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  • Sharing a file from Android to Gmail or to Dropbox

    - by Calaf
    To share a simple text file, I started by copying verbatim from FileProvider's manual page: <application android:allowBackup="true" android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" android:theme="@style/AppTheme" > <provider android:name="android.support.v4.content.FileProvider" android:authorities="com.mycorp.helloworldtxtfileprovider.MainActivity" android:exported="false" android:grantUriPermissions="true" > <meta-data android:name="android.support.FILE_PROVIDER_PATHS" android:resource="@xml/my_paths" /> </provider> <activity android:name="com.mycorp.helloworldtxtfileprovider.MainActivity" ... Then I saved a text file and used, again nearly verbatim, the code under Sending binary content. (Notice that this applies more accurately in this case than "Sending text content" since we are sending a file, which happens to be a text file, rather than just a string of text.) For the convenience of duplication on your side, and since the code is in any case so brief, I'm including it here in full. public class MainActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); String filename = "hellow.txt"; String fileContents = "Hello, World!\n"; byte[] bytes = fileContents.getBytes(); FileOutputStream fos = null; try { fos = this.openFileOutput(filename, MODE_PRIVATE); fos.write(bytes); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { try { fos.close(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } File file = new File(filename); Intent shareIntent = new Intent(); shareIntent.setAction(Intent.ACTION_SEND); shareIntent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_STREAM, Uri.fromFile(file)); shareIntent.setType("application/txt"); startActivity(Intent.createChooser(shareIntent, getResources().getText(R.string.send_to))); file.delete(); } } Aside from adding a value for send_to in res/values/strings.xml, the only other change I did to the generic Hello, World that Eclipse creates is to add the following in res/xml/my_paths.xml (as described on the page previously referenced. <paths xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <Files-path name="files" path="." /> </paths> This code runs fine. It shows a list of intent recipients. But sending the text file to either Dropbox or to Gmail fails. Dropbox sends the notification "Uploading to Dropbox" followed by "Upload failed: my_file.txt". After "sending message.." Gmail sends "Couldn't send attachment". What is wrong?

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  • WPF MVVM Pattern, ViewModel DataContext question

    - by orangecl4now
    I used this side to create my demo application http://windowsclient.net/learn/video.aspx?v=314683 The site was very useful in getting my started and in their example, they created a file called EmployeeRepository.cs which appears to be the source for the data. In their example, the data was hard-wired in code. So I'm trying to learn how to get the data from a data source (like a DB). In my specific case, I want to get the data from a Microsoft Access DB. (READ ONLY, So I'll only use SELECT commands). using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student One", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Two", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Three", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I found another example where an Access DB is used but it doesn't comply with MVVM. So I was trying to figure out how to add the DB file to the project, how to wire it up and bind it to a listbox (i'm not that far yet). Below is my modified file using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; // integrating new code with working code using Telephone_Directory_2010.telephone2010DataSetTableAdapters; using System.Windows.Data; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; // start // integrating new code with working code private telephone2010DataSet.telephone2010DataTable employeeTable; private CollectionView dataView; internal CollectionView DataView { get { if (dataView == null) { dataView = (CollectionView) CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(this.DataContext); } return dataView; } } public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } telephone2010TableAdapter employeeTableAdapter = new telephone2010TableAdapter(); employeeTable = employeeTableAdapter.GetData(); this.DataContext = employeeTable; } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I get the following error messages when building Error 1 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' does not contain a definition for 'DataContext' and no extension method 'DataContext' accepting a first argument of type 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) C:\Projects\VS2010\Telephone Directory 2010\Telephone Directory 2010\DataAccess\EmployeeRepository.cs 23 90 Telephone Directory 2010

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  • WPF Datagrid zoom issue

    - by David Osborn
    I'm working with the WPF DataGrid from the WPFToolkit and I'm having issues with trying to zoom the entire datagrid. My initial thought was that it was going to be really easy and I would just apply a scale transform to the grid and animate the ScaleX, ScaleY properties when the used clicked a button. This did not work however because the scrollbar was zoomed in making it larger. I need fixed headers and fixed columns on the datagrid so I can't simple use a scrollviewer outside of the datagrid to handle the scrolling. The second thing I tried was to just scale the font size in the grid, but this failed because on shrinking the font size the columns stay at the original width and do not shrink. Finally I thought I had it working by using the below code which goes into the view tree for the datagrid and adds a scale transform to the Scroll Content Presenter. (Also not shown in this code, I apply a transform to the visual tree item for the headers in the same manner so that it scales as well). I thought this was working great until I tested out the horizontal scrolling after zooming. (Vertical scrolling works perfectly.) Before zooming at all the horizontal scrolling is fine, but after zooming, when I scroll horzonitally the display freaks out. It is hard to tell exactly what it is doing, but it sort of looks like the content that is scrolling off the left of the screen is "folding over" and coming back in on the left. Maybe it is just all smashing up on the left side. Does anyone have any ideas how I can get this working, hopefully without throwing out my whole datagrid that is already working quite well otherwise. ScrollContentPresenter sp = (ScrollContentPresenter) VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(dgMatrix, 0), 0), 0),2); ScaleTransform st = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); sp.LayoutTransform = st; DoubleAnimation a = new DoubleAnimation(); a.By = 1.5; a.AutoReverse = false; a.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.Parse("0:0:0.25")); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty, a); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty, a);

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  • What should I do or don't do to avoid Delphi "push dword" bug.

    - by Maksee
    I found that Delphi 5 generates invalid assembly code in specific cases. I can't understand in what cases in general. The example below produces access violation since a very strange optimization occurs. For a byte in a record or array Delphi generates push dword [...], pop ebx, mov .., bl that works correctly if there are data after this byte (we need at least three to push dword correctly), but fails if the data is inaccessible. I emulated the strict boundaries here with win32 Virtual* functions Specifically the error occurs when the last byte from the block accessed inside FeedBytesToClass procedure. And if I try to change something like using data array instead of object property of remove actionFlag variable, Delphi generates correct assembly instructions. const BlockSize = 4096; type TSomeClass = class private fBytes: PByteArray; public property Bytes: PByteArray read fBytes; constructor Create; destructor Destroy;override; end; constructor TSomeClass.Create; begin inherited Create; GetMem(fBytes, BlockSize); end; destructor TSomeClass.Destroy; begin FreeMem(fBytes); inherited; end; procedure FeedBytesToClass(SrcDataBytes: PByteArray; Count: integer); var j: integer; Ofs: integer; actionFlag: boolean; AClass: TSomeClass; begin AClass:=TSomeClass.Create; try actionFlag:=true; for j:=0 to Count-1 do begin Ofs:=j; if actionFlag then begin AClass.Bytes[Ofs]:=SrcDataBytes[j]; end; end; finally AClass.Free; end; end; procedure TForm31.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var SrcDataBytes: PByteArray; begin SrcDataBytes:=VirtualAlloc(Nil, BlockSize, MEM_COMMIT, PAGE_READWRITE); try if VirtualLock(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize) then try FeedBytesToClass(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize); finally VirtualUnLock(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize); end; finally VirtualFree(SrcDataBytes, MEM_DECOMMIT, BlockSize); end; end; Initially the error occured when I used access to RGB data of bitmap bits, but the code there is too complex so I narrowed it to this fragment. So the question is what is here so specific that makes Delphi produce push,pop,mov optimization. I need to know this in order to avoid such side effects in general.

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  • What's the best way to structure this Linq-to-Events Drag & Drop code?

    - by Rob Fonseca-Ensor
    I am trying to handle a drag & drop interaction, which involves mouse down, mouse move, and mouse up. Here is a simplified repro of my solution that: on mouse down, creates an ellipse and adds it to a canvas on mouse move, repositions the ellipse to follow the mouse on mouse up, changes the colour of the canvas so that it's obvious which one you're dragging. var mouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var mouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseMove"); Ellipse ellipse = null; var q = from start in mouseDown.Do(x => { // handle mousedown by creating a red ellipse, // adding it to the canvas at the right position ellipse = new Ellipse() { Width = 10, Height = 10, Fill = Brushes.Red }; Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); canvas.Children.Add(ellipse); }) from delta in mouseMove.Until(mouseUp.Do(x => { // handle mouse up by making the ellipse green ellipse.Fill = Brushes.Green; })) select delta; q.Subscribe(x => { // handle mouse move by repositioning ellipse Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); }); the XAML is simply <Canvas x:Name="canvas"/> There's a few things I don't like about this code, and I need help refactoring it :) First of all: the mousedown and mouseup callbacks are specified as side effects. If two subscriptions are made to q, they will happen twice. Second, the mouseup callback is specified before the mousemove callback. This makes it a bit hard to read. Thirdly, the reference to the ellipse seems to be in a silly place. If there's two subscriptions, that variable reference will get overwritten quite quickly. I'm sure that there should be some way we can leverage the let keyword to introduce a variable to the linq expression that will mean the correct ellipse reference is available to both the mouse move and mouse up handlers How would you write this code?

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  • Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

    - by JD Courtoy
    I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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  • Mercurial over ssh client and server on Windows

    - by Ben Von Handorf
    I'm trying to configure Mercurial for use with both a windows server (freeSSHd) and client (both command line and TortoiseHG). I'm using the most recent versions of everything... all downloaded in the past few days. Using public key auth, I have been able to get connected to the server and I'm able to use plink to execute "hg version" and get a response, but when I try to clone a repository from the ssh server the command appears to hang. Running with -v yields: hg -v clone ssh://<username>@<server>//hg/repositoryA testRepositoryA running "plink.exe -i "<path to private key file>" <username>@<server> "hg -R /hg/repositoryA serve --stdio"" with nothing more forthcoming. Running the hg serve command directly on the server yields an apparently responsive Mercurial server, but the clients do not seem to make any further requests. Running "hg serve" in the repository directory and cloning over http works perfectly. What should I be looking for to help debug this? Is there something the clients (hg and TortoiseHG) aren't sending to continue the request stream? Additional Information: If I change to an invalid repository on the target machine, the appropriate error is displayed, so it does appear that the remote hg is running and correctly evaluating the path. Running with --debug and --traceback results in: sending hello command sending between command It hangs here, until I CTRL-C Traceback (most recent call last): File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 46, in _runcatch File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 452, in _dispatch File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 320, in runcommand File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 504, in _runcommand File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 457, in checkargs File "mercurial\dispatch.pyo", line 451, in <lambda> File "mercurial\util.pyo", line 402, in check File "mercurial\commands.pyo", line 636, in clone File "mercurial\hg.pyo", line 187, in clone File "mercurial\hg.pyo", line 63, in repository File "mercurial\sshrepo.pyo", line 51, in __init__ File "mercurial\sshrepo.pyo", line 73, in validate_repo KeyboardInterrupt interrupted! Responding to Ryan: There does not appear to be any CPU usage or increasing memory usage on the server. It appears to be waiting for the client to send a request or something similar. 11/19/2009 : More information: The problem is definitely in the freeSSHd/server side of the equation. Connecting to bitbucket over ssh with the same keyset works fine. Still working on this.

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  • json problems with making a ruby on rails application

    - by Prince Merdz
    So I'm using Bitnami to learn Ruby on Rails. I have also previously tried the manual installation for ruby and rails and was met by the same problem so I thought I should try first the easy package deal of Bitnami. Anyway my problem with json is that it causes the bundle install to fail. First the auto bundle install that rails new does fails because of an ssl error. Which is easily solved by changing the source in the gemfile which is https to http. However when I try to bundle install it does another error when it tries to install json. C:\RubyStack-3.2.7-0\projects\testing>bundle install Fetching gem metadata from http://rubygems.org/......... Using rake (0.9.2.2) Using i18n (0.6.0) Using multi_json (1.3.6) Installing activesupport (3.2.8) Using builder (3.0.0) Installing activemodel (3.2.8) Using erubis (2.7.0) Using journey (1.0.4) Using rack (1.4.1) Using rack-cache (1.2) Using rack-test (0.6.1) Using hike (1.2.1) Using tilt (1.3.3) Using sprockets (2.1.3) Installing actionpack (3.2.8) Using mime-types (1.19) Using polyglot (0.3.3) Using treetop (1.4.10) Using mail (2.4.4) Installing actionmailer (3.2.8) Using arel (3.0.2) Using tzinfo (0.3.33) Installing activerecord (3.2.8) Installing activeresource (3.2.8) Using bundler (1.1.5) Using coffee-script-source (1.3.3) Using execjs (1.4.0) Using coffee-script (2.2.0) Using rack-ssl (1.3.2) Installing json (1.7.5) with native extensions Gem::Installer::ExtensionBuildError: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension . C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/bin/ruby.exe extconf.rb creating Makefile make 0 [main] echo 5244 open_stackdumpfile: Dumping stack trace to echo.exe.sta ckdump make: *** [generator-i386-mingw32.def] Error 5 Gem files will remain installed in C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems /json-1.7.5 for inspection. Results logged to C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/json-1.7.5/ext/j son/ext/generator/gem_make.out An error occured while installing json (1.7.5), and Bundler cannot continue. Make sure that `gem install json -v '1.7.5'` succeeds before bundling. This is the gem_make.out file it produces after trying to install json (btw windows also produces an error that echo.exe has stopped working while running the gem install json) C:/RUBYST~1.7-0/ruby/bin/ruby.exe extconf.rb creating Makefile make 0 [main] echo 5244 open_stackdumpfile: Dumping stack trace to echo.exe.stackdump make: *** [generator-i386-mingw32.def] Error 5 I can't even start learning ror for the setup is already a huge pain. (btw I have no prior experience with web frameworks, just desktop programming). help?

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  • WIX Installing an EXE after Msi install finishes.

    - by Chris
    Hi, I have created an MSI package which when finishes runs an exe. <Package InstallerVersion="200" Compressed="yes" /> <Media Id="1" Cabinet="media1.cab" EmbedCab="yes" /> <Directory Id="TARGETDIR" Name="SourceDir"> <Directory Id="ProgramFilesFolder"> <Directory Id="INSTALLLOCATION" Name="Installer Example"> <Component Id="VSTOR30.EXE" Guid="4fb0aee7-ec5b-4179-8938-a2be4df8ca0e"> <File Id="VSTOR30.EXE" Source="C:\Projects\InstallationTarget\ExampleInstaller\VSTOR30.EXE" KeyPath="yes" Checksum="yes" /> </Component> </Directory> </Directory> </Directory> <Feature Id="ProductFeature" Title="Installation Target" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="VSTOR30.EXE" /> </Feature> <InstallExecuteSequence> <Custom Action="RunEXE" After="InstallFinalize">NOT Installed</Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> <CustomAction Id="RunEXE" FileKey="VSTOR30.EXE" ExeCommand="[#VSTOR30.EXE]" Execute="immediate" Return="asyncNoWait"> </CustomAction> <UI /> The MSI installs but the EXE is not run. I am calling it after Install Finalize and checking the install sequence in ORCA shows that it is being called at the correct time. I need deploy this through group policy software installation which uses a silent install without inputs. If i use a custom UI and run the EXE in the exit dialog <UI> <UIRef Id="WixUI_Minimal" /> <Publish Dialog="ExitDialog" Control="Finish" Event="DoAction" Value="LaunchApplication">WIXUI_EXITDIALOGOPTIONALCHECKBOX = 1 and NOT Installed</Publish> </UI> <Property Id="WIXUI_EXITDIALOGOPTIONALCHECKBOXTEXT" Value="RunEXE" /> <!-- Step 3: Include the custom action --> <Property Id="WixShellExecTarget" Value="[#VSTOR30.exe]" /> <CustomAction Id="RunEXE" BinaryKey="WixCA" DllEntry="WixShellExec" Impersonate="yes" /> Then i can install the software after the msi has finished running, however when putting this group policy the EXE doesn't install. Is there anything i am missing? Chris

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  • Help organising controllers logically

    - by kenny99
    Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

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  • Hibernate annotated many-to-one not adding child to parent Collection

    - by Rob Hruska
    I have the following annotated Hibernate entity classes: @Entity public class Cat { @Column(name = "ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "cat", cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) private Set<Kitten> kittens = new HashSet<Kitten>(); public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public Long getId() { return id; } public void setKittens(Set<Kitten> kittens) { this.kittens = kittens; } public Set<Kitten> getKittens() { return kittens; } } @Entity public class Kitten { @Column(name = "ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) private Cat cat; public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public Long getId() { return id; } public void setCat(Cat cat) { this.cat = cat; } public Cat getCat() { return cat; } } My intention here is a bidirectional one-to-many/many-to-one relationship between Cat and Kitten, with Kitten being the "owning side". What I want to happen is when I create a new Cat, followed by a new Kitten referencing the Cat, the Set of kittens on my Cat should contain the new Kitten. However, this does not happen in the following test: @Test public void testAssociations() { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction tx = session.beginTransaction(); Cat cat = new Cat(); session.save(cat); Kitten kitten = new Kitten(); kitten.setCat(cat); session.save(kitten); tx.commit(); assertNotNull(kitten.getCat()); assertEquals(cat.getId(), kitten.getCat().getId()); assertTrue(cat.getKittens().size() == 1); // <-- ASSERTION FAILS assertEquals(kitten, new ArrayList<Kitten>(cat.getKittens()).get(0)); } Even after re-querying the Cat, the Set is still empty: // added before tx.commit() and assertions cat = (Cat)session.get(Cat.class, cat.getId()); Am I expecting too much from Hibernate here? Or is the burden on me to manage the Collection myself? The (Annotations) documentation doesn't make any indication that I need to create convenience addTo*/removeFrom* methods on my parent object. Can someone please enlighten me on what my expectations should be from Hibernate with this relationship? Or if nothing else, point me to the correct Hibernate documentation that tells me what I should be expecting to happen here. What do I need to do to make the parent Collection automatically contain the child Entity?

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  • How to use Broadcast Receiver in different Applications in Android?

    - by Sebi
    Hi I have here two applications in two different projects in eclipse. One application (A) defines an activity (A1) which is started first. Then i start from this activity the second activity (B1) in the second project (B). This works fine. I start it the following way: Intent intent = new Intent("pacman.intent.action.Launch"); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP); startActivity(intent); Now i want to send intents bewtween the two activities by using broadcast receivers. In activity A1 i send the intents the following way: Intent intent = new Intent("pacman.intent.action.BROADCAST"); intent.putExtra("message","Wake up."); sendBroadcast(intent); The part of the manifest file in activity A1 that is responsible for this broadcast is the following: <activity android:name="ch.ifi.csg.games4blue.games.pacman.controller.PacmanGame" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.BROADCAST" /> </intent-filter> </activity> In the receiving activity, I define the receiver the following way in the manifest file: <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".PacmanGame" android:label="@string/app_name" android:screenOrientation="portrait"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="pacman.intent.action.Launch" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> <receiver android:name="ch.ifi.csg.games4blue.games.pacman.controller.MsgListener" /> </activity> </application> The class message listener is implemented this way: public class MsgListener extends BroadcastReceiver { /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.content.BroadcastReceiver#onReceive(android.content.Context, android.content.Intent) */ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { System.out.println("Message at Pacman received!"); } } Unfortunately, the message is never received. Although the method in activity A1 is called, i never receive an intent in B1. Any hints how to solve this? Thanks a lot!

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  • user generated / user specific functions

    - by pedalpete
    I'm looking for the most elegant and secure method to do the following. I have a calendar, and groups of users. Users can add events to specific days on the calendar, and specify how long each event lasts for. I've had a few requests from users to add the ability for them to define that events of a specific length include a break, of a certain amount of time, or require that a specific amount of time be left between events. For example, if event is 2 hours, include a 20min break. for each event, require 30 minutes before start of next event. The same group that has asked for an event of 2 hours to include a 20 min break, could also require that an event 3 hours include a 30 minute break. In the end, what the users are trying to get is an elapsed time excluding breaks calculated for them. Currently I provide them a total elapsed time, but they are looking for a running time. However, each of these requests is different for each group. Where one group may want a 30 minute break during a 2 hour event, and another may want only 10 minutes for each 3 hour event. I was kinda thinking I could write the functions into a php file per group, and then include that file and do the calculations via php and then return a calculated total to the user, but something about that doesn't sit right with me. Another option is to output the groups functions to javascript, and have it run client-side, as I'm already returning the duration of the event, but where the user is part of more than one group with different rules, this seems like it could get rather messy. I currently store the start and end time in the database, but no 'durations', and I don't think I should be storing the calculated totals in the db, because if a group decides to change their calculations, I'd need to change it throughout the db. Is there a better way of doing this? I would just store the variables in mysql, but I don't see how I can then say to mysql to calculate based on those variables. I'm REALLY lost here. Any suggestions? I'm hoping somebody has done something similar and can provide some insight into the best direction. If it helps, my table contains eventid, user, group, startDate, startTime, endDate, endTime, type The json for the event which I return to the user is {"eventid":"'.$eventId.'", "user":"'.$userId.'","group":"'.$groupId.'","type":"'.$type.'","startDate":".$startDate.'","startTime":"'.$startTime.'","endDate":"'.$endDate.'","endTime":"'.$endTime.'","durationLength":"'.$duration.'", "durationHrs":"'.$durationHrs.'"} where for example, duration length is 2.5 and duration hours is 2:30.

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  • SSH login with expect(1). How to exit expect and remain in SSH?

    - by Koroviev
    So I wanted to automate my SSH logins. The host I'm with doesn't allow key authentication on this server, so I had to be more inventive. I don't know much about shell scripting, but some research showed me the command 'expect' and some scripts using it for exactly this purpose. I set up a script and ran it, it worked perfectly to login. #!/usr/bin/env expect -f set password "my_password" match_max 1000 spawn ssh -p 2222 "my_username"@11.22.11.22 expect "*?assword:*" send -- "$password\r" send -- "\r" expect eof Initially, it runs as it should. Last login: Wed May 12 21:07:52 on ttys002 esther:~ user$ expect expect-test.exp spawn ssh -p 2222 [email protected] [email protected]'s password: Last login: Wed May 12 15:44:43 2010 from 20.10.20.10 -jailshell-3.2$ But that's where the success ends. Commands do not work, but hitting enter just makes a new line. Arrow keys and other non-alphanumeric keys produce symbols like '^[[C', '^[[A', '^[OQ' etc.[1] No other prompt appears except the two initially created by the expect script. Any ignored commands will be executed by my local shell once expect times out. An example: -jailshell-3.2$ whoami ls pwd hostname (...time passes, expect times out...) esther:~ user$ whoami user esther:~ ciaran$ ls Books Documents Movies Public Code Downloads Music Sites Desktop Library Pictures expect-test.exp esther:~ ciaran$ pwd /Users/ciaran esther:~ ciaran$ hostname esther.local As I said, I have no shell scripting experience, but I think it's being caused because I'm still "inside of" expect, but not "inside of" SSH. Is there any way to terminate expect once I've logged in, and have it hand over the SSH session to me? I've tried commands like 'close' and 'exit', after " send -- "\r" ". Yeah, they do what I want and expect dies, but it vindictively takes the SSH session down with it, leaving me back where I started. What I really need is for expect to do its job and terminate, leaving the SSH session back in my hands as if I did it manually. All help is appreciated, thanks. [1] I know there's a name for this, but I don't know what it is. And this is one of those frightening things which can't be googled, because the punctuation characters are ignored. As a side question, what's the story here?

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  • make an http post from server using user credentials - integrated security

    - by opensas
    I'm trying to make a post, from an asp classic server side page, using the user credentials... I'm using msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP to programatically make the post I've tried with several configurations in the IIS 5.1 site, but there's no way I can make IIS run with a specified account... I made a little asp page that runs whoami to verify what account the iis process i using... with IIS 5.1, using integrated security the process uses: my_machine\IWAM_my_machine I disable integrated security, and leave a domain account as anonymous access, and I get the same (¿?) to test the user I do the following private function whoami() dim shell, cmd set shell = createObject("wscript.shell") set cmd = shell.exec( server.mapPath( "whoami.exe" ) ) whoami = cmd.stdOut.readAll() set shell = nothing: set cmd = nothing end function is it because I'm issuing a shell command? I'd like to make http post calls, to another site that works with integrated security... So I need some way to pass the credentials, or at least to run with a specified account, and then configure the remote site to thrust that account... I thought that just setting the site to work with integrated security would be enough... How can I achieve such a thing? ps: with IIS6,happens the same but if I change the pool canfiguration I get the following info from whoami NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM if I set a domain account, I get a "service unavailable" message... edit: found this http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/275269ee-1b9f-4869-8d72-c9006b5bd659.mspx?mfr=true it says what I supossed, "If an authenticated user makes a request, the thread token is based on the authenticated account of the user", but somehow I doesn't seem to work like that... what could I possibly be missing? edit: well the whoami thing is obviously fooling me, I tried with the following function private function whoami_db( serverName, dbName ) dim conn, data set conn = server.createObject("adodb.connection") conn.open "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;" & _ "Initial Catalog=" & dbName & ";Data Source=" & serverName set data = conn.execute( "select suser_sname() as user_name" ) whoami_db = data("user_name") data.close: conn.close set data = nothing: set conn = nothing end function and everything seemed to be working fine... but how can I make msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP work with the user credentials???

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  • What does this WCF error mean: "Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:portType"

    - by stiank81
    I created a WCF service library project in my solution, and have service references to this. I use the services from a class library, so I have references from my WPF application project in addition to the class library. Services are set up straight forward - only changed to get async service functions. Everything was working fine - until I wanted to update my service references. It failed, so I eventually rolled back and retried, but it failed even then! So - updating the service references fails without doing any changes to it. Why?! The error I get is this one: Custom tool error: Failed to generate code for the service reference 'MyServiceReference'. Please check other error and warning messages for details. The warning gives more information: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: List of referenced types contains more than one type with data contract name 'Patient' in namespace 'http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyApp.Model'. Need to exclude all but one of the following types. Only matching types can be valid references: "MyApp.Dashboard.MyServiceReference.Patient, Medski.Dashboard, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" (matching) "MyApp.Model.Patient, MyApp.Model, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" (matching) XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='ISomeService'] There are two similar warnings too saying: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='ISomeService'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='WSHttpBinding_ISomeService'] And the same for: Custom tool warning: Cannot import wsdl:port .. I find this all confusing.. I don't have a Patient class on the client side Dashboard except the one I got through the service reference. So what does it mean? And why does it suddenly show? Remember: I didn't even change anything! Now, the solution to this was found here, but without an explanation to what this means. So; in the "Configure service reference" for the service I uncheck the "Reuse types in the referenced assemblies" checkbox. Rebuilding now it all works fine without problems. But what did I really change? Will this make an impact on my application? And when should one uncheck this? I do want to reuse the types I've set up DataContract on, but no more. Will I still get access to those without this checked?

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  • Android table width queries

    - by user1653285
    I have a table layout (code below), but I have am having a bit of a problem with the width of the cells. The picture below shows the problem. There should be a white border on the right hand side of the screen. I also want the text "Auditorium" not to wrap onto a new line (I would prefer that "13th -" get put onto the new line instead, I don't want to put \n in there because then it would mean it goes onto a new line at that point on bigger screens/landscape view). How can I fix those two problems? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ScrollView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#013567" > <TableLayout android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:shrinkColumns="*" android:stretchColumns="*" > <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

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  • ASP.NET MVC, Webform hybrid

    - by Greg Ogle
    We (me and my team) have a ASP.NET MVC application and we are integrating a page or two that are Web Forms. We are trying to reuse the Master Page from our MVC part of the app in the WebForms part. We have found a way of rendering an MVC partial view in web forms, which works great, until we try and do a postback, which is the reason for using a WebForm. The Error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. The Code to render the partial view from a WebForm (credited to "How to include a partial view inside a webform"): public static class WebFormMVCUtil { public static void RenderPartial(string partialName, object model) { //get a wrapper for the legacy WebForm context var httpCtx = new HttpContextWrapper(System.Web.HttpContext.Current); //create a mock route that points to the empty controller var rt = new RouteData(); rt.Values.Add("controller", "WebFormController"); //create a controller context for the route and http context var ctx = new ControllerContext( new RequestContext(httpCtx, rt), new WebFormController()); //find the partial view using the viewengine var view = ViewEngines.Engines.FindPartialView(ctx, partialName).View; //create a view context and assign the model var vctx = new ViewContext(ctx, view, new ViewDataDictionary { Model = model }, new TempDataDictionary()); //ERROR OCCURS ON THIS LINE view.Render(vctx, System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Output); } } My only experience with this error is in context of a web farm, which is not the case. Also, I understand that the machine key is used for decrypting the ViewState. Any information on how to diagnose this issue would be appreciated. A Work-around: So far the work-around is to move the header content to a PartialView, then use an AJAX call to call a page with just the Partial View from the WebForms, and then using the PartialView directly on the MVC Views. Also, we are still able to share non-tech-specific parts of the Master Page, i.e. anything that is not MVC specific. Still yet, this is not an ideal solution, a server-side solution is still desired. Also, this solutino has issues when working with controls that have more sophisticated controls, using JavaScript, particularly dynamically generated script as used by 3rd party controls.

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  • WCF XmlSerializer assembly not speeding up first request

    - by Matt Dearing
    I am generating proxy classes to a clients java webservice wsdls and xsd files with svcutil. The first call made to each service proxy class takes a very long time. I was hoping to speed this up by generating the XmlSerializers assembly myself (based on the article How to: Improve the Startup Time of WCF Client Applications using the XmlSerializer), but when I do the first call to each service still takes the same amount of time. Here are the steps I am following: //generate strong name key file sn -k Blah.snk //generate the proxy class file svcutil blah.wsdl blah2.wsdl blah3.wsdl ... base.xsd blah.xsd ... /UseSerializerForFaults /ser:XmlSerializer /n:*,SomeNamespace /out:Blah.cs //compile the class into an assembly signing it with the strong name key file csc /target:library /keyfile:Blah.snk /out:Blah.dll Blah.cs //generate the XmlSerializer code this will give us Blah.XmlSerializers.dll.cs svcutil /t:xmlSerializer Blah.dll //compile the xmlserializer code into its own dll using the same key to sign it and referencing the original dll csc /target:library /keyfile:Blah.snk /out:Blah.XmlSerializers.dll Blah.XmlSerializers.dll.cs /r:Blah.dll I then create a standard Console application that references both Blah.dll and Blah.XmlSerializers.dll. I will then try something like: //BlahProxy is one of the generated service proxy classes BlahProxy p = new BlahProxy(); //this call takes 30ish seconds p.SomeMethod(); BlahProxy p2 = new BlahProxy(); //this call takes < 1 second p2.SomeMethod(); //BlahProx2y is one of the generated service proxy classes BlahProxy2 p3 = new BlahProxy2(); //this call takes 30ish seconds p3.SomeMethod(); BlahProxy2 p4 = new BlahProxy2(); //this call takes < 1 second p4.SomeMethod(); I know that the problem is not server side because I don't see the request made in Fiddler until around 29 seconds. Subsequent calls to each service take < 1 second, so thats why I was hoping the main slow down was the .net runtime generating the xmlserializer code itself, compiling it and loading the assembly. I figured this would be the reason the first call to each service is slow and the rest are fast. Unfortunatley, me generating the code myself is not speeding anything up. Does anyone see what I am doing wrong?

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  • Miller-rabin exception number?

    - by nightcracker
    Hey everyone. This question is about the number 169716931325235658326303. According to http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM it is prime. According to my miller-rabin implementation in python with 7 repetitions is is composite. With 50 repetitions it is still composite. With 5000 repetitions it is STILL composite. I thought, this might be a problem of my implementation. So I tried GNU MP bignum library, which has a miller-rabin primality test built-in. I tested with 1000000 repetitions. Still composite. This is my implementation of the miller-rabin primality test: def isprime(n, precision=7): if n == 1 or n % 2 == 0: return False elif n < 1: raise ValueError("Out of bounds, first argument must be > 0") d = n - 1 s = 0 while d % 2 == 0: d //= 2 s += 1 for repeat in range(precision): a = random.randrange(2, n - 2) x = pow(a, d, n) if x == 1 or x == n - 1: continue for r in range(s - 1): x = pow(x, 2, n) if x == 1: return False if x == n - 1: break else: return False return True And the code for the GMP test: #include <gmp.h> #include <stdio.h> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { mpz_t test; mpz_init_set_str(test, "169716931325235658326303", 10); printf("%d\n", mpz_probab_prime_p(test, 1000000)); mpz_clear(test); return 0; } As far as I know there are no "exceptions" (which return false positives for any amount of repetitions) to the miller-rabin primality test. Have I stumpled upon one? Is my computer broken? Is the Elliptic Curve Method wrong? What is happening here? EDIT I found the issue, which is http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM. I trusted this applet, I'll contact the author his applet's implementation of the ECM is faulty for this number. Thanks. EDIT2 Hah, the shame! In the end it was something that went wrong with copy/pasting on my side. NOR the applet NOR the miller-rabin algorithm NOR my implementation NOR gmp's implementation of it is wrong, the only thing that's wrong is me. I'm sorry.

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  • The most efficient method of drawing multiple quads in OpenGL

    - by CPatton
    I'm not very keen with OpenGL and I was wondering if someone could give me some insight on this. I'm a 'seasoned' programmer, I've read the redbook about VBOs and the like, but I was wondering from a more experienced person about the best/most efficient way of achieving this. I've been producing this 2d tile-based game engine to be used in several projects. I have a class called "ScreenObject" which is mainly composed of a Dictionary<Point, Tile> The Point key is to show where to render the Tile on the screen, and the Tile contains one or more textures to be drawn at that point. This ScreenObject is where the tiles will be modified, deleted, added, etc.. My original method of drawing the tiles in the testing I've done was to iterate through the ScreenObject and draw each quad at each location separately. From what I've read, this is a massive waste of resources. It wasn't horribly slow in the testing, but after I've completed the animation classes and effect classes, I'm sure it would be extremely slow. And one last thing, if you wouldn't mind.. As I said before, the Tile class can contain multiple textures to be drawn at the Point location on the screen. I recognize possibly two options for me here. Either add a quad at that location for each texture to be drawn, or, somehow.. use a multiple texture for the same quad (if it's possible). Even if each tile contained one texture only, that would be 64 quads to be drawn on the screen. Most of the tiles will contain 2-5 textures, so the number of total quads would increase dramatically with this method. Would it be feasible to add a quad for each new texture, or am I ignoring a better way to do this? Just need some help understanding this if you don't mind :) I've tried to be as concise as possible, and I'd greatly appreciate any responses.. and even some criticism. Programming is often a learning process and one who develops seems to never stops learning. Thanks for your time.

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  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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  • UpdateProgress with UpdatePanel not showing up in User control when page is loading

    - by Carter
    Is this typical behavior of the UpdateProgress for an ASP.Net UpdatePanel? I have an update panel with the UpdateProgress control inside of a user control window on a page. If I then make the page in the background do some loading and click a button in the user control update panel the UpdateProgress does not show up at all. It's like the UpdatePanels refresh request is not even registered until after the actual page is done doing it's business. It's worth noting that it will show up if nothing is happening in the background. The functionality I want is what you would expect. I want to loader to show up if it has to wait for anything to get it's refresh done when after the button is clicked. I know I can get this functionality if I just use jquery ajax with a static web method, but you can't have static web methods inside of a user control. I could have it in the page but it really doesn't belong there. A full-blown wcf wouldn't really be worth it in this case either. I'm trying to compromise with an UpdatePanel but these things always seem to cause me some kind of trouble. Maybe this is just the way it works? Edit:So I'll clarify a bit what I'm doing. What's happening is I have a page and all it has on it are some tools on the side and a big map. When the page initially loads it takes some time to load the map. Now if while it's loading I open up the tool (a user control) that has the update panel in question in it and click the button on this user control that should refresh the update panel with new data and show the loading sign (in the updateprogress) then the UpdateProgress loading image does not show up. However, the code run by the button click does run after the page is done loading (as expected) and The UpdateProgress will show up if nothing on the page containing the user control is loading. I just want the loader to show up while the page is loading. I thought my problem was that perhaps the map loading is in an update panel and my UpdateProgress was only being associated with the update panel for the user control's update panel. Hence, I would get no loading icon when the map was loading. This is not the case though.

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  • How to detect if Asp.Net form is valid

    - by Hasan Gürsoy
    Hi, I have a form which is in an updatePanel and I have a span with hidden loading image, which I want to show when user clicks to submit button but I first need to check if page is valid on client side. Also I'm making loading span visible with jQuery. Here is my code: <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function showLoading() { $('#loader').show(); } </script> </head> <body> <asp:ScriptManager ID="smMain" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upForm" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:MultiView ID="mvContact" runat="server" ActiveViewIndex="0"> <asp:View ID="vDefault" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="tEMail" runat="server" CssClass="input" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* required" Display="Dynamic" /> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="revEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* invalid" Display="Dynamic" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.']\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*" /> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Assets/Images/btnSubmit.png" ToolTip="Submit Form" style="margin:5px 5px 0 -5px" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="showLoading();" /> <span id="loader"><img src="Assets/Images/loader.gif" title="Sending..." /></span> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vResult" runat="server"> <div class="result"> <span id="lResult" runat="server">Your message is sent</span> </div> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </body></html>

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  • debugging JBoss 100% CPU usage

    - by NateS
    Originally posted on Server Fault, where it was suggested this question might better asked here. We are using JBoss to run two of our WARs. One is our web app, the other is our web service. The web app accesses a database on another machine and makes requests to the web service. The web service makes JMS requests to other machines, aggregates the data, and returns it. At our biggest client, about once a month the JBoss Java process takes 100% of all CPUs. The machine running JBoss has 8 CPUs. Our web app is still accessible during this time, however pages take about 3 minutes to load. Restarting JBoss restores everything to normal. The database machine and all the other machines are fine, only the machine running JBoss is affected. Memory usage is normal. Network utilization is normal. There are no suspect error messages in the JBoss logs. I have set up a test environment as close as possible to the client's production environment and I've done load testing with as much as 2x the number of concurrent users. I have not gotten my test environment to replicate the problem. Where do we go from here? How can we narrow down the problem? Currently the only plan we have is to wait until the problem occurs in production on its own, then do some debugging to determine the cause. So far people have just restarted JBoss when the problem occurred to minimize down time. Next time it happens they will get a developer to take a look. The question is, next time it happens, what can be done to determine the cause? We could setup a separate JBoss instance on the same box and install the web app separately from the web service. This way when the problem next occurs we will know which WAR has the problem (assuming it is our code). This doesn't narrow it down much though. Should I enable JMX remote? This way the next time the problem occurs I can connect with VisualVM and see which threads are taking the CPU and what the hell they are doing. However, is there a significant down side to enabling JMX remote in a production environment? Is there another way to see what threads are eating the CPU and to get a stacktrace to see what they are doing? Any other ideas? Thanks!

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