown(); } else { // Hide details //$(this).next().hide(); $(this).next().slideUp(); } Is there a way to fix this behavior, and to implement a nice slideDown-effect?

    Read the article

  • IE8 problems with .animate() of opacity property - descendant remains opaque throughout

    - by Fabian
    Basically I have something like this: <ul> <li> <a> <div class="trigger-layer"></div> <div class="title-layer">Text here</div> <div class="hover-layer"></div> </a> </li> </ul> I use jQuery to animate the <ul> as follow: $ul = xxx (where I assign the selector to var $ul) $ul.animate({opacity: 0}, 1000, function() {$ul.css("display", "none")}); However in IE8, as the <ul> fades off, the <div class="title-layer">Text here</div> remains clear and opaque. Finally the animation ends, the display: none; property is applied onto the <ul> and the text disappears aburptly.

    Read the article

  • hibernate annotation bi-directional mapping

    - by smithystar
    I'm building a web application using Spring framework and Hibernate with annotation and get stuck with a simple mapping between two entities. I'm trying to create a many-to-many relationship between User and Course. I followed one of the Hibernate tutorials and my implementation is as follows: User class: @Entity @Table(name="USER") public class User { private Long id; private String email; private String password; private Set<Course> courses = new HashSet<Course>(0); @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="USER_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="USER_EMAIL") public String getEmail() { return email; } public void setEmail(String email) { this.email = email; } @Column(name="USER_PASSWORD") public String getPassword() { return password; } public void setPassword(String password) { this.password = password; } @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "USER_COURSE", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "USER_ID") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "COURSE_ID") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } } Course class: @Entity @Table(name="COURSE") public class Course { private Long id; private String name; @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="COURSE_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="NAME") public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } The problem is that this implementation only allows me to go one way user.getCourses() What do I need to change, so I can go in both directions? user.getCourses() course.getUsers() Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714  | Next Page >