computer behavior - Page 714

JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu

- by jolonaleur

JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu Windows XP SP2 Java JRE 1.6.0_11-b03 Behavior varies. Sometimes, the Maximize and Minimize item on the window menu is disabled and sometimes enabled. Steps to reproduce enabled Maximize and Minimize button: Show the JDialog with setResizable(false) Open another window, say for example Notepad. Right-click on the window title bar of Notepad and click Maximize. Go to your JDialog and right click on the window title bar. Maximize window is enabled. Likewise, to disable the Maximize item for the JDialog, go to the maximized Notepad window and right click on title bar. Maximize item is disabled in the Notepad window. Go the your JDialog and right click on the title bar, notice that the Maximize item is also disabled. Note that my application can not use the defaultLookAndFeel method of java dialogs. The bug report related to this was for Solaris OS but that was already ages ago. bug report Is there any workaround? Thanks.

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window.open() in an iPad on load of a frame does not work

- by user278859

I am trying to modify a site that uses "Morten's JavaScript Tree Menu" to display PDFs in a frames set using the Adobe Reader plug-in. On the iPad the frame is useless, so I want to open the PDF in a new tab. Not wanting to mess with the tree menu I thought I could use JavaScript in the web page being opened in the viewer frame to open a new tab with the PDF. I am using window.open() in $(document).ready(function() to open the pdf in the new tab. The problem is that window.open() does not want to work in the iPad. The body of the HTML normally looks like this... <body> <object data="MypdfFileName.pdf#toolbar=1&navpanes=1&scrollbar=0&page=1&view=FitH" type="application/pdf" width="100%" height="100%"> </object> </body> I changed it to only have a div like this... <body> <div class="myviewer" ></div> </body> Then used the following script... $(document).ready(function() { var isMobile = { Android : function() { return navigator.userAgent.match(/Android/i) ? true : false; }, BlackBerry : function() { return navigator.userAgent.match(/BlackBerry/i) ? true : false; }, iOS : function() { return navigator.userAgent.match(/iPhone|iPad|iPod/i) ? true : false; }, Windows : function() { return navigator.userAgent.match(/IEMobile/i) ? true : false; }, any : function() { return (isMobile.Android() || isMobile.BlackBerry() || isMobile.iOS() || isMobile.Windows()); } }; if(isMobile.any()) { var file = "MypdfFileName.pdf"; window.open(file); }else { var markup = "<object data='MypdfFileName.pdf#toolbar=1&navpanes=1&scrollbar=0&page=1&view=FitH' type='application/pdf' width='100%' height='100%'></object>"; $('.myviewer').append(markup); }; }); Everthing works except for window.open() on the iPad. If I switch things around widow.open() works fine on a computer. In another project I am using window.open() successfully on the iPad from an onclick function. I tried using a timer function. I also tried adding an onclick function to the div and posting a click event. In both cases they worked on a computer but not an iPad. I am stumped. I know it would make more sense to handle the ipad in the tree menu frame, but that code is so complex I can't figure out where to put/modify the onclick event. Is there a way to change the object so that it opens in a new tab? Is anyone familiar enough with Mortens Tree Menu code that can tell me how to channge the on click event so that it opens the pdf in a new tab instead of opening a page in the frame? Thanks

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How to update child iFrame's entire html (header+body) inside jQuery's post

- by knappy

I have a chat webpage for Firefox that is structured like this ..... Outer HTML -----|......Frameset Frame ------------|...... header: contains jQuery post has returned data: rdata = new_iFrame_html_str, the entire html string of the iFrame that should be updated ------------|...... iFrame --------------------|...... header: contains jQuery --------------------|...... body: chat messages that depends on the header jQuery to behave properly QUESTION: I can't this jQuery post to work, i.e. I can't find a way for this post to update the ENTIRE iFrame (header + body). Things I've tried and FAILED with javascript and jQuery: top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id').contentDocument.body.innerHTML = new_iFrame_html_str; I don't like this because it's only changing the body, not the header, so the behavior generated from jQuery can't be shown top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_bucinid').contentWindow.location.reload(); I do not want to reload because a reload makes the iFrame flicker, bad for a chat program top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id').contents().html = new_iFrame_html_str; Not updating anything that shows :( top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id').contentWindow.location.href = new_iFrame_html_str; This is actually the wrong form here, because it should be = url_of_new_content $( top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id') ).html( new_iFrame_html_str ) ; Not updating anything that shows :(

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Host ::1 resolves to remote IP

- by thebuckst0p

/etc/hosts files usually have this line, ::1 localhost. I thought ::1 was the equivalent of 127.0.0.1/localhost, and from my reading it seems to be the IPv6 version. So I was using it in Apache for firewalling, "Allow from ::1" and it only allowed local. Then suddenly that stopped working, so I pinged ::1 and got a remote IP address. I tracerouted it and it went through my ISP, through some Microsoft server, then another half dozen steps of asterisks... I'm not sure why this would be (the remote IP), but it doesn't seem good. I grep'd my hard drive for the remote IP and it doesn't appear anywhere. Is this some indicator that I'm being hacked, or normal behavior? Maybe my IPv6 settings are wrong? (This is a brand new MacBookPro with Snow Leopard.) Any ideas about this would be great - what is ::1 supposed to be, why would it be remote, should I be worried, how do I get it back to localhost? Thank you!

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Invoking a method overloaded where all arguments implement the same interface

- by double07

Hello, My starting point is the following: - I have a method, transform, which I overloaded to behave differently depending on the type of arguments that are passed in (see transform(A a1, A a2) and transform(A a1, B b) in my example below) - All these arguments implement the same interface, X I would like to apply that transform method on various objects all implementing the X interface. What I came up with was to implement transform(X x1, X x2), which checks for the instance of each object before applying the relevant variant of my transform. Though it works, the code seems ugly and I am also concerned of the performance overhead for evaluating these various instanceof and casting. Is that transform the best I can do in Java or is there a more elegant and/or efficient way of achieving the same behavior? Below is a trivial, working example printing out BA. I am looking for examples on how to improve that code. In my real code, I have naturally more implementations of 'transform' and none are trivial like below. public class A implements X { } public class B implements X { } interface X { } public A transform(A a1, A a2) { System.out.print("A"); return a2; } public A transform(A a1, B b) { System.out.print("B"); return a1; } // Isn't there something better than the code below??? public X transform(X x1, X x2) { if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof A)) { return transform((A) x1, (A) x2); } else if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof B)) { return transform((A) x1, (B) x2); } else { throw new RuntimeException("Transform not implemented for " + x1.getClass() + "," + x2.getClass()); } } @Test public void trivial() { X x1 = new A(); X x2 = new B(); X result = transform(x1, x2); transform(x1, result); }

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Cannot overload function

- by anio

So I've got a templatized class and I want to overload the behavior of a function when I have specific type, say char. For all other types, let them do their own thing. However, c++ won't let me overload the function. Why can't I overload this function? I really really do not want to do template specialization, because then I've got duplicate the entire class. Here is a toy example demonstrating the problem: http://codepad.org/eTgLG932 The same code posted here for your reading pleasure: #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <string> struct Bar { std::string blah() { return "blah"; } }; template <typename T> struct Foo { public: std::string doX() { return m_getY(my_t); } private: std::string m_getY(char* p_msg) { return std::string(p_msg); } std::string m_getY(T* p_msg) { return p_msg->blah(); } T my_t; }; int main(int, char**) { Foo<char> x; Foo<Bar> y; std::cout << "x " << x.doX() << std::endl; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Thank you everyone for your suggestions. Two valid solutions have been presented. I can either specialize the doX method, or specialize m_getY() method. At the end of the day I prefer to keep my specializations private rather than public so I'm accepting Krill's answer.

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Spring bean initialization in a web app

- by EugeneP

We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

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JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

- by teerapap

The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

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How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

- by tucaz

Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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In Google Chrome, how do I bring an existing popup window to the front using javascript from the par

- by brahn

I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code works in Firefox (Mac & Windows), Safari (Mac & Windows), and IE8. (I have not yet tested IE6 or IE7.) However, in Google Chrome (both Mac & Windows) later clicks fail to bring the existing pop-up to the front as desired. How can I make this work in Chrome? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body> Background: I am re-asking this question specifically for Google Chrome, as I think I my code solves the problem at least for other modern browsers and IE8. If there is a preferred etiquette for doing so, please let me know.

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Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

- by stormin986

I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

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How to check whether user is login in web application?

- by Morgan Cheng

I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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JSP:Include not rendering the page correctly

- by sreekanth

am having trouble with including a jsp page with tag. This is what is happening. I making changes to a portlet application running on Websphere 7 server. This is the hierarchy of the jsp pages. blankPage.jsp --bookingViewTabs.jsp -- availableRooms.jsp meaning blankPage is included in bookingViewTabs which is inturn included in availableRooms.jsp I have 2 problems with this. (1). The blankPage.jsp does not render correctly on the screen. It gets cutoff (2). The other is in blankPage.jsp there is a form called "guestProfileSearchResultsFormId". this form has several hidden fields for data. example, "guestId" which is a child of that form and can be accessed formname.fieldname, but when i include that page into another jsp as the first include(there are several includes on the page) under the another form tag, the form field is not being rendered as a child of the form, but as a sibling of the form. If i change the order and include some other page and include this, it is working as it is supposed to have. meaning with children intact. I don't understand this behavior. I HAVE ATTACHED A GIF IMAGE OF WHAT I SEE ON THE BROWSER Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance

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Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

- by Curtis White

Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

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In a combobox, how do I determine the highlighted item (not selected item)?

- by Harold Bamford

First, fair warning: I am a complete newbie with C# and WPF. I have a combobox (editable, searchable) and I would like to be able to intercept the Delete key and remove the currently highlighted item from the list. The behavior I'm looking for is like that of MS Outlook when entering in email addresses. When you give a few characters, a dropdown list of potential matches is displayed. If you move to one of these (with the arrow keys) and hit Delete, that entry is permanently removed. I want to do that with an entry in the combobox. Here is the XAML (simplified): <ComboBox x:Name="Directory" KeyUp="Directory_KeyUp" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" IsEditable="True" Text="{Binding Path=CurrentDirectory, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static self:Properties.Settings.Default}, Path=DirectoryList, Mode=TwoWay}" / The handler is: private void Directory_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { ComboBox box = sender as ComboBox; if (box.IsDropDownOpen && (e.Key == Key.Delete)) { TrimCombobox("DirectoryList", box.HighlightedItem); // won't compile! } } When using the debugger, I can see box.HighlightedItem has the value I want but when I try and put in that code, it fails to compile with: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'HighlightedItem'... So: how do I access that value? Keep in mind that the item has not been selected. It is merely highlighted as the mouse hovers over it. Thanks for your help.

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Zend Partial + Zend Action Helper causes an additional request to bootstrap?

- by AndreLiem

I've been profiling some zend framework code with webgrind to see where some bottle necks are and I'm noticing some very odd behavior. Using the zend partial for example, if I pass a variable value that comes from a zend action helper, it results in two requests being made. in sample.phtml echo $this->partial('partial/embed.phtml', array('url' => $this->url)); in indexcontroller.php $this->view->url = $this->_helper->Embed()->url; But if I don't pass the value from the helper to the partial, but still run the helper, it only makes one request in webgrind. e.g. $this->view->url = 'test'; $this->_helper->Embed()->url; Does anybody know why this could be happening? Am I potentially interpreting web grind incorrectly, or is it really calling the bootstrap twice when the an action helper value is tied to a partial? I'm starting to realize how inefficient some components of Zend are. Thanks

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FileReference.browse() stops playback on some Flash Players

- by Christophe Herreman

We have an issue were the server session associated with a Flex client times out when the browse file dialog is open for a time longer then the configured session timeout. It seems that on some players, the playback is stopped when browse or download on a FileReference is executing. This also causes remote calls to be blocked and hence our manual keep-alive messages are not sent to the server, resulting in a session timeout. I searched for some info on this in the docs and found a notice of it, but it does not explicitly list the players it does (not) work. Would anyone know were I could find a complete list? PS: here are the links that mention this behavior: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=17_Networking_and_communications_7.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() method are executing, most players will continue SWF file playback. http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/langref/flash/net/FileReference.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() methods are executing, SWF file playback pauses in stand-alone and external versions of Flash Player and in AIR for Linux and Mac OS X 10.1 and earlier Anyone knows what is meant with an "external Flash Player"? PPS: we tested this on Linux (10.0.x and 10.1.x) in Firefox where it seems to stop playback and on Windows (10.0.x) in IE where playback seems to continue.

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How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

- by Khnle

I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

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For loop index out of range ArgumentOutOfRangeException when multithreading

- by Lirik

I'm getting some strange behavior... when I iterate over the dummyText List in the ThreadTest method I get an index out of range exception (ArgumentOutOfRangeException), but if I remove the threads and I just print out the text, then everything works fine. This is my main method: public static Object sync = new Object(); static void Main(string[] args) { ThreadTest(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue."); Console.ReadKey(); } This method throws the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Thread t = new Thread(() => PrintThreadName(dummyText[i])); // <-- Index out of range?!? t.Name = ("Thread " + (i)); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); } } private static void PrintThreadName(String text) { Random rand = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); while (true) { lock (sync) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.Name + " running " + text); Thread.Sleep(1000+rand.Next(0,2000)); } } } This does not throw the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine(dummyText[i]); // <-- No exception here } } Does anybody know why this is happening?

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The same C# code produces different output in Visio Professional and Premium

- by user615993

I have built a simple conversion Add In, but its behavior is unfortunately different with the different Visio Editions (Visio 2010 Professional and Visio 2010 Premium). The Add In takes a Process-Diagram created with Shapes from Stencil_1.vss and creates a new slightly different Process-Diagram with Shapes from Stencil_2.vsd. It loops through a Visio page and for each shape founded creates a new shapes from new master shape (from Stencil_2.vsd) and drop it into the new page. Geometry, captions etc. are the same, only the shape-appearance is changed. Below is the source diagram: When I run the code into Visio 2010 Professional the swimlane shapes are drawn correctly. When I run the same code from Visio Premium the swimlane appearance and layout are mismatched: Both times i drop the SAME Shape("Swimlane" from the same stencil) into the Page with the SAME Code fragment: Visio.Master vm = swimlane_stencil.Masters.get_ItemU(@"Swimlane"); Visio.Shape TargetShape = targetPage.Drop(vm, shape_x, shape_y); How could I ensure, that the code produces any time the same (correct) output? Must I disable any (premium)features in the swimlane-shapesheet?

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Timer appears to be pausing when screen becomes inactive

- by elchuppa

So I have a very simple android activity that starts a timer when you hit a button. Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { doStuff(); } }, 15 * 60 * 1000); So this worked reasonably well for me when I was testing but as it turns out when the screen becomes inactive so does the timer. I was a bit surprised by this. I understand you need to create a service to have anything running in the background but I hadn't realized this is required for an activity in the foreground when the phone has inactivated the screen due to lack of activity. What confuses me is I think this worked as I expected originally and just in the last few weeks or so has the timer been affected by the phone saving power. I could be wrong though.. So basically my questions are: am I seeing expected behavior? Do I need to create all timers as services or somehow disallow powersaving? thanks for any advice, Patrick

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Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

- by Ian

Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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Refactor link to show/hide a table row

- by abatishchev

I have a table with row which cab be hidden by user. It's implemented this way: Markup: <table> <tr> <td> <table style="margin-left: auto; text-align: right;"> <tr> <td class="stats-hide"> <a href="#" onclick="hideStats();">Hide</a> </td> <td class="stats-show" style="display: none;"> <a href="#" onclick="showStats();">Show</a> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr class="stats-hide"> <td>  </td> </tr> </table> And jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function hideStats() { hideControls(true, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(false, $('.stats-show')); } function showStats() { hideControls(false, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(true, $('.stats-show')); } function hideControls(value, arr) { $(arr).each(function () { if (value) { $(this).hide(); } else { $(this).show(); } }); } </script> How to implement the same behavior with one, single link and one, probably, CSS class? My idea - store somewhere a boolean variable and toggle controls visibility relatively to this variable. Are there more?

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How do I stop a bouncy JQuery animation?

- by Miguel

In a webapp I'm working on, I want to create some slider divs that will move up and down with mouseover & mouseout (respectively.) I currently have it implemented with JQuery's hover() function, by using animate() and reducing/increasing it's top css value as needed. This works fairly well, actually. The problem is that it tends to get stuck. If you move the mouse over it (especially near the bottom), and quickly remove it, it will slide up & down continuously and won't stop until it's completed 3-5 cycles. To me, it seems that the issue might have to do with one animation starting before another is done (e.g. the two are trying to run, so they slide back and forth.) Okay, now for the code. Here's the basic JQuery that I'm using: $('.slider').hover( /* mouseover */ function(){ $(this).animate({ top : '-=120' }, 300); }, /* mouseout*/ function(){ $(this).animate({ top : '+=120' }, 300); } ); I've also recreated the behavior in a JSFiddle. Any ideas on what's going on? :) ==EDIT== UPDATED JSFiddle

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ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

- by Metiu

I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

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