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  • Does using functional languages help against computing values repeatedly?

    - by sharptooth
    Consider a function f(x,y): f(x,0) = x*x; f(0,y) = y*(y + 1); f(x,y) = f(x,y-1) + f(x-1,y); If one tries to implement that recursively in some language like C++ he will encounter a problem. Suppose the function is first called with x = x0 and y = y0. Then for any pair (x,y) where 0 <= x < x0 and 0 <= y < y0 the intermediate values will be computed multiple times - recursive calls will form a huge tree in which multiple leaves will in fact contain the same pairs (x,y). For pairs (x,y) where x and y are both close to 0 values will be computed numerous times. For instance, I tested a similar function implemented in C++ - for x=20 and y=20 its computation takes about 4 hours (yes, four Earth hours!). Obviously the implementation can be rewritten in such way that repeated computation doesn't occur - either iteratively or with a cache table. The question is: will functional languages perform any better and avoid repeated computations when implementing a function like above recursively?

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  • How to override "inherited" z-indexes?

    - by Earlz
    I am needing to override the notion of inherited z-indexes. For instance in this code <style> div{ background-color:white; top: 0px; bottom: 0px; left: 0px; right: 0px; } </style> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 1 <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 3;"> div 2 </div> </div> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 3 </div> http://jsbin.com/epoqo3/3 I want for div 2 to be displayed, but instead div 3 is displayed. How can I change this behavior without changing my structure.

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  • COM port read - Thread remains alive after timeout occurs

    - by Sna
    Hello to all. I have a dll which includes a function called ReadPort that reads data from serial COM port, written in c/c++. This function is called within an extra thread from another WINAPI function using the _beginthreadex. When COM port has data to be read, the worker thread returns the data, ends normaly, the calling thread closes the worker's thread handle and the dll works fine. However, if ReadPort is called without data pending on the COM port, when timeout occurs then WaitForSingleObject returns WAIT_TIMEOUT but the worker thread never ends. As a result, virtual memory grows at about 1 MB every time, physical memory grows some KBs and the application that calls the dll becomes unstable. I also tryied to use TerminateThread() but i got the same results. I have to admit that although i have enough developing experience, i am not familiar with c/c++. I did a lot of research before posting but unfortunately i didn't manage to solve my problem. Does anyone have a clue on how could i solve this problem? However, I really want to stick to this kind of solution. Also, i want to mention that i think i can't use any global variables to use some kind of extra events, because each dll's functions may be called many times for every COM port. I post some parts of my code below: The Worker Thread: unsigned int __stdcall ReadPort(void* readstr){ DWORD dwError; int rres;DWORD dwCommModemStatus, dwBytesTransferred; int ret; char szBuff[64] = ""; ReadParams* params = (ReadParams*)readstr; ret = SetCommMask(params->param2, EV_RXCHAR | EV_CTS | EV_DSR | EV_RLSD | EV_RING); if (ret == 0) { _endthreadex(0); return -1; } ret = WaitCommEvent(params->param2, &dwCommModemStatus, 0); if (ret == 0) { _endthreadex(0); return -2; } ret = SetCommMask(params->param2, EV_RXCHAR | EV_CTS | EV_DSR | EV_RLSD| EV_RING); if (ret == 0) { _endthreadex(0); return -3; } if (dwCommModemStatus & EV_RXCHAR||dwCommModemStatus & EV_RLSD) { rres = ReadFile(params->param2, szBuff, 64, &dwBytesTransferred,NULL); if (rres == 0) { switch (dwError = GetLastError()) { case ERROR_HANDLE_EOF: _endthreadex(0); return -4; } _endthreadex(0); return -5; } else { strcpy(params->param1,szBuff); _endthreadex(0); return 0; } } else { _endthreadex(0); return 0; } _endthreadex(0); return 0;} The Calling Thread: int WINAPI StartReadThread(HANDLE porthandle, HWND windowhandle){ HANDLE hThread; unsigned threadID; ReadParams readstr; DWORD ret, ret2; readstr.param2 = porthandle; hThread = (HANDLE)_beginthreadex( NULL, 0, ReadPort, &readstr, 0, &threadID ); ret = WaitForSingleObject(hThread, 500); if (ret == WAIT_OBJECT_0) { CloseHandle(hThread); if (readstr.param1 != NULL) // Send message to GUI return 0; } else if (ret == WAIT_TIMEOUT) { ret2 = CloseHandle(hThread); return -1; } else { ret2 = CloseHandle(hThread); if (ret2 == 0) return -2; }} Thank you in advance, Sna.

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  • How to output multiple rows from an SQL query using the mysqli object

    - by Jonathan
    Assuming that the mysqli object is already instantiatied (and connected) with the global variable $mysql, here is the code I am trying to work with. class Listing { private $mysql; function getListingInfo($l_id = "", $category = "", $subcategory = "", $username = "", $status = "active") { $condition = "`status` = '$status'"; if (!empty($l_id)) $condition .= "AND `L_ID` = '$l_id'"; if (!empty($category)) $condition .= "AND `category` = '$category'"; if (!empty($subcategory)) $condition .= "AND `subcategory` = '$subcategory'"; if (!empty($username)) $condition .= "AND `username` = '$username'"; $result = $this->mysql->query("SELECT * FROM listing WHERE $condition") or die('Error fetching values'); $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; return $info; } } there are several hundred listings in the db and when I call $result-fetch_array() it places in an array the first row in the db. however when I try to call the object, I can't seem to access more than the first row. for instance: $listing_row = new Listing; while ($listing = $listing_row-getListingInfo()) { echo $listing[0]; } this outputs an infinite loop of the same row in the db. Why does it not advance to the next row? if I move the code: $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; if I move this outside the class, it works exactly as expected outputting a row at a time while looping through the while statement. Is there a way to write this so that I can keep the fetch_array() call in the class and still loop through the records?

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  • Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

    - by yarmiganosca
    Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

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  • CSS H4 hover style

    - by user1750613
    I tried many css from other places and stackoverflow, but somehow I can not make it done. I'm very new to css, and using Joomla and a template. I'm using custom.css folder for certain customizations on style. Here is I want to do: I want to style h4 when it is a link. For example, I'm creating a custom html module, have a list in the content. And in the content I'm giving each, h5 style, and a link to it to a certain page in the site. What I want to achieve is to have this list with color blue. And when mouse over-hover to have underline and still the same color. And when clicked back to the original position with no underline and no color change. (the same color in every situation, just underline when you are over it.) I tried these h5, h5 a, h5 a: hover, h5 .contentheading a, and so on... In one instance, it was working with : h5 { font-family: arial, sans-serif; font-size: 1.3em; font-weight: bold; } h5 a { color: #0088CC; } h5 a: hover { color: #0088CC; text-decoration: underline; } As I read I should use 'a' when the heading is a link. But now something is overriding it, I'm completely lost now. I see a:hover style in the inspection. I want to use this h5 in several content (in custom modules) when I want to style a content as a list to links. And I thought it will be practical to have one heading with a certain style so that I can use it with flexibility. Thanks a lot, any help will be great : )

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  • Problem with using Jquery.ajax over .load on Zend

    - by Matthew
    Right now, what i'm trying to do is to replace a label on the front page with a block of html. Right now, the page basically has: <label id="replace"></label> the js currently has: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#replace").load('/test'); }); the Zend class function has: public function indexAction(){ $this->_helper->layout()->disableLayout(); $this->_view->message = "This is from TestController index"; } and finally the index.phtml template simply has: <?php echo $this->message;?> Right now, I want to change the code around so that instead of just replacing that label with the same message, it would do a POST where the function will pull out a parameter, do something (like for instance, go to the database and pull something out with the POST parameter) and then return the message. I've tried editing the js so that it would look like: $.post('/test', {param : "test_param"}, function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);}); or $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/test', data: "{param:test_param}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);} }); and neither worked. I took a step back and tried to replicate the .load functionality and do: $.ajax({ url: '/test', success: function(data) { $('#replace').html(data); alert('Load was performed.'); } }); and it doesn't work either. Anyone have any tips on how to go about doing this?

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  • Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

    - by Mike
    Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

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  • "Permission denied" with Internet Explorer and jQuery

    - by rallex
    I try to do an AJAX call with jQuery and $.post in Internet Explorer, but all I get is an error saying "Permission denied". The problem is kinda weird since it occurs only when I access a page after I was on any other page. For instance I type the URL in the adress line and let IE load the page. Then I click on a button so the script should start loading JSON data. (The script providing the data lies on the same server and I access it with a relative URL, so using a different domain is not the problem here. Even tried to use a absolute URL with the same host part.) But when I refresh the page then and try it again it works! Same thing when I come to that page from another page. At first nothing works, but when I click "refresh" everything is fine. IE gives me the error message "Permission denied" while in every other browser I don't notice this behaviour. Since I have tried many things and still cannot imagine where the problem lies I'd like to ask you what you think the problem might be?

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • IIS7 URL Rewriting: How not to drop HTTPS protocol from rewritten URL?

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I'm working on a website that's using IIS 7's URL rewriting feature to do a permanent redirect from example.com to www.example.com, as well as rewrites from similar domain names to the "main" one, such as from www.examples.com to www.example.com. This rewrite rule - shown below - has worked well for sometime now. However, we recently added HTTPS support and noticed that if users visit one of the URLs to be rewritten to www.example.com then HTTPS is dropped. For instance, if a user visits https://example.com they get redirected to http://www.example.com, whereas we would like them to be sent to https://www.example.com. Here is the rewrite rule of interest (in Web.config): <rule name="Canonical Host Name" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAny"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^example\.com$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.net$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.info$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?examples\.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.example.com/{R:1}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> As you can see, the action element's url attribute points directly to http://, so I get why https://example.com is redirected to http://www.example.com. My question is, how do I fix this? I tried (naively) to just drop the http:// part from the url attribute, but that didn't work. Thanks!

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  • Ordering .each results in the view...

    - by bgadoci
    I am wondering if it is possible to dictate the order (i.e. :order = 'created_at DESC') within the view. I realize that logic in the view is not ideal but I seem to be having some problems locating where to affect this output. For instance, here is my code: <% @user.questions.each do |question| %> <%= link_to_unless_current h (question.title), question %> Created about <%= time_ago_in_words h(question.created_at) %> ago Updated about <%= time_ago_in_words h(question.updated_at) %> ago <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_question_path(question) %> | <%= link_to 'Destroy', question, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %> <% end %> In my QuestionsController I have the following index action but it is not affecting the output from the code above. class QuestionsController < ApplicationController def index @questions = Question.all(:order => 'created_at DESC', :limit => 20) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @questions } end end end

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  • Prevent coersion to a single type in unlist() or c(); passing arguments to wrapper functions

    - by Leo Alekseyev
    Is there a simple way to flatten a list while retaining the original types of list constituents?.. Is there a way to programmatically construct a heterogeneous list?.. For instance, I want to create a simple wrapper for functions like png(filename,width,height) that would take device name, file name, and a list of options. The naive approach would be something like my.wrapper <- function(dev,name,opts) { do.call(dev,c(filename=name,opts)) } or similar code with unlist(list(...)). This doesn't work because opts gets coerced to character, and the resulting call is e.g. png(filename,width="500",height="500"). If there's no straightforward way to create heterogeneous lists like that, is there a standard idiomatic way to splice arguments into functions without naming them explicitly (e.g. do.call(dev,list(filename=name,width=opts["width"]))? -- Edit -- Gavin Simpson answered both questions below in his discussion about constructing wrapper functions. Let me give a summary of the answer to the title question: It is possible to construct a heterogeneous list with c() provided the arguments to c() are lists. To wit: > foo <- c("a","b"); bar <- 1:3 > c(foo,bar) [1] "a" "b" "1" "2" "3" > c(list(foo),list(bar)) [[1]] [1] "a" "b" [[2]] [1] 1 2 3 > c(as.list(foo),as.list(bar)) ## this creates a flattened heterogeneous list [[1]] [1] "a" [[2]] [1] "b" [[3]] [1] 1 [[4]] [1] 2 [[5]] [1] 3

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  • C#; listbox's as one object(container)

    - by Oyeme
    Hello, I use Visual studio 2008 I have 5 listbox's on form,I created a new class file -called him "scaner.cs" scaner.cs -he cannot see "listbox". I have create an instance. scaner Comp = new scaner(listBox2, listBox1, listBox3, listBox4, listBox5); In scaner.cs file I use it like this. class scaner { public ListBox ls; public ListBox lsE; public ListBox lsIVars; public ListBox lsNumbers; public ListBox lsStrings; public scaner(ListBox ls, ListBox lsE, ListBox lsIVars, ListBox lsNumbers, ListBox lsStrings) { this.ls = ls; this.lsE = lsE; this.lsIVars = lsIVars; this.lsNumbers = lsNumbers; this.lsStrings = lsStrings; } } My question : How can i replaced this big code to more "comfortably" method. scaner Comp = new scaner(listBox2, listBox1, listBox3, listBox4, listBox5); IF i had more then 5 listbox's ,it will be awful. How can i acced form another class file "Listbox's" Thanks for answers.

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  • Error using maven profiles

    - by user3127896
    I've added two profiles to my application and that how it looks: <profiles> <profile> <id>dev</id> <properties> <db.username>root</db.username> <db.password>root</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> <profile> <id>prod</id> <properties> <db.username>prodroot</db.username> <db.password>prodpass</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> </profiles> In my jdbc.properties file i changed values like this: jdbc.driverClassName=${db.driverClass} jdbc.dialect=org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect jdbc.databaseurl=jdbc:mysql://${db.connectionURL}/dbname jdbc.username=${db.username} jdbc.password=${db.password} And here's bean from spring-container.xml <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> When i try to deploy my application i got following error: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'dataSource' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring-servlet.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'db.driverClass' Structure of project: Any ideas what i'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

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  • Asynchronously get user data in facebook tab?

    - by Kristoffer Nolgren
    Using the php sdk, I check if a user inside a tab likes the corresponding page. If i put the following code inside index.php and use that page as my page-tab-url, <?php require_once("facebook/facebook.php"); // Create our application instance // (replace this with your appId and secret). $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '1399475990283166', 'secret' => 'mysercret', 'cookie' => true )); $signed_request = $facebook->getSignedRequest(); echo $signed_request['page']['liked']; ?> it outputs '1'. I would like to achieve this asynchronously instead, so I put the php in a separate file and try to access it using ajax instead $http.post('/facebook/likes.php'). success(function(data){ console.log(data); }).error(function(data){ console.log(data); } ); This sample is using angular, but what javascript library i'm using probably doesn't matter. When I access the info with javascript Facebook doesn't seem to get the info that I liked the page. Adding a print_r($facebook); on the page I'm retreiving the same values as if i'm not in a facebook-tab: ( [sharedSessionID:protected] => [appId:protected] => 1399475990283166 [appSecret:protected] => 679fb0ab947c2b98e818f9240bc793da [user:protected] => [signedRequest:protected] => [state:protected] => [accessToken:protected] => [fileUploadSupport:protected] => [trustForwarded:protected] => ) Can I access theese values asynchronosly somehow?

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  • short-cutting equality checking in F#?

    - by John Clements
    In F#, the equality operator (=) is generally extensional, rather than intensional. That's great! Unfortunately, it appears to me that F# does not use pointer equality to short-cut these extensional comparisons. For instance, this code: type Z = MT | NMT of Z ref // create a Z: let a = ref MT // make it point to itself: a := NMT a // check to see whether it's equal to itself: printf "a = a: %A\n" (a = a) ... gives me a big fat segmentation fault[*], despite the fact that 'a' and 'a' both evaluate to the same reference. That's not so great. Other functional languages (e.g. PLT Scheme) get this right, using pointer comparisons conservatively, to return 'true' when it can be determined using a pointer comparison. So: I'll accept the fact that F#'s equality operator doesn't use short-cutting; is there some way to perform an intensional (pointer-based) equality check? The (==) operator is not defined on my types, and I'd love it if someone could tell me that it's available somehow. Or tell me that I'm wrong in my analysis of the situation: I'd love that, too... [*] That would probably be a stack overflow on Windows; there are things about Mono that I'm not that fond of...

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  • When is a Web Service constructor called? [Java Netbeans 6.7.1 & Tomcat 6.0.18]

    - by Shaitan00
    I am migrating a Java RMI application to Java Web Service (school assignment) and I've encountered an issue... Currently my Java Server creates an instance of the Remote Object, this object has a constructor and takes a parameter (int ID) which tells it which database to load in memory - works like a charm ... Now, migrating this to Web Services is causing my a problem - first I needed to add a default constructor because it wouldn't deploy without it, and then while doing some reading all these discussions about "stateless web services" kept coming up ... For example, if I "start" my webservice with parameter(0) it would load from Databse 0 and all requests from Clients would be done using that data... I want this to only happen when I start the WebService and NOT everytime the client connects... Loading from the DB is expensive and takes time, so I want to do it once so that clients when they connect just deal with the data in memory ... This is how it works with my Java RMI .... but can this also work with Web Services? Any advice would be much appreciated. Thanks,

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  • Custom API requirement

    - by Jonathan.Peppers
    We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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  • C# Hook Forms / Windows / Dialogs etc. (via HWND?) to Capture Video Buffer (D3D Device?)

    - by Drax
    I am looking to create a very simple C# application which runs Full-Screen in Direct3D, and is able to grab the Desktop 'scene', mapping each Window from the Desktop to a Textured Polygon in my D3D Scene... I'm hoping to create a simplistic "3D Desktop" type of application as an experiment, and I'm wondering if there is a specific method for doing something like the following: 1)Get a list of all the Windows open on the Desktop (List of HWNDs?). 2)Grab the X,Y position of each Window, as well as the Width and Height. 3)Grab the Rendered image of each Window (magic happens here). 4)Create a new Texture/Surface in D3D using the Width and Height of the Window(s), and apply the Image we grabbed as a Texture. Is there an efficient 'best practice' for acquiring the actual image(s) being rendered to the Desktop? Is there also a 'best practice' for "extending the desktop" to a virtual second, third, etc. "desktop" and being able to swap between them, including creating a unique instance of the task-bar for each virtual desktop. Thanks a million for any suggestions!

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  • JavaScript Show/Hide as Filters to list of divs

    - by deconspray
    Looking to create Javascript that acts like a filter on a list of divs. For instance, here's the intended markup... <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 1</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 2</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 3</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 4</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 5</a> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="2">Item 2</div> <div class="3">Item 3</div> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="4">Item 4</div> <div class="4">Item 4</div> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="5">Item 5</div> I want to be able to click on the link for Item 1, and show only Item 1 divs and hide all other divs, click the link of Item 2, and show only Item 2 divs and hide all other divs and so on. I've seen several similar scripts but nothing that seemingly turns divs matching the class on/off in this manner. TIA.

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  • Repeater not repeating :0) (asp.net)(vb)

    - by Phil
    Morning stackoverflow, I have a repeater, with the following code in my aspx page; <asp:Repeater ID="Contactinforepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <h1>Contact Information</h1> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <table width="50%"> <tr> <td colspan="2"><%#Container.DataItem("position")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Name:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("surname")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Telephone:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("telephone")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Fax:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("fax")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Email:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("email")%></td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> <SeparatorTemplate> <br /><hr /><br /> </SeparatorTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Then I have this code in my aspx.vb to get the data; If did = 0 Then s = "sql works on db server" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", Data.SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader r.Read() Contactinforepeater.DataSource = r Contactinforepeater.DataBind() End If c.Close() r.Close() If Not did = 0 Then s = "sql works on db server" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid x.Parameters.Add("@did", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@did").Value = did c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader r.Read() Contactinforepeater.DataSource = r Contactinforepeater.DataBind() End If r.Close() c.Close() If 'did' is or is not '0' I still get no data outputted to the page. I just get the 'contact information' h1 header from the header template. I've tested the value of s in sqlsms and it works fine. Position, surname, telephone, fax, email all exist in the db. The particular page I am checking exists and has 1 set of contact information attached. Where am I going wrong? Thanks! ps. Does my syntax appear correct? pps. I am also open to different ways of achieving the same result. I tried via an sqldatasource but ran into problems when using variables as params (there is no option to select them, only controls, querystring etc)

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  • EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

    - by Yoo Matsuo
    I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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  • Visual Studio 2010 is not allowing me to debug my code

    - by Tejs
    So, this interesting issue has been plaguing me for the past couple of hours. Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate no longer attaches the debugger and lets me debug my code. If I use the built in development server, then everything works fine. If I switch to Use Local IIS Web Server (http://localhost/), then all it does it attach to w3wp.exe, but no DLLs or PDBs are loaded for anything. I can go to Debug Windows Modules, and literally nothing is loaded in this window. Conversely, when using the built in development server, the Modules window displays all the DLLs and shows that the symbols for my DLLs have been loaded. Something is obviously amiss. The VS installation is completely bone stock. In IIS, my website is configured with ASP.NET 2.0 (because no 3.5 exists to select from the drop down), along with read / log visits / index this resource options checked on the "Home Directory" tab. Some of my failed ideas: 1) If I attach to process on the iexplore.exe instance where the website is displayed, it loads Internet Explorer's DLLs, but not mine. 2) I've restarted the computer multiple times 3) I've invoked devenv.exe /resetuserdata once 4) I've confirmed that every project is indeed set to debug and not release. 5) Deleted all \bin contents and rebuilt the solution. 6) Deleted entire solution and repulled from Source Control. Can someone tell me what is wrong with this thing? I'm going to have an aneurism from the headache this is causing me.

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