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  • Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • chess board in java

    - by ranzy
    This is my code below import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; public class board2 { JFrame frame; JPanel squares[][] = new JPanel[8][8]; public board2() { frame = new JFrame("Simplified Chess"); frame.setSize(500, 500); frame.setLayout(new GridLayout(8, 8)); for (int i = 0; i < 8; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < 8; j++) { squares[i][j] = new JPanel(); if ((i + j) % 2 == 0) { squares[i][j].setBackground(Color.black); } else { squares[i][j].setBackground(Color.white); } frame.add(squares[i][j]); } } squares[0][0].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("rookgreen.png"))); squares[0][2].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("bishopgreen.png"))); squares[0][4].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("kinggreen.png"))); squares[0][5].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("bishopgreen.png"))); squares[0][7].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("rookgreen.png"))); squares[7][0].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("rookred.png"))); squares[7][2].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("bishopred.png"))); squares[7][4].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("kingred.png"))); squares[7][5].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("bishopred.png"))); squares[7][7].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("rookred.png"))); for (int i = 0; i < 8; i++) { squares[1][i].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("pawngreen.png"))); squares[6][i].add(new JLabel(new ImageIcon("pawnred.png"))); } frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setVisible(true); } public static void main(String[] args) { new board2(); } } I am trying to create a chess game sort of and I need help with putting labels on all sides of the board to label the rows and columns in either A-H or 1-8. I have no idea how to do it. Also later on I'll be adding a feature to drag and drop the pieces. Is it best to use JLabels? Anyways I would I go about putting the labels on the side? Thanks!

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  • How to use Broadcast Receiver in different Applications in Android?

    - by Sebi
    Hi I have here two applications in two different projects in eclipse. One application (A) defines an activity (A1) which is started first. Then i start from this activity the second activity (B1) in the second project (B). This works fine. I start it the following way: Intent intent = new Intent("pacman.intent.action.Launch"); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP); startActivity(intent); Now i want to send intents bewtween the two activities by using broadcast receivers. In activity A1 i send the intents the following way: Intent intent = new Intent("pacman.intent.action.BROADCAST"); intent.putExtra("message","Wake up."); sendBroadcast(intent); The part of the manifest file in activity A1 that is responsible for this broadcast is the following: <activity android:name="ch.ifi.csg.games4blue.games.pacman.controller.PacmanGame" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.BROADCAST" /> </intent-filter> </activity> In the receiving activity, I define the receiver the following way in the manifest file: <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".PacmanGame" android:label="@string/app_name" android:screenOrientation="portrait"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="pacman.intent.action.Launch" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> <receiver android:name="ch.ifi.csg.games4blue.games.pacman.controller.MsgListener" /> </activity> </application> The class message listener is implemented this way: public class MsgListener extends BroadcastReceiver { /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.content.BroadcastReceiver#onReceive(android.content.Context, android.content.Intent) */ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { System.out.println("Message at Pacman received!"); } } Unfortunately, the message is never received. Although the method in activity A1 is called, i never receive an intent in B1. Any hints how to solve this? Thanks a lot!

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  • json problems with making a ruby on rails application

    - by Prince Merdz
    So I'm using Bitnami to learn Ruby on Rails. I have also previously tried the manual installation for ruby and rails and was met by the same problem so I thought I should try first the easy package deal of Bitnami. Anyway my problem with json is that it causes the bundle install to fail. First the auto bundle install that rails new does fails because of an ssl error. Which is easily solved by changing the source in the gemfile which is https to http. However when I try to bundle install it does another error when it tries to install json. C:\RubyStack-3.2.7-0\projects\testing>bundle install Fetching gem metadata from http://rubygems.org/......... Using rake (0.9.2.2) Using i18n (0.6.0) Using multi_json (1.3.6) Installing activesupport (3.2.8) Using builder (3.0.0) Installing activemodel (3.2.8) Using erubis (2.7.0) Using journey (1.0.4) Using rack (1.4.1) Using rack-cache (1.2) Using rack-test (0.6.1) Using hike (1.2.1) Using tilt (1.3.3) Using sprockets (2.1.3) Installing actionpack (3.2.8) Using mime-types (1.19) Using polyglot (0.3.3) Using treetop (1.4.10) Using mail (2.4.4) Installing actionmailer (3.2.8) Using arel (3.0.2) Using tzinfo (0.3.33) Installing activerecord (3.2.8) Installing activeresource (3.2.8) Using bundler (1.1.5) Using coffee-script-source (1.3.3) Using execjs (1.4.0) Using coffee-script (2.2.0) Using rack-ssl (1.3.2) Installing json (1.7.5) with native extensions Gem::Installer::ExtensionBuildError: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension . C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/bin/ruby.exe extconf.rb creating Makefile make 0 [main] echo 5244 open_stackdumpfile: Dumping stack trace to echo.exe.sta ckdump make: *** [generator-i386-mingw32.def] Error 5 Gem files will remain installed in C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems /json-1.7.5 for inspection. Results logged to C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/json-1.7.5/ext/j son/ext/generator/gem_make.out An error occured while installing json (1.7.5), and Bundler cannot continue. Make sure that `gem install json -v '1.7.5'` succeeds before bundling. This is the gem_make.out file it produces after trying to install json (btw windows also produces an error that echo.exe has stopped working while running the gem install json) C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/bin/ruby.exe extconf.rb creating Makefile make 0 [main] echo 5244 open_stackdumpfile: Dumping stack trace to echo.exe.stackdump make: *** [generator-i386-mingw32.def] Error 5 I can't even start learning ror for the setup is already a huge pain. (btw I have no prior experience with web frameworks, just desktop programming). help?

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  • WPF Datagrid zoom issue

    - by David Osborn
    I'm working with the WPF DataGrid from the WPFToolkit and I'm having issues with trying to zoom the entire datagrid. My initial thought was that it was going to be really easy and I would just apply a scale transform to the grid and animate the ScaleX, ScaleY properties when the used clicked a button. This did not work however because the scrollbar was zoomed in making it larger. I need fixed headers and fixed columns on the datagrid so I can't simple use a scrollviewer outside of the datagrid to handle the scrolling. The second thing I tried was to just scale the font size in the grid, but this failed because on shrinking the font size the columns stay at the original width and do not shrink. Finally I thought I had it working by using the below code which goes into the view tree for the datagrid and adds a scale transform to the Scroll Content Presenter. (Also not shown in this code, I apply a transform to the visual tree item for the headers in the same manner so that it scales as well). I thought this was working great until I tested out the horizontal scrolling after zooming. (Vertical scrolling works perfectly.) Before zooming at all the horizontal scrolling is fine, but after zooming, when I scroll horzonitally the display freaks out. It is hard to tell exactly what it is doing, but it sort of looks like the content that is scrolling off the left of the screen is "folding over" and coming back in on the left. Maybe it is just all smashing up on the left side. Does anyone have any ideas how I can get this working, hopefully without throwing out my whole datagrid that is already working quite well otherwise. ScrollContentPresenter sp = (ScrollContentPresenter) VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(dgMatrix, 0), 0), 0),2); ScaleTransform st = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); sp.LayoutTransform = st; DoubleAnimation a = new DoubleAnimation(); a.By = 1.5; a.AutoReverse = false; a.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.Parse("0:0:0.25")); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty, a); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty, a);

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  • Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

    - by JD Courtoy
    I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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  • What should I do or don't do to avoid Delphi "push dword" bug.

    - by Maksee
    I found that Delphi 5 generates invalid assembly code in specific cases. I can't understand in what cases in general. The example below produces access violation since a very strange optimization occurs. For a byte in a record or array Delphi generates push dword [...], pop ebx, mov .., bl that works correctly if there are data after this byte (we need at least three to push dword correctly), but fails if the data is inaccessible. I emulated the strict boundaries here with win32 Virtual* functions Specifically the error occurs when the last byte from the block accessed inside FeedBytesToClass procedure. And if I try to change something like using data array instead of object property of remove actionFlag variable, Delphi generates correct assembly instructions. const BlockSize = 4096; type TSomeClass = class private fBytes: PByteArray; public property Bytes: PByteArray read fBytes; constructor Create; destructor Destroy;override; end; constructor TSomeClass.Create; begin inherited Create; GetMem(fBytes, BlockSize); end; destructor TSomeClass.Destroy; begin FreeMem(fBytes); inherited; end; procedure FeedBytesToClass(SrcDataBytes: PByteArray; Count: integer); var j: integer; Ofs: integer; actionFlag: boolean; AClass: TSomeClass; begin AClass:=TSomeClass.Create; try actionFlag:=true; for j:=0 to Count-1 do begin Ofs:=j; if actionFlag then begin AClass.Bytes[Ofs]:=SrcDataBytes[j]; end; end; finally AClass.Free; end; end; procedure TForm31.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var SrcDataBytes: PByteArray; begin SrcDataBytes:=VirtualAlloc(Nil, BlockSize, MEM_COMMIT, PAGE_READWRITE); try if VirtualLock(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize) then try FeedBytesToClass(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize); finally VirtualUnLock(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize); end; finally VirtualFree(SrcDataBytes, MEM_DECOMMIT, BlockSize); end; end; Initially the error occured when I used access to RGB data of bitmap bits, but the code there is too complex so I narrowed it to this fragment. So the question is what is here so specific that makes Delphi produce push,pop,mov optimization. I need to know this in order to avoid such side effects in general.

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  • What's the best way to structure this Linq-to-Events Drag & Drop code?

    - by Rob Fonseca-Ensor
    I am trying to handle a drag & drop interaction, which involves mouse down, mouse move, and mouse up. Here is a simplified repro of my solution that: on mouse down, creates an ellipse and adds it to a canvas on mouse move, repositions the ellipse to follow the mouse on mouse up, changes the colour of the canvas so that it's obvious which one you're dragging. var mouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var mouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseMove"); Ellipse ellipse = null; var q = from start in mouseDown.Do(x => { // handle mousedown by creating a red ellipse, // adding it to the canvas at the right position ellipse = new Ellipse() { Width = 10, Height = 10, Fill = Brushes.Red }; Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); canvas.Children.Add(ellipse); }) from delta in mouseMove.Until(mouseUp.Do(x => { // handle mouse up by making the ellipse green ellipse.Fill = Brushes.Green; })) select delta; q.Subscribe(x => { // handle mouse move by repositioning ellipse Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); }); the XAML is simply <Canvas x:Name="canvas"/> There's a few things I don't like about this code, and I need help refactoring it :) First of all: the mousedown and mouseup callbacks are specified as side effects. If two subscriptions are made to q, they will happen twice. Second, the mouseup callback is specified before the mousemove callback. This makes it a bit hard to read. Thirdly, the reference to the ellipse seems to be in a silly place. If there's two subscriptions, that variable reference will get overwritten quite quickly. I'm sure that there should be some way we can leverage the let keyword to introduce a variable to the linq expression that will mean the correct ellipse reference is available to both the mouse move and mouse up handlers How would you write this code?

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  • Mercurial over ssh client and server on Windows

    - by Ben Von Handorf
    I'm trying to configure Mercurial for use with both a windows server (freeSSHd) and client (both command line and TortoiseHG). I'm using the most recent versions of everything... all downloaded in the past few days. Using public key auth, I have been able to get connected to the server and I'm able to use plink to execute "hg version" and get a response, but when I try to clone a repository from the ssh server the command appears to hang. Running with -v yields: hg -v clone ssh://<username>@<server>//hg/repositoryA testRepositoryA running "plink.exe -i "<path to private key file>" <username>@<server> "hg -R /hg/repositoryA serve --stdio"" with nothing more forthcoming. Running the hg serve command directly on the server yields an apparently responsive Mercurial server, but the clients do not seem to make any further requests. Running "hg serve" in the repository directory and cloning over http works perfectly. What should I be looking for to help debug this? Is there something the clients (hg and TortoiseHG) aren't sending to continue the request stream? Additional Information: If I change to an invalid repository on the target machine, the appropriate error is displayed, so it does appear that the remote hg is running and correctly evaluating the path. Running with --debug and --traceback results in: sending hello command sending between command It hangs here, until I CTRL-C Traceback (most recent call last): File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 46, in _runcatch File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 452, in _dispatch File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 320, in runcommand File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 504, in _runcommand File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 457, in checkargs File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 451, in <lambda> File "mercurial\util.pyo", line 402, in check File "mercurial\commands.pyo", line 636, in clone File "mercurial\hg.pyo", line 187, in clone File "mercurial\hg.pyo", line 63, in repository File "mercurial\sshrepo.pyo", line 51, in __init__ File "mercurial\sshrepo.pyo", line 73, in validate_repo KeyboardInterrupt interrupted! Responding to Ryan: There does not appear to be any CPU usage or increasing memory usage on the server. It appears to be waiting for the client to send a request or something similar. 11/19/2009 : More information: The problem is definitely in the freeSSHd/server side of the equation. Connecting to bitbucket over ssh with the same keyset works fine. Still working on this.

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  • SSH login with expect(1). How to exit expect and remain in SSH?

    - by Koroviev
    So I wanted to automate my SSH logins. The host I'm with doesn't allow key authentication on this server, so I had to be more inventive. I don't know much about shell scripting, but some research showed me the command 'expect' and some scripts using it for exactly this purpose. I set up a script and ran it, it worked perfectly to login. #!/usr/bin/env expect -f set password "my_password" match_max 1000 spawn ssh -p 2222 "my_username"@11.22.11.22 expect "*?assword:*" send -- "$password\r" send -- "\r" expect eof Initially, it runs as it should. Last login: Wed May 12 21:07:52 on ttys002 esther:~ user$ expect expect-test.exp spawn ssh -p 2222 [email protected] [email protected]'s password: Last login: Wed May 12 15:44:43 2010 from 20.10.20.10 -jailshell-3.2$ But that's where the success ends. Commands do not work, but hitting enter just makes a new line. Arrow keys and other non-alphanumeric keys produce symbols like '^[[C', '^[[A', '^[OQ' etc.[1] No other prompt appears except the two initially created by the expect script. Any ignored commands will be executed by my local shell once expect times out. An example: -jailshell-3.2$ whoami ls pwd hostname (...time passes, expect times out...) esther:~ user$ whoami user esther:~ ciaran$ ls Books Documents Movies Public Code Downloads Music Sites Desktop Library Pictures expect-test.exp esther:~ ciaran$ pwd /Users/ciaran esther:~ ciaran$ hostname esther.local As I said, I have no shell scripting experience, but I think it's being caused because I'm still "inside of" expect, but not "inside of" SSH. Is there any way to terminate expect once I've logged in, and have it hand over the SSH session to me? I've tried commands like 'close' and 'exit', after " send -- "\r" ". Yeah, they do what I want and expect dies, but it vindictively takes the SSH session down with it, leaving me back where I started. What I really need is for expect to do its job and terminate, leaving the SSH session back in my hands as if I did it manually. All help is appreciated, thanks. [1] I know there's a name for this, but I don't know what it is. And this is one of those frightening things which can't be googled, because the punctuation characters are ignored. As a side question, what's the story here?

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  • WIX Installing an EXE after Msi install finishes.

    - by Chris
    Hi, I have created an MSI package which when finishes runs an exe. <Package InstallerVersion="200" Compressed="yes" /> <Media Id="1" Cabinet="media1.cab" EmbedCab="yes" /> <Directory Id="TARGETDIR" Name="SourceDir"> <Directory Id="ProgramFilesFolder"> <Directory Id="INSTALLLOCATION" Name="Installer Example"> <Component Id="VSTOR30.EXE" Guid="4fb0aee7-ec5b-4179-8938-a2be4df8ca0e"> <File Id="VSTOR30.EXE" Source="C:\Projects\InstallationTarget\ExampleInstaller\VSTOR30.EXE" KeyPath="yes" Checksum="yes" /> </Component> </Directory> </Directory> </Directory> <Feature Id="ProductFeature" Title="Installation Target" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="VSTOR30.EXE" /> </Feature> <InstallExecuteSequence> <Custom Action="RunEXE" After="InstallFinalize">NOT Installed</Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> <CustomAction Id="RunEXE" FileKey="VSTOR30.EXE" ExeCommand="[#VSTOR30.EXE]" Execute="immediate" Return="asyncNoWait"> </CustomAction> <UI /> The MSI installs but the EXE is not run. I am calling it after Install Finalize and checking the install sequence in ORCA shows that it is being called at the correct time. I need deploy this through group policy software installation which uses a silent install without inputs. If i use a custom UI and run the EXE in the exit dialog <UI> <UIRef Id="WixUI_Minimal" /> <Publish Dialog="ExitDialog" Control="Finish" Event="DoAction" Value="LaunchApplication">WIXUI_EXITDIALOGOPTIONALCHECKBOX = 1 and NOT Installed</Publish> </UI> <Property Id="WIXUI_EXITDIALOGOPTIONALCHECKBOXTEXT" Value="RunEXE" /> <!-- Step 3: Include the custom action --> <Property Id="WixShellExecTarget" Value="[#VSTOR30.exe]" /> <CustomAction Id="RunEXE" BinaryKey="WixCA" DllEntry="WixShellExec" Impersonate="yes" /> Then i can install the software after the msi has finished running, however when putting this group policy the EXE doesn't install. Is there anything i am missing? Chris

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  • Hibernate annotated many-to-one not adding child to parent Collection

    - by Rob Hruska
    I have the following annotated Hibernate entity classes: @Entity public class Cat { @Column(name = "ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "cat", cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) private Set<Kitten> kittens = new HashSet<Kitten>(); public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public Long getId() { return id; } public void setKittens(Set<Kitten> kittens) { this.kittens = kittens; } public Set<Kitten> getKittens() { return kittens; } } @Entity public class Kitten { @Column(name = "ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) private Cat cat; public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public Long getId() { return id; } public void setCat(Cat cat) { this.cat = cat; } public Cat getCat() { return cat; } } My intention here is a bidirectional one-to-many/many-to-one relationship between Cat and Kitten, with Kitten being the "owning side". What I want to happen is when I create a new Cat, followed by a new Kitten referencing the Cat, the Set of kittens on my Cat should contain the new Kitten. However, this does not happen in the following test: @Test public void testAssociations() { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction tx = session.beginTransaction(); Cat cat = new Cat(); session.save(cat); Kitten kitten = new Kitten(); kitten.setCat(cat); session.save(kitten); tx.commit(); assertNotNull(kitten.getCat()); assertEquals(cat.getId(), kitten.getCat().getId()); assertTrue(cat.getKittens().size() == 1); // <-- ASSERTION FAILS assertEquals(kitten, new ArrayList<Kitten>(cat.getKittens()).get(0)); } Even after re-querying the Cat, the Set is still empty: // added before tx.commit() and assertions cat = (Cat)session.get(Cat.class, cat.getId()); Am I expecting too much from Hibernate here? Or is the burden on me to manage the Collection myself? The (Annotations) documentation doesn't make any indication that I need to create convenience addTo*/removeFrom* methods on my parent object. Can someone please enlighten me on what my expectations should be from Hibernate with this relationship? Or if nothing else, point me to the correct Hibernate documentation that tells me what I should be expecting to happen here. What do I need to do to make the parent Collection automatically contain the child Entity?

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  • Help organising controllers logically

    - by kenny99
    Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

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  • Android table width queries

    - by user1653285
    I have a table layout (code below), but I have am having a bit of a problem with the width of the cells. The picture below shows the problem. There should be a white border on the right hand side of the screen. I also want the text "Auditorium" not to wrap onto a new line (I would prefer that "13th -" get put onto the new line instead, I don't want to put \n in there because then it would mean it goes onto a new line at that point on bigger screens/landscape view). How can I fix those two problems? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ScrollView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#013567" > <TableLayout android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:shrinkColumns="*" android:stretchColumns="*" > <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

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  • user generated / user specific functions

    - by pedalpete
    I'm looking for the most elegant and secure method to do the following. I have a calendar, and groups of users. Users can add events to specific days on the calendar, and specify how long each event lasts for. I've had a few requests from users to add the ability for them to define that events of a specific length include a break, of a certain amount of time, or require that a specific amount of time be left between events. For example, if event is 2 hours, include a 20min break. for each event, require 30 minutes before start of next event. The same group that has asked for an event of 2 hours to include a 20 min break, could also require that an event 3 hours include a 30 minute break. In the end, what the users are trying to get is an elapsed time excluding breaks calculated for them. Currently I provide them a total elapsed time, but they are looking for a running time. However, each of these requests is different for each group. Where one group may want a 30 minute break during a 2 hour event, and another may want only 10 minutes for each 3 hour event. I was kinda thinking I could write the functions into a php file per group, and then include that file and do the calculations via php and then return a calculated total to the user, but something about that doesn't sit right with me. Another option is to output the groups functions to javascript, and have it run client-side, as I'm already returning the duration of the event, but where the user is part of more than one group with different rules, this seems like it could get rather messy. I currently store the start and end time in the database, but no 'durations', and I don't think I should be storing the calculated totals in the db, because if a group decides to change their calculations, I'd need to change it throughout the db. Is there a better way of doing this? I would just store the variables in mysql, but I don't see how I can then say to mysql to calculate based on those variables. I'm REALLY lost here. Any suggestions? I'm hoping somebody has done something similar and can provide some insight into the best direction. If it helps, my table contains eventid, user, group, startDate, startTime, endDate, endTime, type The json for the event which I return to the user is {"eventid":"'.$eventId.'", "user":"'.$userId.'","group":"'.$groupId.'","type":"'.$type.'","startDate":".$startDate.'","startTime":"'.$startTime.'","endDate":"'.$endDate.'","endTime":"'.$endTime.'","durationLength":"'.$duration.'", "durationHrs":"'.$durationHrs.'"} where for example, duration length is 2.5 and duration hours is 2:30.

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  • make an http post from server using user credentials - integrated security

    - by opensas
    I'm trying to make a post, from an asp classic server side page, using the user credentials... I'm using msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP to programatically make the post I've tried with several configurations in the IIS 5.1 site, but there's no way I can make IIS run with a specified account... I made a little asp page that runs whoami to verify what account the iis process i using... with IIS 5.1, using integrated security the process uses: my_machine\IWAM_my_machine I disable integrated security, and leave a domain account as anonymous access, and I get the same (¿?) to test the user I do the following private function whoami() dim shell, cmd set shell = createObject("wscript.shell") set cmd = shell.exec( server.mapPath( "whoami.exe" ) ) whoami = cmd.stdOut.readAll() set shell = nothing: set cmd = nothing end function is it because I'm issuing a shell command? I'd like to make http post calls, to another site that works with integrated security... So I need some way to pass the credentials, or at least to run with a specified account, and then configure the remote site to thrust that account... I thought that just setting the site to work with integrated security would be enough... How can I achieve such a thing? ps: with IIS6,happens the same but if I change the pool canfiguration I get the following info from whoami NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM if I set a domain account, I get a "service unavailable" message... edit: found this http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/275269ee-1b9f-4869-8d72-c9006b5bd659.mspx?mfr=true it says what I supossed, "If an authenticated user makes a request, the thread token is based on the authenticated account of the user", but somehow I doesn't seem to work like that... what could I possibly be missing? edit: well the whoami thing is obviously fooling me, I tried with the following function private function whoami_db( serverName, dbName ) dim conn, data set conn = server.createObject("adodb.connection") conn.open "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;" & _ "Initial Catalog=" & dbName & ";Data Source=" & serverName set data = conn.execute( "select suser_sname() as user_name" ) whoami_db = data("user_name") data.close: conn.close set data = nothing: set conn = nothing end function and everything seemed to be working fine... but how can I make msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP work with the user credentials???

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  • What does this WCF error mean: "Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:portType"

    - by stiank81
    I created a WCF service library project in my solution, and have service references to this. I use the services from a class library, so I have references from my WPF application project in addition to the class library. Services are set up straight forward - only changed to get async service functions. Everything was working fine - until I wanted to update my service references. It failed, so I eventually rolled back and retried, but it failed even then! So - updating the service references fails without doing any changes to it. Why?! The error I get is this one: Custom tool error: Failed to generate code for the service reference 'MyServiceReference'. Please check other error and warning messages for details. The warning gives more information: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: List of referenced types contains more than one type with data contract name 'Patient' in namespace 'http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyApp.Model'. Need to exclude all but one of the following types. Only matching types can be valid references: "MyApp.Dashboard.MyServiceReference.Patient, Medski.Dashboard, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" (matching) "MyApp.Model.Patient, MyApp.Model, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" (matching) XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='ISomeService'] There are two similar warnings too saying: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='ISomeService'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='WSHttpBinding_ISomeService'] And the same for: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:port .. I find this all confusing.. I don't have a Patient class on the client side Dashboard except the one I got through the service reference. So what does it mean? And why does it suddenly show? Remember: I didn't even change anything! Now, the solution to this was found here, but without an explanation to what this means. So; in the "Configure service reference" for the service I uncheck the "Reuse types in the referenced assemblies" checkbox. Rebuilding now it all works fine without problems. But what did I really change? Will this make an impact on my application? And when should one uncheck this? I do want to reuse the types I've set up DataContract on, but no more. Will I still get access to those without this checked?

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  • ASP.NET MVC, Webform hybrid

    - by Greg Ogle
    We (me and my team) have a ASP.NET MVC application and we are integrating a page or two that are Web Forms. We are trying to reuse the Master Page from our MVC part of the app in the WebForms part. We have found a way of rendering an MVC partial view in web forms, which works great, until we try and do a postback, which is the reason for using a WebForm. The Error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. The Code to render the partial view from a WebForm (credited to "How to include a partial view inside a webform"): public static class WebFormMVCUtil { public static void RenderPartial(string partialName, object model) { //get a wrapper for the legacy WebForm context var httpCtx = new HttpContextWrapper(System.Web.HttpContext.Current); //create a mock route that points to the empty controller var rt = new RouteData(); rt.Values.Add("controller", "WebFormController"); //create a controller context for the route and http context var ctx = new ControllerContext( new RequestContext(httpCtx, rt), new WebFormController()); //find the partial view using the viewengine var view = ViewEngines.Engines.FindPartialView(ctx, partialName).View; //create a view context and assign the model var vctx = new ViewContext(ctx, view, new ViewDataDictionary { Model = model }, new TempDataDictionary()); //ERROR OCCURS ON THIS LINE view.Render(vctx, System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Output); } } My only experience with this error is in context of a web farm, which is not the case. Also, I understand that the machine key is used for decrypting the ViewState. Any information on how to diagnose this issue would be appreciated. A Work-around: So far the work-around is to move the header content to a PartialView, then use an AJAX call to call a page with just the Partial View from the WebForms, and then using the PartialView directly on the MVC Views. Also, we are still able to share non-tech-specific parts of the Master Page, i.e. anything that is not MVC specific. Still yet, this is not an ideal solution, a server-side solution is still desired. Also, this solutino has issues when working with controls that have more sophisticated controls, using JavaScript, particularly dynamically generated script as used by 3rd party controls.

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  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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  • markitup wysiwyg with a standard HTML form

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm trying to use the markitup editor on my site and I'm having a problem trying to figure out what I need to do to submit the text area to my server side script. I'm guessing there is something simple that needs to be done but my lack of JS/JQuery knowledge is making it really hard to find a answer The editor works fine, I just want to use my own form and submit button with it, however when I try to submit the form I don't get any of the textarea data in my script. Any idea what I need to do? This is the min that works (before submit) In the Head of my HTML <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); }); --> </script> And the body: <form id="postpreview" name="newpost" action="/someurl" method="POST" /> <input type="hidden" name="key1" value="val1" /> <input type="hidden" name="key2" value="val2" /> <textarea name="text" id="markItUp"></textarea> <input id="SubmitPost" type="image" value="Continue" name="Doit" class="preview" src="/img/somimage" /> </form> As I said, everything prior to the submit works but once I submit I don't get anything for the form data element "text". I tried doing this in the head: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#SubmitPost").click(function(){ data = markItUp.textarea.value; $.post("scripturl",{ key1: "value1", key2: "value2", text: data }); }); }); --> </script> I've also tried: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#postpreview").submit(function(){ var data = $("#markItUp").html(); $.post("live",{ func: "posting", text: data }); return false; }); }); --> </script> And I have no luck - the last attempt above just disabled the form (so clicking on the submit or preview buttons did nothing). Any ideas? I guessing its really simple to use my own form but I have no clue how to do it. TIA!

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  • Miller-rabin exception number?

    - by nightcracker
    Hey everyone. This question is about the number 169716931325235658326303. According to http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM it is prime. According to my miller-rabin implementation in python with 7 repetitions is is composite. With 50 repetitions it is still composite. With 5000 repetitions it is STILL composite. I thought, this might be a problem of my implementation. So I tried GNU MP bignum library, which has a miller-rabin primality test built-in. I tested with 1000000 repetitions. Still composite. This is my implementation of the miller-rabin primality test: def isprime(n, precision=7): if n == 1 or n % 2 == 0: return False elif n < 1: raise ValueError("Out of bounds, first argument must be > 0") d = n - 1 s = 0 while d % 2 == 0: d //= 2 s += 1 for repeat in range(precision): a = random.randrange(2, n - 2) x = pow(a, d, n) if x == 1 or x == n - 1: continue for r in range(s - 1): x = pow(x, 2, n) if x == 1: return False if x == n - 1: break else: return False return True And the code for the GMP test: #include <gmp.h> #include <stdio.h> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { mpz_t test; mpz_init_set_str(test, "169716931325235658326303", 10); printf("%d\n", mpz_probab_prime_p(test, 1000000)); mpz_clear(test); return 0; } As far as I know there are no "exceptions" (which return false positives for any amount of repetitions) to the miller-rabin primality test. Have I stumpled upon one? Is my computer broken? Is the Elliptic Curve Method wrong? What is happening here? EDIT I found the issue, which is http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM. I trusted this applet, I'll contact the author his applet's implementation of the ECM is faulty for this number. Thanks. EDIT2 Hah, the shame! In the end it was something that went wrong with copy/pasting on my side. NOR the applet NOR the miller-rabin algorithm NOR my implementation NOR gmp's implementation of it is wrong, the only thing that's wrong is me. I'm sorry.

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  • How to detect if Asp.Net form is valid

    - by Hasan Gürsoy
    Hi, I have a form which is in an updatePanel and I have a span with hidden loading image, which I want to show when user clicks to submit button but I first need to check if page is valid on client side. Also I'm making loading span visible with jQuery. Here is my code: <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function showLoading() { $('#loader').show(); } </script> </head> <body> <asp:ScriptManager ID="smMain" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upForm" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:MultiView ID="mvContact" runat="server" ActiveViewIndex="0"> <asp:View ID="vDefault" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="tEMail" runat="server" CssClass="input" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* required" Display="Dynamic" /> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="revEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* invalid" Display="Dynamic" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.']\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*" /> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Assets/Images/btnSubmit.png" ToolTip="Submit Form" style="margin:5px 5px 0 -5px" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="showLoading();" /> <span id="loader"><img src="Assets/Images/loader.gif" title="Sending..." /></span> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vResult" runat="server"> <div class="result"> <span id="lResult" runat="server">Your message is sent</span> </div> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </body></html>

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  • WCF XmlSerializer assembly not speeding up first request

    - by Matt Dearing
    I am generating proxy classes to a clients java webservice wsdls and xsd files with svcutil. The first call made to each service proxy class takes a very long time. I was hoping to speed this up by generating the XmlSerializers assembly myself (based on the article How to: Improve the Startup Time of WCF Client Applications using the XmlSerializer), but when I do the first call to each service still takes the same amount of time. Here are the steps I am following: //generate strong name key file sn -k Blah.snk //generate the proxy class file svcutil blah.wsdl blah2.wsdl blah3.wsdl ... base.xsd blah.xsd ... /UseSerializerForFaults /ser:XmlSerializer /n:*,SomeNamespace /out:Blah.cs //compile the class into an assembly signing it with the strong name key file csc /target:library /keyfile:Blah.snk /out:Blah.dll Blah.cs //generate the XmlSerializer code this will give us Blah.XmlSerializers.dll.cs svcutil /t:xmlSerializer Blah.dll //compile the xmlserializer code into its own dll using the same key to sign it and referencing the original dll csc /target:library /keyfile:Blah.snk /out:Blah.XmlSerializers.dll Blah.XmlSerializers.dll.cs /r:Blah.dll I then create a standard Console application that references both Blah.dll and Blah.XmlSerializers.dll. I will then try something like: //BlahProxy is one of the generated service proxy classes BlahProxy p = new BlahProxy(); //this call takes 30ish seconds p.SomeMethod(); BlahProxy p2 = new BlahProxy(); //this call takes < 1 second p2.SomeMethod(); //BlahProx2y is one of the generated service proxy classes BlahProxy2 p3 = new BlahProxy2(); //this call takes 30ish seconds p3.SomeMethod(); BlahProxy2 p4 = new BlahProxy2(); //this call takes < 1 second p4.SomeMethod(); I know that the problem is not server side because I don't see the request made in Fiddler until around 29 seconds. Subsequent calls to each service take < 1 second, so thats why I was hoping the main slow down was the .net runtime generating the xmlserializer code itself, compiling it and loading the assembly. I figured this would be the reason the first call to each service is slow and the rest are fast. Unfortunatley, me generating the code myself is not speeding anything up. Does anyone see what I am doing wrong?

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  • The most efficient method of drawing multiple quads in OpenGL

    - by CPatton
    I'm not very keen with OpenGL and I was wondering if someone could give me some insight on this. I'm a 'seasoned' programmer, I've read the redbook about VBOs and the like, but I was wondering from a more experienced person about the best/most efficient way of achieving this. I've been producing this 2d tile-based game engine to be used in several projects. I have a class called "ScreenObject" which is mainly composed of a Dictionary<Point, Tile> The Point key is to show where to render the Tile on the screen, and the Tile contains one or more textures to be drawn at that point. This ScreenObject is where the tiles will be modified, deleted, added, etc.. My original method of drawing the tiles in the testing I've done was to iterate through the ScreenObject and draw each quad at each location separately. From what I've read, this is a massive waste of resources. It wasn't horribly slow in the testing, but after I've completed the animation classes and effect classes, I'm sure it would be extremely slow. And one last thing, if you wouldn't mind.. As I said before, the Tile class can contain multiple textures to be drawn at the Point location on the screen. I recognize possibly two options for me here. Either add a quad at that location for each texture to be drawn, or, somehow.. use a multiple texture for the same quad (if it's possible). Even if each tile contained one texture only, that would be 64 quads to be drawn on the screen. Most of the tiles will contain 2-5 textures, so the number of total quads would increase dramatically with this method. Would it be feasible to add a quad for each new texture, or am I ignoring a better way to do this? Just need some help understanding this if you don't mind :) I've tried to be as concise as possible, and I'd greatly appreciate any responses.. and even some criticism. Programming is often a learning process and one who develops seems to never stops learning. Thanks for your time.

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  • compiling opencv 2.4 on a 64 bit mac in Xcode

    - by Walt
    I have an opencv project that I've been developing under ubuntu 12.04, on a parellels VM on a mac which has an x86_64 architecture. There have been many screen switching performance issues that I believe are due to the VM, where linux video modes flip around for a couple seconds while camera access is made by the opencv application. I decided to moved the project into Xcode on the mac side of the computer to continue the opencv development. However, I'm not that familiar with xcode and am having trouble getting the project to build correctly there. I have xcode installed. I downloaded and decompressed the latest version of opencv on the mac, and ran: ~/src/opencv/build/cmake-gui -G Xcode .. per the instructions from willowgarage and various other locations. This appeared to work fine (however I'm wondering now if I'm missing an architecture setting in here, although it is 64-bit intel in Xcode). I then setup an xcode project with the source files from the linux project and changed the include directories to use /opt/local/include/... rather than the /usr/local/include/... I switched xcode to use the LLVM GCC compiler in the build settings for the project then set the Apple LLVM Dialog for C++ to Language Dialect to GNU++11 (which seems possibly inconsistant with the line above) I'm not using a makefile in xcode, (that I'm aware of - it has its own project file...) I was also running into a linker issue that looked like they may be resolved with the addition of this linker flag: -lopencv_video based on a similar posting here: other thread however in that case the person was using a Makefile in their project. I've tried adding this linker flag under "Other Linker Flags" in xcode build settings but still get build errors. I think I may have two issues here, one with the architecture settings when building the opencv libraries with Cmake, and one with the linker flag settings in my project. Currently the build error list looks like this: Undefined symbols for architecture x86_64: "cv::_InputArray::_InputArray(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::_OutputArray::_OutputArray(cv::Mat&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::Mat::deallocate()", referenced from: cv::Mat::release() in main.o "cv::Mat::copySize(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: cv::Mat::Mat(cv::Mat const&)in main.o cv::Mat::operator=(cv::Mat const&)in main.o "cv::Mat::Mat(_IplImage const*, bool)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::imread(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&, int)", referenced from: _main in main.o ---SNIP--- ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture x86_64 collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Can anyone provide some guidance on what to try next? Thanks, Walt

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