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  • Planning and coping with deadlines in SCRUM

    - by John
    From wikipedia: During each “sprint”, typically a two to four week period (with the length being decided by the team), the team creates a potentially shippable product increment (for example, working and tested software). The set of features that go into a sprint come from the product “backlog,” which is a prioritized set of high level requirements of work to be done. Which backlog items go into the sprint is determined during the sprint planning meeting. During this meeting, the Product Owner informs the team of the items in the product backlog that he or she wants completed. The team then determines how much of this they can commit to complete during the next sprint. During a sprint, no one is allowed to change the sprint backlog, which means that the requirements are frozen for that sprint. After a sprint is completed, the team demonstrates the use of the software. I was reading this and two questions immediately popped into my head: 1)If a sprint is only a couple of weeks, decided in a single meeting, how can you accurately plan what can be achieved? High-level tasks can't be estimated accurately in my experience, and can easily double what seems reasonable. As a developer, I hate being pushed into committing what I can deliver in the next month based on a set of customer requirements, this goes against everything I know about generating reliable estimates rather than having to roughly estimate and then double it! 2)Since the requirements are supposed to be locked and a deliverable product available at the end, what happens when something does take twice as long? What if this feature is only 1/2 done at the end of the sprint? The wiki article goes on to talk about Sprint planning, where things are broken down into much smaller tasks for estimation (<1 day) but this is after the Sprint features are already planned and the release agreed, isn't it? kind of like a salesman promising something without consulting the developers.

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  • How to execute stored procedure from Access using linked tables

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database that connects to a SQL Server 2008 box via ODBC. The tables from SQL Server are connected as linked tables in Access. I have a stored procedure on the SQL Server that I am trying to execute via ADO code. The problem I have is that Access cannot seem to find the procedure. What do I have to do within Access to be able to execute this stored procedure? Some facts ... The stored procedure in question accepts one parameter which is an integer. The stored procedure returns a recordset which I am hoping to use as the datasource for a ListBox. Here is my ADO code in Access ... Private Sub LoadUserCaseList(userID As Integer) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cmd.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection cmd.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc cmd.CommandText = "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList" Dim par As New ADODB.Parameter Set par = cmd.CreateParameter("userID", adInteger) cmd.Parameters.Append par cmd.Parameters("userID") = userID Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = cmd.Execute() lstUserCases.Recordset = rs End Sub The error I get is "the microsoft jet database engine cannot find the input table or query "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList".

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  • Is this a good starting point for iptables in Linux?

    - by sbrattla
    Hi, I'm new to iptables, and i've been trying to put together a firewall which purpose is to protect a web server. The below rules are the ones i've put together so far, and i would like to hear if the rules makes sense - and wether i've left out anything essential? In addition to port 80, i also need to have port 3306 (mysql) and 22 (ssh) open for external connections. Any feedback is highly appreciated! #!/bin/sh # Clear all existing rules. iptables -F # ACCEPT connections for loopback network connection, 127.0.0.1. iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # ALLOW established traffic iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # DROP packets that are NEW but does not have the SYN but set. iptables -A INPUT -p tcp ! --syn -m state --state NEW -j DROP # DROP fragmented packets, as there is no way to tell the source and destination ports of such a packet. iptables -A INPUT -f -j DROP # DROP packets with all tcp flags set (XMAS packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL ALL -j DROP # DROP packets with no tcp flags set (NULL packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL NONE -j DROP # ALLOW ssh traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport ssh -m limit --limit 1/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW http traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport http -m limit --limit 5/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW mysql traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport mysql -m limit --limit 25/s -j ACCEPT # DROP any other traffic. iptables -A INPUT -j DROP

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  • Apache redirection problem!!!!

    - by vikas
    Hi guys, I am setting up a pre-built website built in php. The site was actually hosted on the linux server. Now I am trying to set it up on a Window machine with WAMP server. In this website almost every page request passes through a particular file called redirect(which is basically a php file without extension). Now the problem is that when I inspected the configuration(httpd.conf, apache.conf,.htaccess, vhost.conf etc) of the apache server on the linux machine, I nowhere found the redirect rules for doing so. Neither mod_rewrite nor mod_alias rules for this redirection were found there. But is still redirects the request properly. I also noticed that Zend Framework library is there in the exact same directory where the redirect file is. This library is included in the include_path in php.ini. However, the web site is still not developed using Zend MVC and I have seen NO proof of ZEND being used there. So I am really confused how this redirection is working there? I am unable to set up this on window machine without rewrite rules of mod_rewrite or mod_alias. Do you guys know any alternative of both the said modules for redirection? I know the site is really weird, but i have to set it up. :) Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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  • UIButton stops responding after going into landscape mode - iPhone

    - by casey
    I've been trying different things the last few days and I've run out of ideas so I'm looking for help. The situation is that I'm displaying my in-app purchasing store view after the user clicks a button. Button pressed, view is displayed. The store shows fine. Inside this view, I have a few labels with descriptions of the product, and then below them I have the price and a Buy button which triggers the in-app purchase. Problem is when I rotate the phone to landscape, that Buy button no longer responds, weird. Works fine in portrait. The behavior in landscape when the I touch the button is nothing. It doesn't appear to press down and be selected or anything, just not responding to my touches. But then when I rotate back to portrait or even upside down portrait, it works fine. Here is the rough structure of my view in IB, all the rotating and layout is setup in IB. I set the autoresizing in IB so that everything looks ok in landscape and the Buy button expands horizontally a little bit. The only layout manipulation I do in my code is after loading, I set the content size of the scroll view. File Owner with view set to the scrollView / scrollView ----/ view --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ label --------/ uibutton (Buy) After orientation changes I printed out the userInteractionEnabled property of the scrollView and the button, and they were both TRUE at all orientations. Ideas? Or maybe some other way of displaying a buy button that won't be nonfunctional? I've already begun a branch that plays with a toolbar and placing the buy button there, but I can't seem to get the bar to stay in place while scrolling.

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  • WPF Binding to variable / DependencyProperty

    - by Peter
    I'm playing around with WPF Binding and variables. Apparently one can only bind DependencyProperties. I have come up with the following, which works perfectly fine: The code-behind file: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } public string Test { get { return (string)this.GetValue(TestProperty); } set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, value); } //set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, "BBB"); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Test", typeof(string), typeof(MainWindow), new PropertyMetadata("CCC")); private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(Test); Test = "AAA"; MessageBox.Show(Test); } } XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication3.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}"> <Grid> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,86,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay, diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel=High}"/> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="320,85,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="button1_Click" /> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,138,0,0" Name="textBox2" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay}" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" /> </Grid> The two TextBoxes update one an other. And the Button sets them to "AAA". But now I replaced the Setter function with the one that is commented out (simulating some manipulation of the given value). I would expect that whenever the property value is changed it will be reset to "BBB". It does so when you press the button, that is when you set the property in code. But it does for some reason not affect the WPF Bindings, that is you can change the TextBox contents and thus the property, but apparently the Setter is never called. I wonder why that is so, and how one would go about to achive the expected behaviour.

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  • C# -Fluent interface implementation Help

    - by nettguy
    I am implementing the following piece of code using Fluent Interface design in C# 3.0. The code is working fine. public interface ITrainable { ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill); } public interface ISearchSkill { ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer emp,string[] _skills); } public abstract class Person { public Person(){} protected string Name { get; set; } } public class SoftwareEngineer:Person,ITrainable { protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } public SoftwareEngineer() { } public SoftwareEngineer(string name) { Name=name; skillSet = new List<string>(); } public ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill) { skillSet.Add(_skill); return this; } } public class HRExecutive :Person,ISearchSkill { SoftwareEngineer _employee; public HRExecutive() { _employee=new SoftwareEngineer(); } public ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer _employee,string[] skills) { this._employee= _employee; foreach (string _skill in skills) { if (_employee.skillSet.Contains(_skill)) { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is trained on " + _skill); } else { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is not trained on " + _skill); } } return this; } } Execution SoftwareEngineer emp1 = new SoftwareEngineer("JonSkeet"); emp1.AddSkill("java").AddSkill("C#").AddSkill("F#"); HRExecutive hr = new HRExecutive(); hr.SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "java", "C#" }). SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "Oracle", "F#" }); Question : I don't want the skillSet of SoftwareEngineer being accessed by some XXX class.It could be accessed by limited classes.But protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } is the only option (i think) i can declare in order to access the skillSet from HRExecutive.If i do so other XXX class can still access it. How to rewrite the code to prevent it?

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  • Random forests for short texts

    - by Jasie
    Hi all, I've been reading about Random Forests (1,2) because I think it'd be really cool to be able to classify a set of 1,000 sentences into pre-defined categories. I'm wondering if someone can explain to me the algorithm better, I think the papers are a bit dense. Here's the gist from 1: Overview We assume that the user knows about the construction of single classification trees. Random Forests grows many classification trees. To classify a new object from an input vector, put the input vector down each of the trees in the forest. Each tree gives a classification, and we say the tree "votes" for that class. The forest chooses the classification having the most votes (over all the trees in the forest). Each tree is grown as follows: If the number of cases in the training set is N, sample N cases at random - but with replacement, from the original data. This sample will be the training set for growing the tree. If there are M input variables, a number m « M is specified such that at each node, m variables are selected at random out of the M and the best split on these m is used to split the node. The value of m is held constant during the forest growing. Each tree is grown to the largest extent possible. There is no pruning. So, does this look right? I'd have N = 1,000 training cases (sentences), M = 100 variables (let's say, there are only 100 unique words across all sentences), so the input vector is a bit vector of length 100 corresponding to each word. I randomly sample N = 1000 cases at random (with replacement) to build trees from. I pick some small number of input variables m « M, let's say 10, to build a tree off of. Do I build tree nodes randomly, using all m input variables? How many classification trees do I build? Thanks for the help!

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  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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  • How do I break down an NSTimeInterval into year, months, days, hours, minutes and seconds on iPhone?

    - by willc2
    I have a time interval that spans years and I want all the time components from year down to seconds. My first thought is to integer divide the time interval by seconds in a year, subtract that from a running total of seconds, divide that by seconds in a month, subtract that from the running total and so on. That just seems convoluted and I've read that whenever you are doing something that looks convoluted, there is probably a built-in method. Is there? I integrated Alex's 2nd method into my code. It's in a method called by a UIDatePicker in my interface. NSDate *now = [NSDate date]; NSDate *then = self.datePicker.date; NSTimeInterval howLong = [now timeIntervalSinceDate:then]; NSDate *date = [NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSince1970:howLong]; NSString *dateStr = [date description]; const char *dateStrPtr = [dateStr UTF8String]; int year, month, day, hour, minute, sec; sscanf(dateStrPtr, "%d-%d-%d %d:%d:%d", &year, &month, &day, &hour, &minute, &sec); year -= 1970; NSLog(@"%d years\n%d months\n%d days\n%d hours\n%d minutes\n%d seconds", year, month, day, hour, minute, sec); When I set the date picker to a date 1 year and 1 day in the past, I get: 1 years 1 months 1 days 16 hours 0 minutes 20 seconds which is 1 month and 16 hours off. If I set the date picker to 1 day in the past, I am off by the same amount. Update: I have an app that calculates your age in years, given your birthday (set from a UIDatePicker), yet it was often off. This proves there was an inaccuracy, but I can't figure out where it comes from, can you?

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  • Multiple usage of MenuItems declared once (WPF)

    - by Alex Kofman
    Is it possible in WPF to define some menu structure and than use it in multiple contexts? For example I'd like to use a set of menu items from resources in ContextMenu, Window's menu and ToolBar (ToolBar with icons only, without headers). So items order, commands, icons, separators must be defined just once. I look for something like this: Declaration in resources: <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.CloneObject" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Clone"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Clone.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.RemoveCommand" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Remove"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Remove.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <Separator/> <MenuItem Command="MCommands.CreateChild" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Create child"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Child.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> Usage: <ToolBar MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" ShowText(?)="false" /> and <ContextMenu MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" />

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  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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  • Convert charset in mysql query

    - by Yousf
    Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

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  • Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

    - by OgreSwamp
    Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

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  • How to round-off hours based on Minutes(hours+0 if min<30, hours+1 otherwise) ?

    - by infant programmer
    I need to round-off the hours based on the minutes in a DateTime variable. The condition is: if minutes are less than 30, then minutes must be set to zero and no changes to hours, else if minutes =30, then hours must be set to hours+1 and minutes are again set to zero. Seconds are ignored. example: 11/08/2008 04:30:49 should become 11/08/2008 05:00:00 and 11/08/2008 04:29:49 should become 11/08/2008 04:00:00 I have written code which works perfectly fine, but just wanted to know a better method if could be written and also would appreciate alternative method(s). string date1 = "11/08/2008 04:30:49"; DateTime startTime; DateTime.TryParseExact(date1, "MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss", null, System.Globalization.DateTimeStyles.None, out startTime); if (Convert.ToInt32((startTime.Minute.ToString())) > 29) { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); startTime = startTime.Add(TimeSpan.Parse("01:00:00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); } else { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); }

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  • Uniquing with Existing Core Data Entities

    - by warrenm
    I'm using Core Data to store a lot (1000s) of items. A pair of properties on each item are used to determine uniqueness, so when a new item comes in, I compare it against the existing items before inserting it. Since the incoming data is in the form of an RSS feed, there are often many duplicates, and the cost of the uniquing step is O(N^2), which has become significant. Right now, I create a set of existing items before iterating over the list of (possible) new items. My theory is that on the first iteration, all the items will be faulted in, and assuming we aren't pressed for memory, most of those items will remain resident over the course of the iteration. I see my options thusly: Use string comparison for uniquing, iterating over all "new" items and comparing to all existing items (Current approach) Use a predicate to filter the set of existing items against the properties of the "new" items. Use a predicate with Core Data to determine uniqueness of each "new" item (without retrieving the set of existing items). Is option 3 likely to be faster than my current approach? Do you know of a better way?

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  • javascript watching for variable change via a timer

    - by DA
    I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

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  • Questions about the Backpropogation Algorithm

    - by Colemangrill
    I have a few questions concerning backpropogation. I'm trying to learn the fundamentals behind neural network theory and wanted to start small, building a simple XOR classifier. I've read a lot of articles and skimmed multiple textbooks - but I can't seem to teach this thing the pattern for XOR. Firstly, I am unclear about the learning model for backpropogation. Here is some pseudo-code to represent how I am trying to train the network. [Lets assume my network is setup properly (ie: multiple inputs connect to a hidden layer connect to an output layer and all wired up properly)]. SET guess = getNetworkOutput() // Note this is using a sigmoid activation function. SET error = desiredOutput - guess SET delta = learningConstant * error * sigmoidDerivative(guess) For Each Node in inputNodes For Each Weight in inputNodes[n] inputNodes[n].weight[j] += delta; // At this point, I am assuming the first layer has been trained. // Then I recurse a similar function over the hidden layer and output layer. // The prime difference being that it further divi's up the adjustment delta. I realize this is probably not enough to go off of, and I will gladly expound on any part of my implementation. Using the above algorithm, my neural network does get trained, kind of. But not properly. The output is always XOR 1 1 [smallest number] XOR 0 0 [largest number] XOR 1 0 [medium number] XOR 0 1 [medium number] I can never train the [1,1] [0,0] to be the same value. If you have any suggestions, additional resources, articles, blogs, etc for me to look at I am very interested in learning more about this topic. Thank you for your assistance, I appreciate it greatly!

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  • Is there an equivalent for ActiveRecord#find_by equivalent for C#?

    - by Benjamin Manns
    I'm originally a C# developer (as a hobby), but as of late I have been digging into Ruby on Rails and I am really enjoying it. Right now I am building an application in C# and I was wondering if there is any collection implementation for C# that could match (or "semi-match") the find_by method of ActiveRecord. What I am essentially looking for is a list that would hold Rectangles: class Rectangle { public int Width { get; set; } public int Height { get; set; } public String Name { get; set; } } Where I could query this list and find all entries with Height = 10, Width = 20, or name = "Block". This was done with ActiveRecord by doing a call similar to Rectangle.find_by_name('Block'). The only way I can think of doing this in C# is to create my own list implementation and iterate through each item manually checking each item against the criteria. I fear I would be reinventing the wheel (and one of poorer quality). Any input or suggestions is much appreciated.

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  • PHP static objects giving a fatal error

    - by Webbo
    I have the following PHP code; <?php component_customer_init(); component_customer_go(); function component_customer_init() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->set(1); } function component_customer_go() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->get(); } class Customer { public $id; static $class = false; static function getInstance() { if(self::$class == false) { self::$class = new Customer; } else { return self::$class; } } public function set($id) { $this->id = $id; } public function get() { print $this->id; } } ?> I get the following error; Fatal error: Call to a member function set() on a non-object in ....../classes/customer.php on line 9 Can anyone tell me why I get this error? I know this code might look strange, but it's based on a component system that I'm writing for a CMS. The aim is to be able to replace HTML tags in the template e.g.; <!-- component:customer-login --> with; <?php component_customer_login(); ?> I also need to call pre-render methods of the "Customer" class to validate forms before output is made etc. If anyone can think of a better way, please let me know but in the first instance, I'd like to know why I get the "Fatal error" mentioned above. Cheers

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  • Removing dotted border without setting NoFocus in Windows PyQt

    - by Cryptite
    There are a few questions on SO about this, all of which seem to say that the only way to remove the dotted border is to set the focusPolicy on widget/item in question to NoFocus. While this works as a temporary fix, this prevents further interaction with said widget/item in the realm of other necessary focusEvents. Said border in question: Here's an example of why this doesn't work. I have a Non-Modal widget popup, think a lightbox for an image. I want to detect a mousePressEvent outside of the widget and close the widget as a result. To do this, I should catch the focusOutEvent. However, if a vast majority of widgets in my program are set as NoFocus (to remove the border issue), then I cannot catch the focusOutEvent because, you guessed it, they have no focus policy. Here's another example: I have a QTreeWidget that is subclassed so I can catch keyPressEvents for various reasons. The QTreeWidget is also set as NoFocus to prevent the border. Because of this, however, the widget never has focus and therefore no keyPressEvents can be caught. A workaround for this (kludgy, imo) is to use the widget's grabKeyboard class, which is dangerous if I forget to releaseKeyboard later. This is not optimal. So then the question is, is there a way to remove this weird (mostly just ugly) dotted border without turning off focus for everything in my app? Thanks in advance!

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  • NHibernate. Initiate save collection at saving parent

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at saving my entity. MApping: ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } When I save Sales object Account collection don't save at sales_users table. What should I do for saving it? Please don't advice me use classes inside List Thanks a lot.

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  • .NET Web Serivce hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

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  • Rescuing a failed WCF call

    - by illdev
    Hello, I am happily using Castle's WcfFacility. From Monorail I know the handy concept of Rescues - consumer friendly results that often, but not necessarily, contain Data about what went wrong. I am creating a Silverlight application right now, doing quite a few WCF service calls. All these request return an implementation of public class ServiceResponse { private string _messageToUser = string.Empty; private ActionResult _result = ActionResult.Success; public ActionResult Result // Success, Failure, Timeout { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; } } public string MessageToUser { get { return _messageToUser; } set { _messageToUser = value; } } } public abstract class ServiceResponse<TResponseData> : ServiceResponse { public TResponseData Data { get; set; } } If the service has trouble responding the right way, I would want the thrown Exception to be intercepted and converted to the expected implementation. base on the thrown exception, I would want to pass on a nice message. here is how one of the service methods looks like: [Transaction(TransactionMode.Requires)] public virtual SaveResponse InsertOrUpdate(WarehouseDto dto) { var w = dto.Id > 0 ? _dao.GetById(dto.Id) : new Warehouse(); w.Name = dto.Name; _dao.SaveOrUpdate(w); return new SaveResponse { Data = new InsertData { Id = w.Id } }; } I need the thrown Exception for the Transaction to be rolled back, so i cannot actually catch it and return something else. Any ideas, where I could hook in?

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