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  • How is conversion of float/double to int handled in printf?

    - by Sandip
    Consider this program int main() { float f = 11.22; double d = 44.55; int i,j; i = f; //cast float to int j = d; //cast double to int printf("i = %d, j = %d, f = %d, d = %d", i,j,f,d); //This prints the following: // i = 11, j = 44, f = -536870912, d = 1076261027 return 0; } Can someone explain why the casting from double/float to int works correctly in the first case, and does not work when done in printf? This program was compiled on gcc-4.1.2 on 32-bit linux machine. EDIT: Zach's answer seems logical, i.e. use of format specifiers to figure out what to pop off the stack. However then consider this follow up question: int main() { char c = 'd'; // sizeof c is 1, however sizeof character literal // 'd' is equal to sizeof(int) in ANSI C printf("lit = %c, lit = %d , c = %c, c = %d", 'd', 'd', c, c); //this prints: lit = d, lit = 100 , c = d, c = 100 //how does printf here pop off the right number of bytes even when //the size represented by format specifiers doesn't actually match //the size of the passed arguments(char(1 byte) & char_literal(4 bytes)) return 0; } How does this work?

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  • Join + IEqualityComparer<T> and HashCode

    - by Jesus Rodriguez
    Im writing my own LINQ reference but Im getting troubles with some of the more complicated operators implementations. There is a Join implementation that takes a IEqualityComparer Im getting just crazy. Im trying to understand it first before I write (obviously) Image this two lists: List<string> initials = new List<string> {"A", "B", "C", "D", "E"}; List<string> words = new List<string> {"Ant", "Crawl", "Pig", "Boat", "Elephant", "Arc"}; Nothing weird here. I want to join both lists by the Initial, something like: Initial=A Word=Ant Initial=A Word=Arc Initial=B Word=Boat ... I need a comparator, I wrote this: public class InitialComparator : IEqualityComparer<string> { public bool Equals(string x, string y) { return x.StartsWith(y); } public int GetHashCode(string obj) { return obj[0].GetHashCode(); } } The Join itself: var blah = initials.Join(words, initial => initial, word => word, (initial, word) => new {Initial = initial, Word = word}, new InitialComparator()); It's the first time Im using HashCodes, after a good session of debugging I see that every word go to the comparator and look at its HashCode, if another word has the same HashCode it calls equals. Since I want to compare just the initial I though that I just need the first letter Hash (Am I wrong?) The thing is that this is not working correctly. Its says that "Ant" and "Arc" are equals, Ok, its comparing every word in the same list or not, But it adds only the last word it finds, in this case Arc, ignoring Ant and Ant is equals to "A" too... If I put "Ant" and "Ant" it add both. In short, What is the way of doing something like that? I know that Im doing something wrong. Thank you.

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  • CreateDelegate with unknown types

    - by Giorgi
    Hello, I am trying to create Delegate for reading/writing properties of unknown type of class at runtime. I have a generic class Main<T> and a method which looks like this: Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T, object>), get) where get is a MethodInfo of the property that should be read. The problem is that when the property returns int (I guess this happens for value types) the above code throws ArgumentException because the method cannot be bound. In case of string it works well. To solve the problem I changed the code so that corresponding Delegate type is generated by using MakeGenericType. So now the code is: Type func = typeof(Func<,>); Type generic = func.MakeGenericType(typeof(T), get.ReturnType); var result = Delegate.CreateDelegate(generic, get) The problem now is that the created delegate instance of generic so I have to use DynamicInvoke which would be as slow as using pure reflection to read the field. So my question is why is that the first snippet of code fails with value types. According to MSDN it should work as it says that The return type of a delegate is compatible with the return type of a method if the return type of the method is more restrictive than the return type of the delegate and how to execute the delegate in the second snippet so that it is faster than reflection. Thanks.

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  • How Can I: Generate 40/64 Bit WEP Key In Python?

    - by Aktariel
    So, I've been beating my head against the wall of this issue for several months now, partly because it's a side interest and partly because I suck at programming. I've searched and researched all across the web, but have not had any luck (except one small bit of success; see below), so I thought I might try asking the experts. What I am trying to do is, as the title suggests, generate a 40/64 bit WEP key from a passphrase, according to the "de facto" standard. (A site such as [http://www.powerdog.com/wepkey.cgi] produces the expected outputs.) I have already written portions of the script that take inputs and write them to a file; one of the inputs would be the passphrase, sanitized to lower case. For the longest time I had no idea what the defacto standard was, much less how to even go about implementing it. I finally stumbled across a paper (http://www.lava.net/~newsham/wlan/WEP_password_cracker.pdf) that sheds as much light as I've had yet on the issue (page 18 has the relevant bits). Apparently, the passphrase is "mapped to a 32-bit value with XOR," the result of which is then used as the seed for a "linear congruential PRNG (which one of the several PRNGs Python has would fit this description, I don't know), and then from that result several bits of the result are taken. I have no idea how to go about implementing this, since the description is rather vague. What I need is help in writing the generator in Python, and also in understanding how exactly the key is generated. I'm not much of a programmer, so explanations are appreciated as well. (Yes, I know that WEP isn't secure.)

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  • DAL Layer : EF 4.0 or Normal Data access layer with Stored Procedure

    - by Harryboy
    Hello Experts, Application : I am working on one mid-large size application which will be used as a product, we need to decide on our DAL layer. Application UI is in Silverlight and DAL layer is going to be behind service layer. We are also moving ahead with domain model, so our DB tables and domain classes are not having same structure. So patterns like Data Mapper and Repository will definitely come into picture. I need to design DAL Layer considering below mentioned factors in priority manner Speed of Development with above average performance Maintenance Future support and stability of the technology Performance Limitation : 1) As we need to strictly go ahead with microsoft, we can not use NHibernate or any other ORM except EF 4.0 2) We can use any code generation tool (Should be Open source or very cheap) but it should only generate code in .Net, so there would not be any licensing issue on per copy basis. Questions I read so many articles about EF 4.0, on outset it looks like that it is still lacking in features from NHibernate but it is considerably better then EF 1.0 So, Do you people feel that we should go ahead with EF 4.0 or we should stick to ADO .Net and use any code geneartion tool like code smith or any other you feel best Also i need to answer questions like what time it will take to port application from EF 4.0 to ADO .Net if in future we stuck up with EF 4.0 for some features or we are having serious performance issue. In reverse case if we go ahead and choose ADO .Net then what time it will take to swith to EF 4.0 Lastly..as i was going through the article i found the code only approach (with POCO classes) seems to be best suited for our requirement as switching is really easy from one technology to other. Please share your thoughts on the same and please guide on the above questions

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  • getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

    - by Nir
    I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

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  • Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

    - by user304361
    I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • I deleted a full set of columns in a save, but have the original larger sheet, Can I get that back?

    - by Ben Henley
    I have an original sheet that has over 39000 lines in it. I knocked it down to 1800 lines that I want to improt into my database, however. The Dumb#$$ that I am, I selected only the visible cells and killed like 10 columns that I need. Is there a way to compare to the original sheet using a specific column... i.e. SKU and pull the data from the origianal to put back in the missing columns or do I have to just re-edit the whole thing down again. Please help as this takes a good day or two to minimize. Any and all help is much appreciated. Below is the column list on the edited sheet vs. the original sheet. SKU DESCRIPTION VENDOR PART # RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG BLISH VENDOR # FINE LINE CLASS ITEM ACTION FLAG PRIMARY UPC STOCK U/M WEIGHT LENGTH WIDTH HEIGHT SHIP-VIA EXCLUSION HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL SKU DESCRIPTION RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG FINE LINE CLASS HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL RETAIL SENSITIVITY CODE 2ND UPC CODE 3RD UPC CODE 4TH UPC CODE HEADLINE BULLET #1 BULLET #2 BULLET #3 BULLET #4 BULLET #5 BULLET #6 BULLET #7 BULLET #8 BULLET #9 SIZE COLOR CASE QUANTITY PRODUCT LINE Thanks, Ben

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  • Are licenses relevant for small code snippets?

    - by Martin
    When I'm about to write a short algorithm, I first check in the base class library I'm using whether the algorithm is implemented in it. If not, I often do a quick google search to see if someone has done it before (which is the case, 19 times out of 20). Most of the time, I find the exact code I need. Sometimes it's clear what license applies to the source code, sometimes not. It may be GPL, LGPL, BSD or whatever. Sometimes people have posted a code snippet on some random forum which solves my problem. It's clear to me that I can't reuse the code (copy/paste it into my code) without caring about the license if the code is in some way substantial. What is not clear to me is whether I can copy a code snippet containing 5 lines or so without doing a license violation. Can I copy/paste a 5-line code snippet without caring about the license? What about one-liner? What about 10 lines? Where do I draw the line (no pun intended)? My second problem is that if I have found a 10-line code snippet which does exactly what I need, but feel that I cannot copy it because it's GPL-licensed and my software isn't, I have already memorized how to implement it so when I go around implementing the same functionality, my code is almost identical to the GPL licensed code I saw a few minutes ago. (In other words, the code was copied to my brain and my brain after that copied it into my source code).

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  • Combo box in a scrollable panel causing problems

    - by Dennis
    I have a panel with AutoScroll set to true. In it, I am programmatically adding ComboBox controls. If I add enough controls to exceed the viewable size of the panel a scroll bar appears (so far so good). However, if I open one of the combo boxes near the bottom of the viewable area the combo list isn't properly displayed and the scrollable area seems to be expanded. This results in all of the controls being "pulled" to the new bottom of the panel with some new blank space at the top. If I continue to tap on the drop down at the bottom of the panel the scrollable area will continue to expand indefinitely. I'm anchoring the controls to the left, right and top so I don't think anchoring is involved. Is there something obvious that could be causing this? Update: It looks like the problem lies with anchoring the controls to the right. If I don't anchor to the right then I don't get the strange behavior. However, without right anchoring the control gets cut off by the scroll bar. Here's a simplified test case I built that shows the issue: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); Panel panel = new Panel(); panel.Size = new Size(80, 200); panel.AutoScroll = true; for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { ComboBox cb = new ComboBox(); cb.Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left | AnchorStyles.Right | AnchorStyles.Top; cb.Items.Add("Option 1"); cb.Items.Add("Option 2"); cb.Items.Add("Option 3"); cb.Items.Add("Option 4"); cb.Location = new Point(0, i * 24); panel.Controls.Add(cb); } Controls.Add(panel); } If you scroll the bottom of the panel and tap on the combo boxes near the bottom you'll notice the strange behavior.

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  • Understanding F# Asynchronous Programming

    - by Yin Zhu
    I kind of know the syntax of asynchronous programming in F#. E.g. let downloadUrl(url:string) = async { let req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) // Run operation asynchronously let! resp = req.AsyncGetResponse() let stream = resp.GetResponseStream() // Dispose 'StreamReader' when completed use reader = new StreamReader(stream) // Run asynchronously and then return the result return! reader.AsyncReadToEnd() } In F# expert book (and many other sources), they say like let! var = expr simply means "perform the asynchronous operation expr and bind the result to var when the operation completes. Then continue by executing the rest of the computation body" I also know that a new thread is created when performing async operation. My original understanding was that there are two parallel threads after the async operation, one doing I/O and one continuing to execute the async body at the same time. But in this example, I am confused at let! resp = req.AsyncGetResponse() let stream = resp.GetResponseStream() What happens if resp has not started yet and the thread in the async body wants to GetResponseStream? Is this a possible error? So maybe my original understanding was wrong. The quoted sentences in the F# expert book actually means that "creating a new thread, hang the current thread up, when the new thread finishes, wake up the body thread and continue", but in this case I don't see we could save any time. In the original understanding, the time is saved when there are several independent IO operations in one async block so that they could be done at the same time without intervention with each other. But here, if I don't get the response, I cannot create the stream; only I have stream, I can start reading the stream. Where's the time gained?

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  • Destructuring assignment in JavaScript

    - by Anders Rune Jensen
    As can be seen in the Mozilla changlog for JavaScript 1.7 they have added destructuring assignment. Sadly I'm not very fond of the syntax (why write a and b twice?): var a, b; [a, b] = f(); Something like this would have been a lot better: var [a, b] = f(); That would still be backwards compatible. Python-like destructuring would not be backwards compatible. Anyway the best solution for JavaScript 1.5 that I have been able to come up with is: function assign(array, map) { var o = Object(); var i = 0; $.each(map, function(e, _) { o[e] = array[i++]; }); return o; } Which works like: var array = [1,2]; var _ = assign[array, { var1: null, var2: null }); _.var1; // prints 1 _.var2; // prints 2 But this really sucks because _ has no meaning. It's just an empty shell to store the names. But sadly it's needed because JavaScript doesn't have pointers. On the plus side you can assign default values in the case the values are not matched. Also note that this solution doesn't try to slice the array. So you can't do something like {first: 0, rest: 0}. But that could easily be done, if one wanted that behavior. What is a better solution?

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  • Adaptive user interface/environment algorithm

    - by WowtaH
    Hi all, I'm working on an information system (in C#) that (while my users use it) gathers statistical data on what pieces of information (tables & records) each user is requesting the most, and what parts of the interface he/she uses most. I'm using this statistical data to make the application adaptive to the user's needs, both in the way the interface presents itself (eg: tab/pane-ordering) as in the way of using the frequently viewed information to (eg:) show higher in search results/suggestion-lists. What i'm looking for is an algorithm/formula to determine the current 'hotness'/relevance of these objects for a specific user. A simple 'hitcounter' for each object won't be sufficient because the user might view some information quite frequently for a period of time, and then moving on to the next, making the old information less relevant. So i think my algorithm also needs some sort of sliding/historical principle to account for the changing popularity of the objects in the application over time. So, the question is: Does anybody have some sort of algorithm that accounts for that 'popularity over time' ? Preferably with some explanation on the parameters :) Thanks! PS I've looked at other posts like http://stackoverflow.com/questions/32397/popularity-algorithm but i could't quite port it to my specific case. Any help is appreciated.

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  • python 'with' statement

    - by Stephen
    Hi, I'm using Python 2.5. I'm trying to use this 'with' statement. from __future__ import with_statement a = [] with open('exampletxt.txt','r') as f: while True: a.append(f.next().strip().split()) print a The contents of 'exampletxt.txt' are simple: a b In this case, I get the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "/tmp/python-7036sVf.py", line 5, in <module> a.append(f.next().strip().split()) StopIteration And if I replace f.next() with f.read(), it seems to be caught in an infinite loop. I wonder if I have to write a decorator class that accepts the iterator object as an argument, and define an __exit__ method for it? I know it's more pythonic to use a for-loop for iterators, but I wanted to implement a while loop within a generator that's called by a for-loop... something like def g(f): while True: x = f.next() if test(x): a = x elif test(x): b = f.next() yield [a,x,b] a = [] with open(filename) as f: for x in g(f): a.append(x)

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  • HTTP POST prarameters order / REST urls

    - by pq
    Let's say that I'm uploading a large file via a POST HTTP request. Let's also say that I have another parameter (other than the file) that names the resource which the file is updating. The resource cannot be not part of the URL the way you can do it with REST (e.g. foo.com/bar/123). Let's say this is due to a combination of technical and political reasons. The server needs to ignore the file if the resource name is invalid or, say, the IP address and/or the logged in user are not authorized to update the resource. Looks like, if this POST came from an HTML form that contains the resource name first and file field second, for most (all?) browsers, this order is preserved in the POST request. But it would be naive to fully rely on that, no? In other words the order of HTTP parameters is insignificant and a client is free to construct the POST in any order. Isn't that true? Which means that, at least in theory, the server may end up storing the whole large file before it can deny the request. It seems to me that this is a clear case where RESTful urls have an advantage, since you don't have to look at the POST content to perform certain authorization/error checking on the request. Do you agree? What are your thoughts, experiences?

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  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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  • Maven Mojo & SCM Plugin: Check for a valid working directory

    - by Patrick Bergner
    Hi there. I'm using maven-scm-plugin from within a Mojo and am trying to figure out how to determine if a directory D is a valid working directory of an SCM URL U (i.e. a checkout of U to D already happened). The context is that I want to do a checkout of U if D is a working set or do an update if it isn't. The plan is to check out U to D if D does not exist, update D if D is a valid working directory of U, display an error if D exists and is not a valid working directory of U. What I tried is to call ScmManager.status(), ScmManager.list() and ScmManager.changelog() and try to guess something from their results. But that didn't work. The results from status and changelog always return something positive (isSuccess() = true, getChangedFiles() = valid List, no exceptions to catch), whereas list throws an exception in any case. ScmRepository and ScmFileSet don't seem to provide suitable methods as well. An option would be to always do an update if D exists but then I cannot tell if it is a working directory of U or any SCM working directory at all. The ideal solution would be independent of the actual SCM system and a specific ScmVersion. Thanks for your help! Patrick

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  • How to send a JSONObject to a REST service?

    - by Sebi
    Retrieving data from the REST Server works well, but if I want to post an object it doesn't work: public static void postJSONObject(int store_type, FavoriteItem favorite, String token, String objectName) { String url = ""; switch(store_type) { case STORE_PROJECT: url = URL_STORE_PROJECT_PART1 + token + URL_STORE_PROJECT_PART2; //data = favorite.getAsJSONObject(); break; } HttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost postMethod = new HttpPost(url); try { HttpEntity entity = new StringEntity("{\"ID\":0,\"Name\":\"Mein Projekt10\"}"); postMethod.setEntity(entity); HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(postMethod); Log.i("JSONStore", "Post request, to URL: " + url); System.out.println("Status code: " + response.getStatusLine().getStatusCode()); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { I always get a 400 Error Code. Does anybody know whats wrong? I have working C# code, but I can't convert: System.Net.WebRequest wr = System.Net.HttpWebRequest.Create("http://localhost:51273/WSUser.svc/pak3omxtEuLrzHSUSbQP/project"); wr.Method = "POST"; string data = "{\"ID\":1,\"Name\":\"Mein Projekt\"}"; byte [] d = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(data); wr.ContentLength = d.Length; wr.ContentType = "application/json"; wr.GetRequestStream().Write(d, 0, d.Length); System.Net.WebResponse wresp = wr.GetResponse(); System.IO.StreamReader sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(wresp.GetResponseStream()); string line = sr.ReadToEnd();

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  • PHP $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] vs. $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], am I understanding the man pages correctly?

    - by Jeff
    I did a lot of searching and also read the PHP $_SERVER man page. Do I have this right regarding which to use for my PHP scripts for simple link definitions used throughout my site? $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'] is based on your web servers' config file (Apache2 in my case), and varies depending on a few directives: (1) VirtualHost, (2) ServerName, (3) UseCanonicalName, etc. $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is based on the request from the client. Therefore, it would seem to me that the proper one to use in order to make my scripts as compatible as possible would be $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']. Is this assumption correct? Followup comments: I guess I got a little paranoid after reading this article and noting that someone said "they wouldn't trust any of the $_SERVER vars": http://markjaquith.wordpress.com/2009/09/21/php-server-vars-not-safe-in-forms-or-links/ and also: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php (comment: Vladimir Kornea 14-Mar-2009 01:06) Apparently the discussion is mainly about $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] and why you shouldn't use it in the form action attribute without proper escaping to prevent XSS attacks. My conclusion about my original question above is that it is "safe" to use $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] for all links on a site without having to worry about XSS attacks, even when used in forms. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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  • Web Grid, Client side Binding VS. Server side HTML generation

    - by Ron Harlev
    I'm working on replacing an existing web grid in an ASP.NET web application, with a new implementation. The existing grid is powerful, but not flexible enough. It also brings with it all kind of frameworks we don't like to have on our web pages. While looking into existing options I noticed I can break the available solutions into two main approaches. The older approach is represented best by the ASP.NET GridView. This is a classic ASP.NET control that generates the needed HTML on the server, based on a given set of data. The newer approach is depending on client side rendering, mainly with jQuery. A good example would be jqGrid. Only the data is sent to the client (Usually with JSON or XML) In the GridView case, if I want an AJAX behavior, I would have to implement it with something like an update panel. Is there a definitive choice I should make? Is there a good chance of achieving the same snappy behavior I get with jqGrid (even with many records), with server side rendered controls? Is there some hybrid implementation incorporating both approaches?

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  • How to modify/replace option set file when building from command line?

    - by Heinrich Ulbricht
    I build packages from a batch file using commands like: msbuild ..\lib\Package.dproj /target:Build /p:config=%1 The packages' settings are dependent on an option set: <Import Project="..\optionsets\COND_Defined.optset" Condition="'$(Base)'!='' And Exists('..\optionsets\COND_Defined.optset')"/> This option set defines a conditional symbol many of my packages depend on. The file looks like this: <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <DCC_Define>CONDITION;$(DCC_Define)</DCC_Define> </PropertyGroup> <ProjectExtensions> <Borland.Personality>Delphi.Personality.12</Borland.Personality> <Borland.ProjectType>OptionSet</Borland.ProjectType> <BorlandProject> <Delphi.Personality/> </BorlandProject> <ProjectFileVersion>12</ProjectFileVersion> </ProjectExtensions> </Project> Now I need two builds: one with the condition defined and one without. My attack vector would be the option set file. I have some ideas on what to do: write a program which modifies the option set file, run this before batch build fiddle with the project files and modify the option set path to contain an environment variable, then have different option sets in different locations But before starting to reinvent the wheel I'd like to ask how you would tackle this task? Maybe there are already means meant to support such a case (like certain command line switches, things I could configure in Delphi or batch file magic).

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  • Display shift when adding rows to UITableView

    - by Kamchatka
    Hello, I have a UITableView displaying an underlying NSFetchedResultsController. When the fetchedResultsController is updated, - (void)controller:(NSFetchedResultsController *)controller didChangeObject:(id)anObject atIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath forChangeType:(NSFetchedResultsChangeType)type newIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)newIndexPath { is called. And the following is executed: case NSFetchedResultsChangeInsert: [tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:shiftedIndexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; The cellForRowAtIndexPath is only called for the new line (which is logical) The problem is however that all the values displayed in the rows of the table view are shifted down. The first row displays its title. The second rows displays the first row's title. The third row the second row's title etc. If I repeat that, the third row will display the second's row title, the fourth the third row's title etc. I don't understand what can happen, especially because cellForRowAtIndexPath is only called for the new line (which is logical) and not for all these lines. Additionally, if I click on these lines which have the wrong title, it opens the right document (didSelectRowAtIndexPath works correctly with the indexPath) Any clue of what could happen? Thanks!

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  • setlocale to fr-FR in PHP and number formatting

    - by bateman_ap
    Hi, I am trying to create a French version of one of my sites. I have set setlocale(LC_ALL, 'fr_FR'); at the top of my page, and using strftime I am displaying dates correctly in the French style. However I am having some problems with a number. Part of the page uses data I am getting from a Web Service. I am assigning a returned value to a var like this: $overallRating = $returnArray['Overall']; I am then using the following code later to format it to 1 decimal place number_format($overallRating,1) In the English version the overallRating value might be 7.5 and returns a value such as 7.5 (the reason for running it through the number_format is if it returns 7 I want it to display 7.0) However in the French version if I print out the raw $overallRating value I get 7,5 which looks like it has translated it into french. This would be fine but if I run it through number_format I get the error: Notice: A non well formed numeric value encountered in /sites/index.php on line 250 Line 250 is the number_format line I presume the translation to 7,5 is messing it up, but not sure how to solve this... Using PHP 5.3 in case there is anything new that helps me

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