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• iTextSharp Overlay Image

  - by pennylane

  Hi guys I have an instance where I have a logo image as part of some artwork.. If a user uploads a new logo I have a form field which is larger than the default logo. I then use that form field to position the new image. The problem is I need to set the background colour of that form field to white so that it covers the old logo in the event that the new image is smaller than the old logo.. what I have done is: foreach (var imageField in imageReplacements) { fields.SetFieldProperty(imageField.Key, "bgcolor", iTextSharp.text.Color.WHITE, null); fields.RegenerateField(imageField.Key); PdfContentByte overContent = stamper.GetOverContent(imageField.Value.PageNumber); float[] logoArea = fields.GetFieldPositions(imageField.Key); if (logoArea != null) { iTextSharp.text.Rectangle logoRect = new iTextSharp.text.Rectangle(logoArea[1], logoArea[2], logoArea[3], logoArea[4]); var logo = iTextSharp.text.Image.GetInstance(imageField.Value.Location); if (logo.Width >= logoRect.Width || logo.Height >= logoRect.Height) { logo.ScaleToFit(logoRect.Width, logoRect.Height); } logo.Alignment = iTextSharp.text.Image.ALIGN_LEFT; logo.SetAbsolutePosition(logoRect.Left, logoArea[2] + (logoRect.Height - logo.ScaledHeight) / 2); // left: logoArea[3] - logo.ScaledWidth + (logoRect.Width - logo.ScaledWidth) / 2 overContent.AddImage(logo); } } The problem with this is that the background colour of the field is set to white and the image then doesn't appear.. i remove the SetFieldProperty and RegenerateField commands and the image replacement works fine.. is there a way to set a stacking order on layers?

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• Tomcat deploy: make included scripts executable

  - by AlexS

  I'm devellopping a WebApplication (for Tomcat) using netbeans on Windows 7. For the Webapplication to run I need to run a insall-script once. This script (*.bat for windows and *.sh for linux is included in my war-file (WEB_INF). Now everytime I deploy the WAR-file and want to run the script on linux I have to call chmod +x install.sh first. Is there a way that this script can be made executable by default? I don't want to have to execute some extra commands after the deploy to make the script executable. For clarification: I'm not new to Linux and I know how to set executable-rights on files. That's not the problem. My problem is: What do I have to do, so that this script is executable right after tomcat deployed my *.war-file (unpacked it). If I would be using Linux for development as well, I would try to set the rights according in my sources (maybe I'll try it when I have a little more spare time). But I am using Windows and netbeans. Are there any attributes I can set to achive my goal, or is it possible to achive this using ant? By the way: Are there security related issues with this approach? The script looks for java executable and calls a javabased GUI-installer...

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• How to validate properties across Models without repeating the validation logic

  - by Mano

  Hello All, I am building a ASP.NET Mvc app. I have a Data model say User public class user { public int userId {get; private set}; public string FirstName {get; set;} } The validation to be done is that the firstname cannot exceed 50 characters. I have another presentation model in which i have the property FirstName too. I do not want to repeat the validation logic in both the models. I want to have it in one place and that should be it. I can do it in a simpler way by adding a function which can be called while setting the property like private string firstName; public string FirstName { get { return firstName; } set { if (PropertyValidator.ValidName(value)) // assuming ValidName exists and it will throw an exception if the value is not valid { firstName = value; } } } But I am looking for something much simpler so that I do not need to add this for every property I need to have it validated. I looked at ValidationAttribute but then again I can validate this only from a controller (ModelState.IsValid). Since this model could be used by some other type of apps like console app, I could not choose that. But if there is a way to use the Mvc's ModelState.IsValid from outside of a controller, that would be awesome. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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• How to generate a monotone MART ROC in R?

  - by user1521587

  I am using R and applying MART (Alg. for multiple additive regression trees) on a training set to build prediction models. When I look at the ROC curve, it is not monotone. I would be grateful if someone can help me with how I should fix this. I am guessing the issue is that initially, MART generates n trees and if these trees are not the same for all the models I am building, the results will not be comparable. Here are the steps I take: 1) Fix the false-negative cost, c_fn. Let cost = c(0, 1, c_fn, 0). 2) use the following line to build the mart model: mart(x, y, lx, martmode='class', niter=2000, cost.mtx=cost) where x is the matrix of training set variables, y is the observation matrix, lx is the matrix which specifies which of the variables in x is numerical, which one categorical. 3) I predict the test set observations using the mart model found in step 2 using this line: y_pred = martpred(x_test, probs=T) 4) I compute the false-positive and false-negative errors as follows: t = 1/(1+c_fn) %threshold based on Bayes optimal rule where c_fp=1 and c_fn. p_0 = length(which(y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_01 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==0))/dim(y_test)[1] p_11 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_fp = p_01/(1-p_0) p_tp = p_11/p_0 5) repeat step 1-4 for a new false-negative cost.

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• Corrupt UTF-8 Characters with PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81

  - by jkndrkn

  We have an application hosted on both a local development server and a live site. We are experiencing UTF-8 corruption issues and are looking to figure out how to resolve them. The system is run using symfony 1.0 with Propel. On our development server, we are running PHP 5.2.0 and MySQL 5.0.32. We do not experience corrupted UTF-8 characters there. On our live site, PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81 is running. On that server, certain characters such as ô´ and S are corrupted once they are stored in the database. The corrupted characters are showing up as either question marks or approximations of the original character with adjacent question marks. Examples of corruption: Uncorrupted: ô´ Corrupted: ô? Uncorrupted: S Corrupted: ? We are currently using the following techniques on both development and live servers: Executing the following queries prior to execution of any other queries: SET NAMES 'utf8' COLLATE 'utf8_unicode_ci' SET CHARSET 'utf8' Setting the <meta> Content-Type value to: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Adding the following to our .htaccess file: AddDefaultCharset utf-8 Using mb_* (multibyte) PHP functions where necessary. Being sure to set database columns to use utf8_unicode_ci collation. These techniques are sufficient for our development site, but do not work on the live site. On the live site I've also tried adding mysql_set_encoding('ut8', $mysql_connection) but this does not help either. I have found some evidence that newer versions of PHP and MySQL are mishandling UTF-8 character encodings.

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• How can I get vim to draw lines correctly for remote editing?

  - by Rick Reynolds

  I'm attempting to edit files on a remote system. I've ssh'd to the system and I start editing with vim. However, I notice that all the lines are drawing 2 lines above where they really exist in the file. I assumed this was a problem I could fix by dropping my terminal settings to something simpler, but that didn't help. My TERM variable was set to xterm-color. I set it to vt100, but that didn't fix the line drawing issue. I also noticed that this seems to be specific to vim. emacs doesn't show the problem, and I haven't noticed any odd drawing artifacts in less, more or other paging tools. Other specifics: I'm ssh-ing into the remote system from a Mac, using the Terminal.app. The remote system is running Ubuntu 9.04. I'm hoping there is something I just need to set in vim to get it to play nice. If it allows me to keep syntax color highlighting, so much the better.

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• Insert code into a method - Java

  - by DutrowLLC

  Is there a way to automatically insert code into a method? I have the following and I would like to insert the indicated code: public class Person { Set<String> updatedFields = new LinkedHashSet<String>(); String firstName; public String getFirstName(){ return firstName; } boolean isFirstNameChanged = false; // Insert public void setFirstName(String firstName){ if( !isFirstNameChanged ){ // Insert isFirstNameChanged = true; // Insert updatedFields.add("firstName"); // Insert } // Insert this.firstName = firstName; } } I'm also not sure if I can the subset of the method name as a string from inside the method itself as indicated on the line where I add the fieldName as a string into the set of updated fields: updatedFields.add("firstName");. And I'm not sure how to insert fields into a class where I add the boolean field that tracks if the field has been modified or not before (for efficiency to prevent having to manipulate the Set): boolean isFirstNameChanged = false; It seems to most obvious answer to this would be to use code templates inside eclipse, but I'm concerned about having to go back and change the code later.

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• How to change the date/time in Python for all modules?

  - by Felix Schwarz

  When I write with business logic, my code often depends on the current time. For example the algorithm which looks at each unfinished order and checks if an invoice should be sent (which depends on the no of days since the job was ended). In these cases creating an invoice is not triggered by an explicit user action but by a background job. Now this creates a problem for me when it comes to testing: I can test invoice creation itself easily However it is hard to create an order in a test and check that the background job identifies the correct orders at the correct time. So far I found two solutions: In the test setup, calculate the job dates relative to the current date. Downside: The code becomes quite complicated as there are no explicit dates written anymore. Sometimes the business logic is pretty complex for edge cases so it becomes hard to debug due to all these relative dates. I have my own date/time accessor functions which I use throughout my code. In the test I just set a current date and all modules get this date. So I can simulate an order creation in February and check that the invoice is created in April easily. Downside: 3rd party modules do not use this mechanism so it's really hard to integrate+test these. The second approach was way more successful to me after all. Therefore I'm looking for a way to set the time Python's datetime+time modules return. Setting the date is usually enough, I don't need to set the current hour or second (even though this would be nice). Is there such a utility? Is there an (internal) Python API that I can use?

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• How to use Nhibernate Validator + NHib component + ddl

  - by mynkow

  I just configured my NHibValidator. My NHibernate creates the DB schema. When I set MaxLenght="20" to some property of a class then in the database the length appears in the database column. I am doing this in the NHibValidator xml file. But the problem is that I have components and cannot figure out how to achieve this behaviour. The component is configured correctly in the Customer.hbm.xml file. EDIT: Well, I found that Hibernate Validator users had the same problem two years ago. http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HV-25 Is this an issue for NHibernate Validator or it is fixed. If it is working tell me how please. ----------------------------------------------------- public class Customer { public virtual string Name{get;set;} public virtual Contact Contacts{ get; } } ----------------------------------------------------- public class Contact { public virtual string Address{get;set;} } ----------------------------------------------------- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <nhv-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-validator-1.0" namespace="MyNamespace" assembly="MyAssembly"> <class name="Customer"> <property name="Name"> <length max="20"/> </property> <property name="Contacts"> <notNull/> <valid/> </property> </class> </nhv-mapping> ----------------------------------------------------- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <nhv-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-validator-1.0" namespace="MyNamespace" assembly="MyAssembly"> <class name="Contact"> <property name="Address"> <length max="50"/> <valid/> </property> </class> </nhv-mapping> -----------------------------------------------------

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• Silverlight Data Binding for Collection in Stack Panel

  - by Blake Blackwell

  I'm new to Silverlight, so I don't have a complete grasp of all the controls at my disposal. What I would like to do is use databinding and a view model to maintain a collection of items. Here is some mock code for what I'd like to do: Model public class MyItem { public string DisplayText { get; set; } public bool Enabled { get; set; } } ViewModel public class MyViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { private ObservableCollection<MyItem> _myItems = new ObservableCollection<MyItem>(); public ObservableCollection<MyItem> MyItems { get { return _myItems; } set { _myItems = value NotifyPropertyChanged(this, "MyItems"); } } } View <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <StackPanel ItemsSource="{Binding MyItems}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox "{Binding Enabled, Mode=TwoWay}"></CheckBox> <TextBlock Text="{Binding DisplayText, Mode=TwoWay}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </Grid> So my end goal would be that every time I add another MyItem to the MyItems collection it would create a new StackPanel with checkbox and textblock. I don't have to use a stack panel but just thought I'd use that for this sample.

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• Is this a hole in dynamic binding in C# 4?

  - by Galilyou

  I've seen a very interesting post on Fabio Maulo's blog. Here's the code and the bug if you don't want to jump to the url. I defined a new generic class like so: public class TableStorageInitializer<TTableEntity> where TTableEntity : class, new() { public void Initialize() { InitializeInstance(new TTableEntity()); } public void InitializeInstance(dynamic entity) { entity.PartitionKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); entity.RowKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); } } Note that InitializeInstance accepts one parameter, which is of type dynamic. Now to test this class, I defined another class that is nested inside my main Program class like so: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TableStorageInitializer<MyClass> x = new TableStorageInitializer<MyClass>(); x.Initialize(); } private class MyClass { public string PartitionKey { get; set; } public string RowKey { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } } } Note: the inner class "MyClass" is declared private. Now if i run this code I get a "Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException" on the line "entity.PartitionKey = Guide.NewGuid().ToString()". The interesting part, though is that the message of the exception says "Object doesn't contain a definition for PartitionKey". Also note that if you changed the modifier of the nested class to public, the code will execute with no problems. So what do you guys think is really happening under the hood? Please refer to any documentation -of course if this is documented anywhere- that you may find?

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• xcode project-/target-settings-syntax for linker flag force_load on iPhone

  - by Kaiserludi

  Hi all. I am confronted with the double bind, that on the one hand for one of the 3rd party static libraries, my iPhone application uses, the linker flag -all_load has to be set in the application project- or target settings, otherwise the app crashes at runtime not finding some symbols, called internally from the lib, on the other hand for another 3rd party static lib -all_load must not be set on application level, or the app won't build thanks to a "duplicate symbols"-linker error. To solve this issue I now want to use force_load instant of load_all, as it due to documentation it does the same like all_load, but only for the passed path or lib-file, instead of all libs. The problem with force_load is, I do not have a clue, how to pass a path or file as parameter with it, when passing it via xcode project- or target-settings. All syntax-possibilities coming to my mind either lead into xcode thinking its another linker flag instead of a parameter to the previous one, or the linker is throwing syntax related errors or the flag simply does nothing at all in comparison to not being set. I also opened the .pbxproj-file in a text-editor to edit it to the correct command line syntax manually, but when reloading the project with xcode, it auto changes the syntax into interpreting the parameter to force_load as a separate flag. Anyone having an idea on this issue? Thx, Kaiserludi.

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• WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

  - by user320849

  Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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• MVC3 custom validation attribute for an "at least one is required" situation

  - by Pricey

  Hi I have found this answer already: MVC3 Validation - Require One From Group Which is fairly specific to the checking of group names and uses reflection. My example is probably a bit simpler and I was just wondering if there was a simpler way to do it. I have the below: public class TimeInMinutesViewModel { private const short MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER = 60; //public string Label { get; set; } [Range(0,24, ErrorMessage = "Hours should be from 0 to 24")] public short Hours { get; set; } [Range(0,59, ErrorMessage = "Minutes should be from 0 to 59")] public short Minutes { get; set; } /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public short TimeInMinutes() { // total minutes should not be negative if (Hours <= 0 && Minutes <= 0) { return 0; } // multiplier operater treats the right hand side as an int not a short int // so I am casting the result to a short even though both properties are already short int return (short)((Hours * MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER) + (Minutes * MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER)); } } I want to add a validation attribute either to the Hours & Minutes properties or the class itself.. and the idea is to just make sure at least 1 of these properties (Hours OR minutes) has a value, server and client side validation using a custom validation attribute. Does anyone have an example of this please? Thanks

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• DDD and Entity Base, Model using multiple identity types

  - by Thomas

  I have a model that looks like this: public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set; } } Then the idea is to have my entities inherit from this interface: public class User : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } } However, one of my entities actually has a Guid as an identifier. public class UserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } } I really would like all my entities inheriting from the same interface but that would force me to add an integer based identity column to the UserSession which is unnecessary since Guid is the identity, but it would keep the domain model nice since all entities would inherit from the same base. What options do I have in this scenario? Can I have two base interfaces, one for int and one for Guid? Should I add an identity column into the UserSession entity although it is unnecessary? I need the Guid so I can't just get rid of it and replace it with and integer. Any thoughts on best practices?

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• Use date operations on a computed field filter in a view

  - by stephenhay

  I'd like to expose a filter in Views based on a Computed Field. This field should utilize the date operation "less than". Apparently, a date type is not available to computed field (varchar is). However, using varchar results in views treating the field as a string rather than as a date, without the operation I'm looking for. So I tried using a timestamp instead of a date, which allowed me to use an integer data type. The exposed view gives me a "less than" operation, but as it's still not a date, the user must type in a timestamp. Not handy. So I'm thinking the best way to do this is to create a new (hidden) CCK field which is a date field, and set the value of this field to the value of the Computed Field. I can then use the new CCK field for my exposed filter. But I'm not getting anywhere with this, as I'm unsure how to set another CCK field with a Computed Field. To return the value to the computed field itself, I'm using the standard: $node_field[0]['value'] = $newestdate; I would like to set the value of the new CCK field to $newestdate as well. Can anyone help?

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• stored procedure issue, has to do with my where clause and if statement

  - by MyHeadHurts

  right now my stored procedure is returning 2 different result sets one for @booked and the other for @booked1 if you look closely my query is doing the same thing for each @booked and @booked but one is for a user selected year and the other for the current year. I don't want two different result sets, i want to join the selected year and the current year side by side by SDESCR(which is a column that they have in common) another hurdle i am facing is i am use @mode to decide whether the user wants netsales, sales... so on. I know i need sometype of join but, it isnt working because i have a where statement that says where dyyyy= @yeartoget which won't allow the current year data to work ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[test1] @mode varchar(20), @YearToGet int AS SET NOCOUNT ON Declare @Booked Int Set @Booked = CONVERT(int,DateAdd(year, @YearToGet - Year(getdate() + 1), DateAdd(day, DateDiff(day, 1, getdate()), 1) ) ) Declare @Booked1 Int Set @Booked1 = CONVERT(int,DateAdd(year, (year( getdate() )) - Year(getdate() + 1), DateAdd(day, DateDiff(day, 1, getdate()), 1) ) ) If @mode = 'Sales' Select Division, SDESCR, DYYYY, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked Then NetAmount End) ASofNetSales, SUM(NetAmount) AS YENetSales, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked Then PARTY End) AS ASofPAX, SUM(PARTY) AS YEPAX From dbo.B101BookingsDetails Where DYYYY = @YearToGet Group By SDESCR, DYYYY, Division Order By Division, SDESCR, DYYYY else if @mode = 'netsales' Select Division, SDESCR, DYYYY, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked Then NetAmount End) ASofNetSales, SUM(NetAmount) AS YENetSales, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked Then PARTY End) AS ASofPAX, SUM(PARTY) AS YEPAX From dbo.B101BookingsDetails Where DYYYY = @YearToGet Group By SDESCR, DYYYY, Division Order By Division, SDESCR, DYYYY If @mode = 'Sales' Select Division, SDESCR, DYYYY, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked1 Then NetAmount End) currentNetSales, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked1 Then PARTY End) AS currentPAX From dbo.B101BookingsDetails Where DYYYY = (year( getdate() )) Group By SDESCR, DYYYY, Division Order By Division, SDESCR, DYYYY else if @mode = 'netsales' Select Division, SDESCR, DYYYY, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked1 Then NetAmount End) currentNetSales, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked1 Then PARTY End) AS currentPAX From dbo.B101BookingsDetails Where DYYYY = (year( getdate() )) Group By SDESCR, DYYYY, Division Order By Division, SDESCR, DYYYY Else if @mode = 'Inssales' Select Division, SDESCR, DYYYY, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked1 Then InsAmount End) currentInsSales, Sum(Case When Booked <= @Booked1 Then PARTY End) AS currentPAX From dbo.B101BookingsDetails Where DYYYY = (year( getdate() )) Group By SDESCR, DYYYY, Division Order By Division, SDESCR, DYYYY

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• Migrating from a single entity to an abstract parent entity with child entities, NSEntityMigrationPolicy not called.

  - by Jimmy Selgen Nielsen

  Hi. I'm trying to upgrade my current application to use an abstract parent entity, with specialized sub entities. I've created a custom NSEntityMigrationPolicy, and in the mapping model I've set the Custom Policy to the name of my class. I'm initializing my persistent store like this, which should be fairly standard : NSError *error=nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel: [self managedObjectModel]]; NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption, nil]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:options error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Error adding persistent store : %@",[error description]); NSAssert(error==nil,[error localizedDescription]); } When i run the app i get the following error : Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 134140.)' [error userInfo] contains "reason=Can't find mapping model for migration" I've verified that version 1 of the data model will open, and if i set NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption i get a migration, although my entities are not migrated correctly (as expected). I've verified that the mapping model (cdm) is in the application bundle, but somehow it refuses to find it. I've also set breakpoints and NSLog() statements in the custom migration policy, and none of it runs, with or without NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption Any hints as to why it seems unable to find the mapping model ?

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• Adobe flex dateField

  - by JonoB

  I have some code as follows: private function onComboChange(evt:Event):void { var temp:Date = df_date.selectedDate; temp.date += 5; df_dateDue.selectedDate = new Date(temp); } In essence, I am trying to add 5 days onto the selected date in df_date, and put that date into df_dateDue. This fires off via an EventListener on a combobox. Both df_date and df_dateDue are dateFields. OK, so the first time that I run this, it works fine; df_date stays the same and df_dateDue is set to 5 days past df_date. However, the next time that I run it, df_dateDue increments by 10 days from df_date, the next time by 15, and so on. So, stepping through the code shows that somehow df_date has become linked to the temp var, and that the temp var is not resetting itself each time the function is called. Example: df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 01 Jan. Fire off the event, df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 06 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point, var temp = 06 Jan (even though df_date still shows 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 11 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point var temp = 11 Jan (even though df_date = 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 16 Jan What am I missing here?

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• How can I get the type I want?

  - by Danny Chen

  There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

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• Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

  - by Synesso

  Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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• MySQL Need some help with a query

  - by Jules

  I'm trying to fix some data by adding a new field. I have a backup from a few months ago and I have restored this database to my server. I'm looking at table called pads, its primary key is PadID and the field of importance is called RemoveMeDate. In my restored (older) database there is less records with an actual date set in RemoveMeDate. My control date is 2001-01-01 00:00:00 meaning that the record is not hidden aka visible. What I need to do is select all the records from the older database / table with the control date and join with those from the newer db /table where the control date is not set. I hope I've explained that correctly. I'll try again, with numbers. I have 80,000 visible records in the older table (with control date set) and 30,000 in the newer db/table. I need to select the 50,000 from the old database, to perform an update query. Heres my query, which I'd can't get to work as I'd like. jules-fix-reasons is the old database, jules is the newer one. select p.padid from `jules-fix-reasons`.`pads` p JOIN `jules`.`pads` ON p.padid = `jules`.`pads`.`PadID` where p.RemoveMeDate <> '2001-01-01 00:00:00' AND `jules`.`pads`.RemoveMeDate = '2001-01-01 00:00:00'

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• UTF-8 MySQL and Charset, pls help me understand this once and for all!

  - by FFish

  Can someone explain me when I set everything to UTF-8 I keep getting those damn ??? MySQL Server version: 5.1.44 MySQL charset: UTF-8 Unicode (utf8) I create a new database name: utf8test collation: utf8_general_ci MySQL connection collation: utf8_general_ci My SQL looks like this: SET SQL_MODE="NO_AUTO_VALUE_ON_ZERO"; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `test_table` ( `test_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `test_text` text NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`test_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; INSERT INTO `test_table` (`test_id`, `test_text`) VALUES (1, 'hééélo'), (2, 'wööörld'); My PHP / HTML: <?php $db_conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die("Can't connect to db"); mysql_select_db("utf8test", $db_conn) or die("Can't select db"); // $result = mysql_query("set names 'utf8'"); // this works... why?? $query = "SELECT * FROM test_table"; $result = mysql_query($query); $output = ""; while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $output .= "id: " . $row['test_id'] . " - text: " . $row['test_text'] . "<br />"; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html lang="it" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="it"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>UTF-8 test</title> </head> <body> <?php echo $output; ?> </body> </html>

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• C# Event Handlers Using an Enum

  - by Jimbo

  I have a StatusChanged event that is raised by my object when its status changes - however, the application needs to carry out additional actions based on what the new status is. e.g If the new status is Disconnected, then it must update the status bar text and send an email notification. So, I wanted to create an Enum with the possible statuses (Connected, Disconnected, ReceivingData, SendingData etc.) and have that sent with the EventArgs parameter of the event when it is raised (see below) Define the object: class ModemComm { public event CommanderEventHandler ModemCommEvent; public delegate void CommanderEventHandler(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e); public void Connect() { ModemCommEvent(this, new ModemCommEventArgs ModemCommEventArgs.eModemCommEvent.Connected)); } } Define the new EventArgs parameter: public class ModemCommEventArgs : EventArgs{ public enum eModemCommEvent { Idle, Connected, Disconnected, SendingData, ReceivingData } public eModemCommEvent eventType { get; set; } public string eventMessage { get; set; } public ModemCommEventArgs(eModemCommEvent eventType, string eventMessage) { this.eventMessage = eventMessage; this.eventType = eventType; } } I then create a handler for the event in the application: ModemComm comm = new ModemComm(); comm.ModemCommEvent += OnModemCommEvent; and private void OnModemCommEvent(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e) { } The problem is, I get a 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' error when the object attempts to raise the event. Hoping someone can explain in n00b terms why and how to fix it :)

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• Incorrect sizing of a JPanel in a JScrollPane In Java 1.5

  - by Coder

  Hi, I am making an image loading component which consists of a JPanel containing a JScrollPane, which in turn contains another JPanel. What this component does is allows images to be dropped on top of it, after which point the image is loaded and the inner most JPanel is set to the size of the image dropped. This in turn causes the scroll bars to show up and the user can scroll the image. This all works fine. The problem comes in when i try to auto-shrink the image to the maximum visible area in the outer JPanel. In this case i do a uniform scale of the image to be less than or equal to the width and height of the outer JPanel. What happens now is that both the horizontal and vertical scroll bars show up indicating the the inner JPanel is bigger than the visible area (which should not be the case). I verified that the image is scale to the proper dimensions(ie. the maximum width and height is respected). I also verified that if i decrease the maximum height by 3 pixels, then no scroll bars appear. What i believe the problem is, is that panel.getWidth() and panel.getHeight() don't actually return the visible area (maximum area) that sub components can take up. Ie. there is likely some more width and height taken up by the border around the JPanel or something like that. My question is, how do i get around this problem. Functionally all i want is to determine the maximum size a JPanel can be in a JScrollPane, then set the panel to that size and paint an image over top of it and be assured that the scroll bars of the scroll pane will not show up. Right now the scroll bars are set to AS_NEEDED. Thanks!

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