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• Learn C# now or finish up with Java and then learn C#?

  - by Sahat

  Ok here is my situation. I've studied Java in my college for 2 semesters. But you know they teach you jack in there, just the basics. We skipped half of our textbook and even then our professors don't teach from section to section of each chapter. I don't blame them. It's hard as it is for new students to understand even the basic concepts of programming. Now this is a community college we are talking about and not Stanford, MIT or Berkeley. So like I said I've done 2 semester of Java. I really like our textbook because it has some challenging projects to do at the end of each chapter. This textbook is pretty clear and i have no problem understanding it (although 2-D and 3-D Arrays have given me some trouble). I have tried reading a few C# books such as Pro C# 2008 and .NET 3.5 and C# 4.0 in a Nutshell. I found these books to be dry and overloaded with information that put me to sleep (No offense to the authors of those 2 wonderful, according to amazon ratings, books). Would you suggest I finish my Java textbook, brush up my knowledge of Arrays, Polymorphism, and etc that are universal to most programming languages. And then switch to C#, plus the syntax is very similar so it should be easy to switch. Or should I just start learning C# right now from the very beginning? If it's the latter then could you recommend some free online resources that will keep me engaged and at the same time teach me everything I need to know about C#. Someone has recommended me to learn .NET first, but I found it to be not the brightest idea. .NET is just a big monster full of libraries. How am I going to apply it if I don't even know the C# or VB!? Anyway back to my question: Master Java and switch to C# or just go with C#? DISCLAIMER: I don't want to start .NET vs J2EE or C# vs Java flame war. I am going with C#. I've decided that I want to work in a Microsoft shop in the future. .NET is what I want to learn. Thanks! Will be waiting for the answers.

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• What's wrong with this code? Values not saved to db

  - by Scott B

  Been trying to get this code to work for several days now to no avail. I'm at wits end. I've managed, with the code below, to create a customized category picker widget that appears on the PAGE editor. However, for the life of me, I cannot get the checked categories to save. function my_post_options_box() { if ( function_exists('add_meta_box') ) { //add_meta_box( $id, $title, $callback, $page, $context, $priority ); add_meta_box('categorydiv', __('Page Options'), 'post_categories_meta_box_modified', 'page', 'side', 'core'); } } //adds the custom categories box function post_categories_meta_box_modified($post) { $noindexCat = get_cat_ID('noindex'); $nofollowCat = get_cat_ID('nofollow'); if(in_category("noindex")){ $noindexChecked = " checked='checked'";} else {$noindexChecked = "";} if(in_category("nofollow")){ $nofollowChecked = " checked='checked'";} else {$noindexChecked = "";} ?> <div id="categories-all" class="ui-tabs-panel"> <ul id="categorychecklist" class="list:category categorychecklist form-no-clear"> <li id='category-<?php echo $noindexCat ?>' class="popular-category"><label class="selectit"><input value="<?php echo $noindexCat ?>" type="checkbox" name="post_category[]" id="in-category-<?php echo $noindexCat ?>"<?php echo $noindexChecked ?> /> noindex</label></li> <li id='category-<?php echo $nofollowCat ?>' class="popular-category"><label class="selectit"><input value="<?php echo $noindexCat ?>" type="checkbox" name="post_category[]" id="in-category-<?php echo $nofollowCat ?>"<?php echo $nofollowChecked ?> /> nofollow</label></li> <li id='category-1' class="popular-category"><label class="selectit"><input value="1" type="checkbox" name="post_category[]" id="in-category-1" checked="checked"/> Uncategorized</label></li> </ul> </div> <?php }

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• Rails has-and-belongs-to-many form question

  - by swilliams

  Sorry for the semi-generic title, but I'm still pretty new at rails and couldn't think of a succinct way to put the question. I have a basic habtm model setup: a Project has many Resources and a Resource can have many Projects. I have the database and models setup properly, and can do everything I need to via the console, but I'm having trouble translating it all into the view. On the show view for the Project, I want to be able to create a Resource and automatically assign it to the current Project. Here's my basic html: <p> <b>Name:</b> <%=h @project.name %> </p> <h2>Equipment</h2> <ul> <% @project.resources.each do |r| %> <li><%=h r.name %></li> <% end %> </ul> <h2>Add A Resource</h2> <% form_for(@project) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> Resource Name:<br /> <%= f.text_field :resources %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> Obviously, that form won't work, but I'm at a loss for what to do next. I've searched around for various examples, but haven't found one for what I'm trying to do here. One thing I've thought of was to change the form to be form_for(Resource.new) and include a hidden input of the @project.id. And then when the resource_controller handles the form, check for that id and go from there. That seems like an ugly kludge though.

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• Cannot export a fusionchart with 'Embedding Charts Using <OBJECT>/<EMBED> Tags'

  - by zoom_pat277

  I am trying to export a fusion chart created using 'Embedding Charts Using / Tags'. Export works just perfect with the right click (on the chart) and chose a pdf to export. But I am not able to make this work via javascript. I have a button outside the chart which upon clicking calls the function below function myexport() { var object = getChartFromId('myChartid'); if( object.hasRendered() ) object.exportChart({exportFormat: 'PDF'}); } the object above returned is null and this fails on the next line here is the full prototype <html> <head> <title>My Chart</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="fusionCharts.debug.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="fusionChartsExportComponent.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function ExportMyChart() { var cObject = getChartFromId('Column3D'); if( cObject.hasRendered() ) cObject.exportChart({exportFormat: 'PDF'}); } </script> </head> <body> <object width="400" height="400" id="Column3D" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" > <param name="testname" value="Column3D.swf" /> <param name="FlashVars" value="&dataURL=testData.xml&chartWidth=400&chartHeight=300&DOMId=myChart1&registerWithJS=1&debugMode=0"> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <embed src="Column3D.swf" flashVars="&dataURL=testData.xml&chartWidth=400&chartHeight=300&DOMId=myChart1&registerWithJS=1&debugMode=0" width="400" height="300" name="Column3D" quality="high" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> <!-- We also create a DIV to contain the FusionCharts client-side exporter component --> <div id="holderDiv" align="center">FusionCharts Export Handler Component</div> <script type="text/javascript"> var myExportComponent = new FusionChartsExportObject("testExporter1", "FCExporter.swf"); //Render the exporter SWF in our DIV fcexpDiv myExportComponent.Render("holderDiv"); </script> <input type="button" value="Export My Chart" onclick="ExportMyChart()" />

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• Monitoring UDP socket in glib(mm) eats up CPU time

  - by Gyorgy Szekely

  Hi, I have a GTKmm Windows application (built with MinGW) that receives UDP packets (no sending). The socket is native winsock and I use glibmm IOChannel to connect it to the application main loop. The socket is read with recvfrom. My problem is: this setup eats 25% percent CPU time on a 3GHz workstation. Can somebody tell me why? The application is idle in this case, and if I remove the UDP code, CPU usage drops down to almost zero. As the application has to perform some CPU intensive tasks, I could image better ways to spend that 25% Here are some code excerpts: (sorry for the printf's ;) ) /* bind */ void UDPInterface::bindToPort(unsigned short port) { struct sockaddr_in target; WSADATA wsaData; target.sin_family = AF_INET; target.sin_port = htons(port); target.sin_addr.s_addr = 0; if ( WSAStartup ( 0x0202, &wsaData ) ) { printf("WSAStartup failed!\n"); exit(0); // :) WSACleanup(); } sock = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, 0 ); if (sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { printf("invalid socket!\n"); exit(0); } if (bind(sock,(struct sockaddr*) &target, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in) ) == SOCKET_ERROR) { printf("failed to bind to port!\n"); exit(0); } printf("[UDPInterface::bindToPort] listening on port %i\n", port); } /* read */ bool UDPInterface::UDPEvent(Glib::IOCondition io_condition) { recvfrom(sock, (char*)buf, BUF_SIZE*4, 0, NULL, NULL); /* process packet... */ } /* glibmm connect */ Glib::RefPtr channel = Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket(udp.sock); Glib::signal_io().connect( sigc::mem_fun(udp, &UDPInterface::UDPEvent), channel, Glib::IO_IN ); I've read here in some other question, and also in glib docs (g_io_channel_win32_new_socket()) that the socket is put into nonblocking mode, and it's "a side-effect of the implementation and unavoidable". Does this explain the CPU effect, it's not clear to me? Whether or not I use glib to access the socket or call recvfrom() directly doesn't seem to make much difference, since CPU is used up before any packet arrives and the read handler gets invoked. Also glibmm docs state that it's ok to call recvfrom() even if the socket is polled (Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket()) I've tried compiling the program with -pg and created a per function cpu usage report with gprof. This wasn't usefull because the time is not spent in my program, but in some external glib/glibmm dll.

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• How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

  - by olivehour

  I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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• Deserialization error in a new environment

  - by cerhart

  I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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• sequence generators are getting ignored

  - by luvfort

  I'm getting the following error while saving a object. However similar configuration is working for other model objects in my projects. Any help would be greatly appreciated. @Entity @Table(name = "ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class EnrollmentGroupMembership implements Serializable, Comparable,Auditable { @javax.persistence.SequenceGenerator(name = "enrollmentGroupMemID", sequenceName = "S_ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "enrollmentGroupMemID") @Column(name = "ID") private Long id; @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID", updatable = false, insertable = false) private TierWeight tierWeight; public EnrollmentGroupMembership() { } } Code: @Entity @Table(name = "TIER_WEIGHT", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class TierWeight implements Serializable, Auditable { @SequenceGenerator(name = "tierSequence",sequenceName = "S_TIER_WEIGHT") @Column(name = "OID") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "tierSequence") private Long id; @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID") private Set<EnrollmentGroupMembership> memberships; public TierWeight() { } } The logic layer's code is @Override public void createTier(String tierName, float weight) { TierWeight tier = new TierWeight(); tier.setWeight(weight); tier.setTier(tierName); tierWeightDAO.create(tier); } Similar Many-one configuration is working through out the project. I don't know why this one instance is failing. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The following is the error that I'm getting Caused by: org.hibernate.id.IdentifierGenerationException: ids for this class must be manually assigned before calling save(): edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight at org.hibernate.id.Assigned.generate(Assigned.java:3 3) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener. saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java :99) The log file is telling that the sequence generator tierSequence is not getting created. However other sequence generators are getting created. 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column DATE_CREATED unique false ....................................... ....................................... 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.CounselorAvailability.id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID While debugging, I see that the org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl is returning the "Assigned" identifierGenerator. This is horrible. I've specified the identifierGenerator as "Auto". Please see the above code. As a sidenote, I was trying to debug and seeing how the objects are getting retrieved from the database. Looks like the enrollmentgroupmembership records have the tierweight value populated. However if I look at the tierweight object, it doesn't have the enrollmentgroupmembership records. I'm puzzled. I think these two problems must be related. Maddy.

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• Navigation bar(s) disappear when the window gets too small

  - by Leron

  The title maybe is a little misleading but I'm not 100% sure how this effect is called. I'm pretty sure what I meant is that my navigation bar is disappearing instead of collapsing. However my set up is this - I am working on the Layout view of ASP.NET MVC 4 project. I'm using bootstrap 3x but also have included jQuery libs so my <head> part is like this: @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/bootstrap.min.js") @Styles.Render("~/Content/bootstrap.css") @Styles.Render("~/Content/themes/base/jquery.ui.smoothness.css") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-2.0.3.min.js") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.10.3.min.js") //just skipped the standard stuff In the body I want to have two navbars and one side menu which will be the same for all my pages but I've noticed that when I start to narrow the window at some point instead of getting an effect similar to this example (noticed how the elements get repositioned) I just got both my navbars gone, I can't see them. The markup for my first navbar is this : <div class="navbar navbar-static-top navbar-inverse navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation"> <ul class="nav navbar-nav "> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> </ul> </div> and the second one is : <div class="navbar navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation" id="main-navigation-bar"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-justified"> <li style="border: 1px solid grey"><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> </ul> In fact the only thing left in my _Layout body is this: <div class="container-fluid"> @RenderBody() </div> which is just for compiling purposes and renders this view : <p>1</p> <p>2</p> <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>5</p> So when I make the window small enough so that my navbars disappear the only thing left is 1..5 numbers from the rendered view. I tested with only one navbar (commented the other) - no matter which one is commented, when I narrow the window I loose the navbar. How can I keep them using bootstrap 3x?

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• Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

  - by Scott Mitchell

  I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

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• SQL Server 2008: If Multiple Values Set In Other Mutliple Values Set

  - by AJH

  In SQL, is there anyway to accomplish something like this? This is based off a report built in SQL Server Report Builder, where the user can specify multiple text values as a single report parameter. The query for the report grabs all of the values the user selected and stores them in a single variable. I need a way for the query to return only records that have associations to EVERY value the user specified. -- Assume there's a table of Elements with thousands of entries. -- Now we declare a list of properties for those Elements to be associated with. create table #masterTable ( ElementId int, Text varchar(10) ) insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Coarse'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Dense'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Smooth'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Hollow'); -- Element 1 is Red, Coarse, and Dense. Element 2 is Red, Smooth, and Hollow. -- The real table is actually much much larger than this; this is just an example. -- This is me trying to replicate how SQL Server Report Builder treats -- report parameters in its queries. The user selects one, some, all, -- or no properties from a list. The written query treats the user's -- selections as a single variable called @Properties. -- Example scenario 1: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Dense. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Dense in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --ideally a set containing only Red, Coarse, and Dense --Both Red and Dense are within Element 1's properties (Red, Coarse, Dense), so Element 1 gets returned, but not Element 2. -- Example scenario 2: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Hollow. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Hollow in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Both Red and Hollow are within Element 2's properties (Red, Smooth, Hollow), so Element 2 gets returned, but not Element 1. --Example Scenario 3: User only picked the Red option. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Red is within both Element 1 and Element 2's properties, so both Element 1 and Element 2 get returned. The above syntax doesn't actually work because SQL doesn't seem to allow multiple values on the left side of the "in" comparison. Error that returns: Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression. Am I even on the right track here? Sorry if the example looks long-winded or confusing.

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• Looking for an Open Source Project in need of help

  - by hvidgaard

  Hi StackOverflow! I'm a CS student on well on my way to graduate. I have had a difficult time of finding relevant student jobs (they seems to be taken merely hours after the notice gets on the board) , so instead I'm looking for an open source project in need of help. I'm aware that I should choose one that I use, but I'm not aware of any OS-project that I use that needs help. That's why I'm asking you. I don't have any deep experience, but I here are some of my biggest projects so far: BitTorrent-ish client in Python (a subset of BitTorrent) HTTP 1.1 webserver in Java Compiler from a subset of Java to run on JRE Flash-framework project to model an iPad look and feel (not to run actual iPad programs) complete with an API for programs. Complete MySQL database for a booking system, with departure and arrival times, so you could only book valid tickets (with a Java frontend). I know, Java and languages like AS3 and C# feels natural per se, Python, and have done a fair bit of hacking around in C, but I don't feel very comfortable with it. Mostly I'm afraid to make a fuckup because I have such a high degree of control. I would like to think I'm well aware of good software design practices, but in reality what I do is ask myself "would I like to use/maintain this?", and I love to refactor my code because I see optimizations. I love algorithms and to make them run in the best possible time. I don't have any preferred domain to work in, but I wouldn't mind it to be graphics or math heavy. Ideally I'm looking for a project in C++ to learn the in's and out's of it, but I'm well aware that I don't know that language very well. I would like to have a mentor-like figure until I'm confident enough to stand on my own, not one to review all my code (I'm sure someone will to start with anyway), but to ask questions about the project and language in question. I do have a wife and two children, so don't expect me to put in 10+ hours every week. In return I can work on my own, I strive to program modular and maintainable code. Know how to read an API, use Google, StackOverflow and online resources in general. If you have any questions, shoot. I'm looking forward to your suggestions.

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• JQuery Datepicker Date highlight Issue

  - by Isola Olufemi

  I have an in-line date picker in which I want to highlight some dates based on array of strings from the server side. I found out the on load of the page with the datepicker, events the matches in the current month will not be highlighted. when I click the next month button the events on the next moth will be highlighted. What I discovered that i the matching only get highlighted when I click to the next month and not when I click back to the previous month. Below is my script: var actionCalDates = new Array(); function getDates(month, year) { $.ajax({ url: "/Index/GetAllAlerts", data: { month: month, year: year }, success: function (result) { var date = new Date(); var i = new Number(date.getMonth()); i += 1; actionCalDates = result.split(","); } }); } function getTitle(ar, d) { var result = ""; for (var i = 0; i < ar.length; i++) { if (ar[i].indexOf(d) != -1) { var e = actionCalDates[i].split(";"); result += e[0] + "\n"; } } return result; } $('#calendar').datepicker({ numberOfMonths: [1, 1], showCurrentAtPos: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/y', beforeShowDay: function (thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate(); var x = new Number(thedate.getMonth()); x += 1; var date = thedate.getDate() + "/" + x + "/" + thedate.getFullYear(); getDates(x, thedate.getFullYear()); for (var i = 0; i < actionCalDates.length; i++) { var entry = actionCalDates[i].split(";"); if (date == entry[1]) { return [true, "highlight", getTitle(actionCalDates, date)]; } } return [true, "", ""]; }, onChangeMonthYear: function (year, month, inst) { getDates(month, year); }, onSelect: function (d, instance) { $.ajax({ url: '/Index/AlertConvertDate', datatype: 'text', data: { dateString: d }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.statusText); alert(thrownError); }, success: function (data) { window.SetHomeContent(data); } }); } }); Please can someone point out where I went wrong? Thank you all.

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• How to stream semi-live audio over internet

  - by Thomas Tempelmann

  I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

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• How to access a field's value in an object using reflection

  - by kentcdodds

  My Question: How to overcome an IllegalAccessException to access the value of a an object's field using reflection. Expansion: I'm trying to learn about reflection to make some of my projects more generic. I'm running into an IllegalAccessException when trying to call field.getValue(object) to get the value of that field in that object. I can get the name and type just fine. If I change the declaration from private to public then this works fine. But in an effort to follow the "rules" of encapsulation I don't want to do this. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks! My Code: package main; import java.lang.reflect.Field; public class Tester { public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception { new Tester().reflectionTest(); } public void reflectionTest() throws Exception { Person person = new Person("John Doe", "555-123-4567", "Rover"); Field[] fields = person.getClass().getDeclaredFields(); for (Field field : fields) { System.out.println("Field Name: " + field.getName()); System.out.println("Field Type: " + field.getType()); System.out.println("Field Value: " + field.get(person)); //The line above throws: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class main.Tester can not access a member of class main.Tester$Person with modifiers "private final" } } public class Person { private final String name; private final String phoneNumber; private final String dogsName; public Person(String name, String phoneNumber, String dogsName) { this.name = name; this.phoneNumber = phoneNumber; this.dogsName = dogsName; } } } The Output: run: Field Name: name Field Type: class java.lang.String Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class main.Tester can not access a member of class main.Tester$Person with modifiers "private final" at sun.reflect.Reflection.ensureMemberAccess(Reflection.java:95) at java.lang.reflect.AccessibleObject.slowCheckMemberAccess(AccessibleObject.java:261) at java.lang.reflect.AccessibleObject.checkAccess(AccessibleObject.java:253) at java.lang.reflect.Field.doSecurityCheck(Field.java:983) at java.lang.reflect.Field.getFieldAccessor(Field.java:927) at java.lang.reflect.Field.get(Field.java:372) at main.Tester.reflectionTest(Tester.java:17) at main.Tester.main(Tester.java:8) Java Result: 1 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 0 seconds)

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• Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

  - by Matt

  I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

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• how to fix protocol violation in c#

  - by Jeremy Styers

  I have a c# "client" and a Java "server". The java server has a wsdl it serves to the client. So far it works for c# to make a request for the server to perform a soap action. My server gets the soap request executes the method and tries to return the result back to the client. When I send the response to c# however, I get "The server committed a protocol violation. Section=ResponseStatusLine". I have spent all day trying to fix this and have come up with nothing that works. If I explain what i did, this post would be very long, so I'll keep it brief. i Googled for hours and everything tells me my "response line" is correct. I tried shutting down Skype, rearranging the response line, adding things, taking things away, etc, etc. All to no avail. This is for a class assignment so no, I can not use apis to help. I must do everything manually on the server side. That means parsing by hand, creating the soap response and the http response by hand. Just thought you'd like to know that before you say to use something that does it for me. I even tried making sure my server was sending the correct header by creating a java client that "mimicked" the c# one so I could see what the server returned. However, it's returning exactly what i told it to send. I tried telling my java client to do the same thing but to an actuall running c# service, to see what a real service returns, and it returned basically the same thing. To be safe, I copied it's response and tried sending it to the c# client and it still threw the error. Can anyone help? I've tried all i can think of, including adding the useUnsafeHeaderParsing to my app config. Nothing is working though. I send it exactly what a real service sends it and it yells at me. I send it what i want and it yells. I'm sending this: "200 OK HTTP/1.0\r\n" + "Content-Length: 201\r\n" + "Cache-Control: private\r\n" + "Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8\r\n\r\n";

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• Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

  - by Greggo

  I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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• Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

  - by Ted

  There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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• Java - is this an idiom or pattern, behavior classes with no state

  - by Berlin Brown

  I am trying to incorporate more functional programming idioms into my java development. One pattern that I like the most and avoids side effects is building classes that have behavior but they don't necessarily have any state. The behavior is locked into the methods but they only act on the parameters passed in. The code below is code I am trying to avoid: public class BadObject { private Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); public BadObject() { data.put("data", "data"); } /** * Act on the data class. But this is bad because we can't * rely on the integrity of the object's state. */ public void execute() { data.get("data").toString(); } } The code below is nothing special but I am acting on the parameters and state is contained within that class. We still may run into issues with this class but that is an issue with the method and the state of the data, we can address issues in the routine as opposed to not trusting the entire object. Is this some form of idiom? Is this similar to any pattern that you use? public class SemiStatefulOOP { /** * Private class implies that I can access the members of the <code>Data</code> class * within the <code>SemiStatefulOOP</code> class and I can also access * the getData method from some other class. * * @see Test1 * */ class Data { protected int counter = 0; public int getData() { return counter; } public String toString() { return Integer.toString(counter); } } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void execute(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void updateStateWithCallToService(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Similar to CLOS (Common Lisp Object System) make instance. */ public Data makeInstance() { return new Data(); } } // End of Class // Issues with the code above: I wanted to declare the Data class private, but then I can't really reference it outside of the class: I can't override the SemiStateful class and access the private members. Usage: final SemiStatefulOOP someObject = new SemiStatefulOOP(); final SemiStatefulOOP.Data data = someObject.makeInstance(); someObject.execute(data); someObject.updateStateWithCallToService(data);

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• HTTP Post requests using HttpClient take 2 seconds, why?

  - by pableu

  Update: You might better hold off this for a bit, I just noticed I could be my fault after all. Working on this all afternoon, and then I find a flaw ten minutes after posting here, ts. Hi, I'am currently coding an android app that submits stuff in the background using HTTP Post and AsyncTask. I use the org.apache.http.client Package for this. I based my code on this example. Basically, my code looks like this: public void postData() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://192.168.1.137:8880/form"); try { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("id", "12345")); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("stringdata", "AndDev is Cool!")); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); // Execute HTTP Post Request HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } } The problem is that the httpclient.execute(..) line takes around 1.5 to 3 seconds, and I do not understand why. Just requesting a page with HTTP Get takes around 80 ms or so, so the problem doesn't seem to be the network latency itself. The problem doesn't seem to be on the server side either, I have also tried POSTing data to http://www.disney.com/ with similarly slow results. And Firebug shows 1 ms response time when POSTing data to my server locally. This happens on the Emulator and with my Nexus One (both with Android 2.2). If you want to look at the complete code, I've put it on GitHub. It's just a dummy program to do HTTP Post in the background using AsyncTask on the push of a button. It's my first Android app, and my first java code for a long time. And incidentially, also my first question on Stackoverflow ;-) Any ideas why httpclient.execute(httppost) takes so long?

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• How should I handle the case in which a username is already in use?

  - by idealmachine

  I'm a JavaScript programmer and new to PHP and MySQL (want to get into server-side coding). Because I'm trying to learn PHP by building a simple online game (more specifically, correspondence chess), I'm starting by implementing a simple user accounts system. Of course, user registration comes first. What are the best practices for: How I should handle the (likely) possibility that when a user tries to register, the username he has chosen is already in use, particularly when it comes to function return values?($result === true is rather ugly, and I'm not sure whether checking the MySQL error code is the best way to do it either) How to cleanly handle varying page titles?($gPageTitle = '...'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; is also rather ugly) Anything else I'm doing wrong? In some ways, PHP is rather different from JavaScript... Here is a (rather large) excerpt of the code I have written so far. Note that this is a work in progress and is missing security checks that I will add as my next step. function addUser( $username, $password ) { global $gDB, $gPasswordSalt; $stmt = $gDB->prepare( 'INSERT INTO user(user_name, user_password, user_registration) VALUES(?, ?, NOW())' ); $stmt || trigger_error( 'Failed to prepare statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $gDB->error ) ); $hashedPassword = hash_hmac( 'sha256', $password, $gPasswordSalt, true ); $stmt->bind_param( 'ss', $username, $hashedPassword ); if( $stmt->execute() ) { return true; } elseif( $stmt->errno == 1062) { return 'exists'; } else { trigger_error( 'Failed to execute statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $stmt->error ) ); } } $username = $_REQUEST['username']; $password = $_REQUEST['password']; $result = addUser( $username, $password ); if( $result === true ) { $gPageTitle = 'Registration successful'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>You have successfully registered as ' . htmlspecialchars( $username ) . ' on this site.</p>'; } elseif( $result == 'exists' ) { $gPageTitle = 'Username already taken'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>Someone is already using the username you have chosen. Please try using another one instead.'; } else { trigger_error('This should never happen'); } require_once 'bgsfooter.php';

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• .Net Remote Log Querying

  - by jlafay

  I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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• How do I create/use a Fluent NHibernate convention to automap UInt32 properties to an SQL Server 200

  - by dommer

  I'm trying to use a convention to map UInt32 properties to a SQL Server 2008 database. I don't seem to be able to create a solution based on existing web sources, due to updates in the way Fluent NHibernate works - i.e. examples are out of date. I'm trying to have NHibernate generate the schema (via ExposeConfiguration). I'm happy to have NHibernate map it to anything sensible (e.g. bigint). Here's my code as it currently stands (which, when I try to expose the schema, fails due to SQL Server not supporting UInt32). Apologies for the code being a little long, but I'm not 100% sure what is relevant to the problem, so I'm erring on the side of caution. Most of it is based on this post. The error reported is: System.ArgumentException : Dialect does not support DbType.UInt32 I think I'll need a relatively comprehensive example, as I don't seem to be able to pull the pieces together into a working solution, at present. FluentConfiguration configuration = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(connectionString)) .Mappings(mapping => mapping.AutoMappings.Add( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Product>() .Conventions.Add<UInt32UserTypeConvention>())); configuration.ExposeConfiguration(x => new SchemaExport(x).Create(false, true)); namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserTypeConvention : UserTypeConvention<UInt32UserType> { // Empty. } } namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserType : IUserType { // Public properties. public bool IsMutable { get { return false; } } public Type ReturnedType { get { return typeof(UInt32); } } public SqlType[] SqlTypes { get { return new SqlType[] { SqlTypeFactory.Int32 }; } } // Public methods. public object Assemble(object cached, object owner) { return cached; } public object DeepCopy(object value) { return value; } public object Disassemble(object value) { return value; } public new bool Equals(object x, object y) { return (x != null && x.Equals(y)); } public int GetHashCode(object x) { return x.GetHashCode(); } public object NullSafeGet(IDataReader rs, string[] names, object owner) { int? i = (int?)NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeGet(rs, names[0]); return (UInt32?)i; } public void NullSafeSet(IDbCommand cmd, object value, int index) { UInt32? u = (UInt32?)value; int? i = (Int32?)u; NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeSet(cmd, i, index); } public object Replace(object original, object target, object owner) { return original; } } }

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• how to animate 2 surfaces in Matlab?

  - by Kate

  Hi everyone, I've written this code which makes an animation of 2 ellipsoids. Parameter k1 of these ellipsoids must depend on time (so they'd move asynchronously), but I need to animate them in one figure. Can I use loop for it or is it better to use timer & some kind of callback functions? The second problem - I need to move inner ellipsoid so they would have one common side. How can I do this? a=5; b=a; c=10; u = (0:0.05*pi:2*pi)'; v = [0:0.05*pi:2*pi]; X = a*sin(u)*cos(v); Y = a*sin(u)*sin(v); Z = c*cos(u)*ones(size(v)); Z(Z0)=0; % cut upper V1=4/3*pi*a*b*c; d=1/2; e=2^d; a2=a/e; b2=a/e; c2=c; V2=4/3*pi*a2*b2*c2; X2 = a2*sin(u)*cos(v);%-2.5; Y2 = b2*sin(u)*sin(v); Z2 = c2*cos(u)*ones(size(v));%+0.25; Z2(Z20)=0; % cut h=1/3; for j = 1:20 k1=(sin(pi*j/20)+0.5)^h; a=a*k1; c=c*k1; X = a*sin(u)*cos(v); Y = a*sin(u)*sin(v); Z = c*cos(u)*ones(size(v)); Z(Z0)=0; a2=a2*k1; b2=a2*k1; c2=c2*k1; X2 = a2*sin(u)*cos(v)+5;%-2.5; Y2 = b2*sin(u)*sin(v); Z2 = c2*cos(u)*ones(size(v));%+0.25; Z2(Z20)=0; hS1=surf(X,Y,Z); alpha(.11) hold on hS2=surf(X2,Y2,Z2); hold off axis([-20 20 -20 20 -20 20]); F(j) = getframe; end movie(F,4)

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