Search Results

Search found 22900 results on 916 pages for 'pascal case'.

Page 714/916 | < Previous Page | 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721  | Next Page >

  • How to prevent Hibernate from nullifying relationship column during entity removal

    - by Grzegorz
    I have two entities, A and B. I need to easily retrieve entities A, joined with entities B on the condition of equal values of some column (some column from A equal to some column in B). Those columns are not primary or foreign keys, they contain same business data. I just need to have access from each instance of A to the collection of B's with the same value of this column. So I model it like this: class A { @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name="column_in_B", referencedColumnName="column_in_A") Collection<B> bs; This way, I can run queries like "select A join fetch a.bs b where b...." (Actually, the real relationship here is many-to-many. But when I use @ManyToMany, Hibernate forces me to use join table, which doesnt exist here. So I have to use @OneToMany as workaround). So far so good. The main problem is: whenever I delete an instance of A, hibernate calls "Update B set column_in_B = null", becuase it thinks the column_in_B is foreign key pointing at primary key in A (and because row in A is deleted, it tries to clean the foreign key in B). BUT the column_in_B IS NOT a foreign key, and can't be modified, because it causes data lost (and this column is NOT NULL anyway in my case, causing data integerity exception to be thrown). Plese help me with this. How to model such relationships with Hibernate? (I would call it "virtual relationships", or "secondary relationships" or so: as they are not based on foreign keys, they are just some shortcuts which allows for retrieving related objects and quering for them with HQL)

    Read the article

  • getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

    - by Nir
    I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

    Read the article

  • How is unautenticated site navigation handled in ASP.NET?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am wondering how to do the following... I have a registration system. When the user successfully registers, he is then led down a series of data gathering pages (for his profile) and then, finally, ends on his profile's home page where he can start to use the site. All this happens without ever logging into the system so, he is unauthenticated and unconfirmed. My question is, how does this happen? How can I allow my user to be unauthenticated (and unconfirmed, but this I understand) and use all aspects of the Web site? The way I have things set up right now, my code should be doing this: case CreateProfileStatus.Success: //FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, false); Response.Redirect("NextPage.aspx", false); break; but, I am being redirected to the login page after registration which is not the result I want. This is what the relevant nodes in my web.config look like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".AuthCookie" loginUrl="default.aspx" protection="All"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow roles="Administrators" /> </authorization> <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="100000" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="Encryption" cookieless="UseCookies" domain="" /> When the user logs out after the registration and initial interaction with the site he will be required to log in upon return. At this point he must be authenticated but does not need to be confirmed for a period of time. Eventually, he will be reminded. So, how is this done? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why Sql not bringing back results unless I set varchar size?

    - by Tom
    I've got an SQL script that fetches results based on the colour passed to it, but unless I set the size of the variable defined as a varchar to (50) no results are returned. If I use: like ''+@Colour+'%' then it works but I don't really want to use it in case it brings back results I don't need or want. The column FieldValue has a type of Varchar(Max) (which can't be changed as this field can store different things). It is part of aspdotnetstorefront package so I can't really change the tables or field types. This doesn't work: declare @Col VarChar set @Col = 'blu' select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.FieldValue = @Colour But this does work: declare @Col VarChar (50) set @Col = 'blu' select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.FieldValue = @Colour The code is used in the following context, but should work either way <query name="Products" rowElementName="Variant"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.Colour = @Colour ]]> </sql> <queryparam paramname="@ProductID" paramtype="runtime" requestparamname="pID" sqlDataType="int" defvalue="0" validationpattern="^\d{1,10}$" /> <queryparam paramname="@Colour" paramtype="runtime" requestparamname="pCol" sqlDataType="varchar" defvalue="" validationpattern=""/> </query> Any Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Dojo dialog, the iPad and the virtual keyboard issue

    - by Chris Butler
    Recently, I have been working on a project where the interface should work for desktop and tablets (in particular the iPad). One issue I am coming across is with a Dojo dialog on the iPad when text entry is taking place. Basically here is what happens: Load Dojo interface with buttons on iPad - OK Press button (touch) to show dialog (90% height and width) - OK Click on text box (touch) like DateTextBox or TimeTextBox - OK, the virtual keyboard is opened Click the date or time I want in the UI (touch) - OK, but I can't see all of the options since it is longer than the screen size... Try to scroll down (swipe up with two fingers or click 'next' in the keyboard) - not OK and the dialog repositions itself to have it's top at the top of the viewport area. Basically, the issue is that the dialog keeps trying to reposition itself. Am I able to stop dialog resizing and positioning if I catch the window onResize events? Does anyone else have this issue with the iPad and Dojo dialogs? Also, I found this StackOverflow topic on detecting the virtual keyboard, but it wasn't much help in this case... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2593139/ipad-web-app-detect-virtual-keyboard-using-javascript-in-safari Thanks!

    Read the article

  • android & libgdx - disable blurry images rendering

    - by android developer
    i'm trying out libgdx as an opengl wrapper , and i have some issues with its graphical rendering : for some reason , all images (textures) on android device look a little blurred using libgdx . this also includes text (font) . however, for normal images , even though i show the entire image , i expect it to look as sharp as i see it on a computer , especially if i have such a good screen on the device (it's galaxy nexus) . i've tried to set the anti-aliasing off , by using the next code : final AndroidApplicationConfiguration androidApplicationConfiguration=new AndroidApplicationConfiguration(); androidApplicationConfiguration.numSamples=0; //tried the value of 1 too. ... i've also tried to set the scaling method to various methods , but with no luck. example: texture.setFilter(TextureFilter.Nearest,TextureFilter.Nearest); as a test , i've found a sharp image that is exactly the same as the seen resolution on the device (720x1184 for galaxy nexus , because of the buttons bar) , and i've put it to be on the background of the libgdx app . of course , i had to add extra blank space in order for the texute to be loaded , so the final size of the image (which will include content and empty space) is still a power of 2 for both width and height (1024x2048 in my case) . on the desktop app , it look ok . on the device , it looked blurred. a weird thing that i've noticed is that when i change the device's orientation (horizontal <= vertical) , for the very short time before the rotating animation starts , i see both the image and the text very well . can anyone please help me?

    Read the article

  • asp.net multiligual website culture settings

    - by Hemant Kothiyal
    Hi, In asp.net multilingual website in english Uk and swedish, i have three rsources file 1. en-GB.resx 2. sv-SE.resx 3. Culture neutral file. I have create one base class and all pages is inherited from that class. There i write following lines to set UICULTURE and culture 1. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture.Name; 2. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.Name; Question: Suppose my browser language is Swedish(sv-SE) then this code will run because it find CurrentUICulture and CurrentCulture values as sv-SE. Now if suppose browser language is Swedish(sv) only, in that case values will be set as CurrentUICulture = sv; and CurrentCulture = sv-SE Now the problem is that user can able to view all text in Culture neutral resource file that i kept as english while all decimal saperators, currency and other will be appear in swedish. It looks confusing to usr. What would be right approach. I am thinking following solution. Please correct me? 1. i can create extra resource file for sv also. 2. I check value of CurrentUICulture in base class and if it is sv then replace it with sv-SE Please correct me which one is right approach or Is there any other good way of doing?

    Read the article

  • Pinax TemplateSyntaxError

    - by Spikie
    hi, i ran into this errors while trying to modify pinax database model i am using eclipse pydev i have this error on the pydev Exception Type: TemplateSyntaxError at / Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: (1146, "Table 'test1.announcements_announcement' doesn't exist") please how do i correct this UPDATE: i asked this question and left unresolved some months back and you what ran into the bug again this week and typed the error message in google hit the page with the question and unanswered so i think i have to answer it and hope it help someone in the future have the same problem. some the problem is that the sqlite path is out of place so django or this case pinax can not find it so to resolve that change the absolute path to sqlite like it DATABASE_ENGINE = 'sqlite3' # 'postgresql_psycopg2', 'postgresql', 'mysql', 'sqlite3' or 'ado_mssql'. DATABASE_NAME = os.path.join(PROJECT_ROOT,'dev.db' ) # Or path to database file if using sqlite3. DATABASE_USER = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PASSWORD = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_HOST = '' # Set to empty string for localhost. Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PORT = '' # Set to empty string for default. Not used with sqlite3. i hope that help

    Read the article

  • Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

    - by Stefan Hendriks
    Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Design suggestion for expression tree evaluation with time-series data

    - by Lirik
    I have a (C#) genetic program that uses financial time-series data and it's currently working but I want to re-design the architecture to be more robust. My main goals are: sequentially present the time-series data to the expression trees. allow expression trees to access previous data rows when needed. to optimize performance of the data access while evaluating the expression trees. keep a common interface so various types of data can be used. Here are the possible approaches I've thought about: I can evaluate the expression tree by passing in a data row into the root node and let each child node use the same data row. I can evaluate the expression tree by passing in the data row index and letting each node get the data row from a shared DataSet (currently I'm passing the row index and going to multiple synchronized arrays to get the data). Hybrid: an immutable data set is accessible by all of the expression trees and each expression tree is evaluated by passing in a data row. The benefit of the first approach is that the data row is being passed into the expression tree and there is no further query done on the data set (which should increase performance in a multithreaded environment). The drawback is that the expression tree does not have access to the rest of the data (in case some of the functions need to do calculations using previous data rows). The benefit of the second approach is that the expression trees can access any data up to the latest data row, but unless I specify what that row is, I'll have to iterate through the rows and figure out which one is the last one. The benefit of the hybrid is that it should generally perform better and still provide access to the earlier data. It supports two basic "views" of data: the latest row and the previous rows. Do you guys know of any design patterns or do you have any tips that can help me build this type of system? Should I use a DataSet to hold and present the data, or are there more efficient ways to present rows of data while maintaining a simple interface? FYI: All of my code is written in C#.

    Read the article

  • Reading a .dat file as "rb" read binary

    - by donpal
    I have a web-accessible php script that accesses a folder above the webroot (not web accessible) called \folder\. This is done via setting the path to \folder\ in .htaccess the usual way so that \folder\ becomes part of the project. \folder\ contains a .php script (communicates with the web-accessible script inside the webroot) some .inc files (used by the .php in the same folder, above the webroot) a dat file (used by the .inc in the same folder, above the webroot) All files are accessible to each other as needed: the web-accessible php inside the webroot can communicate with the php above the webroot the php above the webroot can communicate with the inc in the same folder But the inc above the webroot can't communicate with the dat in the same folder, and I have no idea why that's the case The inc myinc.inc is supposed to open the dat mydat.dat in the same folder like this fopen('mydat.dat', "rb"); but I get an error that no file called mydat.dat exists inside \folder\myinc.inc. Of course it does not, the .dat is sibling to .inc and is not supposed to be inside it. Why is php expecting to find the .dat file inside the .inc. The stranger thing is that if I move the .dat in the web-accessible folder, it becomes readable now. Any ideas why php is trying to find the .dat inside the .inc?

    Read the article

  • How to use boost::bind with non-copyable params, for example boost::promise ?

    - by zhengxi
    Some C++ objects have no copy constructor, but have move constructor. For example, boost::promise. How can I bind those objects using their move constructors ? #include <boost/thread.hpp> void fullfil_1(boost::promise<int>& prom, int x) { prom.set_value(x); } boost::function<void()> get_functor() { // boost::promise is not copyable, but movable boost::promise<int> pi; // compilation error boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, pi, 1); // compilation error as well boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, std::move(pi), 1); // PS. I know, it is possible to bind a pointer to the object instead of // the object itself. But it is weird solution, in this case I will have // to take cake about lifetime of the object instead of delegating that to // boost::bind (by moving object into boost::function object) // // weird: pi will be destroyed on leaving the scope boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, boost::ref(pi), 1); return f_set_one; }

    Read the article

  • Join + IEqualityComparer<T> and HashCode

    - by Jesus Rodriguez
    Im writing my own LINQ reference but Im getting troubles with some of the more complicated operators implementations. There is a Join implementation that takes a IEqualityComparer Im getting just crazy. Im trying to understand it first before I write (obviously) Image this two lists: List<string> initials = new List<string> {"A", "B", "C", "D", "E"}; List<string> words = new List<string> {"Ant", "Crawl", "Pig", "Boat", "Elephant", "Arc"}; Nothing weird here. I want to join both lists by the Initial, something like: Initial=A Word=Ant Initial=A Word=Arc Initial=B Word=Boat ... I need a comparator, I wrote this: public class InitialComparator : IEqualityComparer<string> { public bool Equals(string x, string y) { return x.StartsWith(y); } public int GetHashCode(string obj) { return obj[0].GetHashCode(); } } The Join itself: var blah = initials.Join(words, initial => initial, word => word, (initial, word) => new {Initial = initial, Word = word}, new InitialComparator()); It's the first time Im using HashCodes, after a good session of debugging I see that every word go to the comparator and look at its HashCode, if another word has the same HashCode it calls equals. Since I want to compare just the initial I though that I just need the first letter Hash (Am I wrong?) The thing is that this is not working correctly. Its says that "Ant" and "Arc" are equals, Ok, its comparing every word in the same list or not, But it adds only the last word it finds, in this case Arc, ignoring Ant and Ant is equals to "A" too... If I put "Ant" and "Ant" it add both. In short, What is the way of doing something like that? I know that Im doing something wrong. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Progressive MP4 video issues in Flash- Video stops rendering

    - by Conor
    I'm currently working on a flash project that has an intro video that plays before heading into the main app. This video is an H.264 .mp4, 1550x540, and around 10MB. The problem thats currently driving me insane is that when I test it, occasionally the video will begin playing, and then suddenly stop rendering the video frames, leaving the audio playing in the background with nothing on screen. Once the file is played through fully (based on listening to the audio), my playback complete event fires like it should, but I can't find any info of people having similar issues. Attached is a trace of the .mp4 metadata in case that helps. videoframerate : 24 audiochannels : 2 audiocodecid : mp4a audiosamplerate : 48000 trackinfo: 0: length : 608000 timescale : 24000 language : eng sampledescription: 0: sampletype : avc1 1: length : 1218560 timescale : 48000 language : eng sampledescription: 0: sampletype : mp4a duration : 25.386666666666667 width : 1540 videocodecid : avc1 seekpoints: 0: time : 0 offset : 13964 1: time : 0.333 offset : 16893 2: time : 0.667 offset : 34212 ... 73: time : 24.333 offset : 9770329 74: time : 24.667 offset : 9845709 75: time : 25 offset : 9895215 moovposition : 32 height : 540 avcprofile : 77 avclevel : 51 aacaot : 2 This has been driving me absolutely insane... any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

    Read the article

  • MFC Combo-Box Control is not showing the full list of items when I click the drop-down menu...

    - by shan23
    I'm coding an app in MSVS 2008, which has a ComboBox control which I initialize thru the code as below: static char* OptionString[4] = {"Opt1", "Opt2", "Opt3", "Opt4"}; BOOL CMyAppDlg::OnInitDialog() { CDialog::OnInitDialog(); // Set the icon for this dialog. The framework does this automatically // when the application's main window is not a dialog SetIcon(m_hIcon, TRUE); // Set big icon SetIcon(m_hIcon, FALSE); // Set small icon // TODO: Add extra initialization here m_Option.AddString(OptionString[0]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[1]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[2]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[3]); m_Option.SetCurSel(0); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } Now, when I build the app and click the down-arrow, the drop-down box shows the first option ONLY(since I've selected that thru my code). But, if i press down-arrow key on keyboard, it cycles thru the options in the order I've inserted, but never does it show more than 1 option in the box. So, In case an user wants to select option3, he has to cycle through options 1 and 2 !! Though once I select any option using the keyboard, the appropriate event handlers are fired, I'm miffed by this behaviour , as is understandable. I'm listing the properties of the combo-box control as well - only the properties that are true(rest are set to false): Type - Dropdown Vertical Scrollbar Visible Tabstop This has bugged me for weeks now. Can anyone pls enlighten me ?

    Read the article

  • How to solve timing problems in automated UI tests with C# and Visual Studio?

    - by Lernkurve
    Question What is the standard approach to solve timing problems in automated UI tests? Concrete example I am using Visual Studio 2010 and Team Foundation Server 2010 to create automated UI tests and want to check whether my application has really stopped running: [TestMethod] public void MyTestMethod() { Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App shouldn't be running, but is."); StartMyApp(); Assert.IsTrue(IsMyAppRunning(), "App should have been started and should be running now."); StopMyApp(); //Pause(500); Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App was stopped and shouldn't be running anymore."); } private bool IsMyAppRunning() { foreach (Process runningProcesse in Process.GetProcesses()) { if (runningProcesse.ProcessName.Equals("Myapp")) { return true; } } return false; } private void Pause(int pauseTimeInMilliseconds) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pauseTimeInMilliseconds); } StartMyApp() and StopMyApp() have been recorded with MS Test Manager 2010 and reside in UIMap.uitest. The last assert fails because the assertion is executed while my application is still in the process of shutting down. If I put a delay after StopApp() the test case passes. The above is just an example to explain my problem. What is the standard approach to solve these kinds of timing issues? One idea would be to wait with the assertion until I get some event notification that my app has been stopped.

    Read the article

  • Inserting a ContentControl after another ContentControl

    - by Markus Roth
    In our VSTO Word 2010 Addin, we are trying to insert a RichTextControl after a given other ContentControl. We have tried this: public ContentControl AddContentControl(WdContentControlType type, int position) { Paragraph paragraphBefore = null; if (position == 0) { if (WordDocument.Paragraphs.Count == 0) { WordDocument.Paragraphs.Add(); } paragraphBefore = WordDocument.Paragraphs.First; } else { paragraphBefore = Controls.ElementAt(position - 1).Range.Paragraphs.Last; } object start = paragraphBefore.Range.End; object end = paragraphBefore.Range.End + 1; paragraphBefore.Range.InsertParagraphAfter(); Range rangeToUse = WordDocument.Range(ref start, ref end); ContentControl newControl = _ContentControl = _WordDocument.ContentControls.Add(type, rangeToInsert); Controls.Insert(position, newControl); OnNewContentControl(newControl, position); return newControl.ContentControl; } which works fine, unless the control that is before the one we want to insert has an empty paragraph at the end. If that is the case, the new ContentControl is inserted within the last control. How can we avoid this?

    Read the article

  • PHP Switch and Login

    - by Steve Rivera
    I'm fairly new with PHP and I am messing around with a login/registration system. I setup my sample website using a PHP-SWITCH script I found a while back: <?php switch($_GET['id']) { default: include('home.php'); /* LOGIN PAGES */ break; case "register_form": include ('includes/user_system/register_form.php'); } ? On the registration page the form links to my "register.php" which checks the validity of the form and to check for any blank fields and so on. "register.php" is supposed to refresh the page and add a reason to what the user did wrong when submitting the form. On my "register_form.php" page, which holds the actual form. This field is hidden until the user makes a mistake. <?php if (isset($reg_error)) { ?> , please try again. My "register.php" checks the form for all the errors. Here's the bit of code that will refresh the page with the reason for the error: // Check if any of the fields are missing if (empty($_POST['username']) || empty($_POST['password']) || empty($_POST['confirmpass'])) { // Reshow the form with an error $reg_error = 'One or more fields missing'; include 'register_form.php'; Now after I submit the form without any fields filled out I get the error code, but it refreshes to the actual "register_form.php". The problem with this is that because of my PHP-SWITCH script (helps me manage the site a lot easier) I don't have any formatting on that page. The actual URL to my "register_form.php" would be: "index.php?id=register_form.php". Now I have tried several different things such as changing it to: include 'index.php?id=register_form.php' And also changing it to: header(location:index.php?id=register_form.php') Unfortunately all this does is refresh the page without the reason for the error. I know this can be easily solved by just adding a Javascript Validator but I'd like to know if it is possible to refresh the page with the error using either "include" or "header()" while having a PHP-SWITCH script on the website.

    Read the article

  • jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

    - by Fred Kafka
    I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

    Read the article

  • Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

    Read the article

  • Multhreading in Java

    - by Vijay Selvaraj
    I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Valueurl Binding On Large Arrays Causes Sluggish User Interface

    - by Hooligancat
    I have a large data set (some 3500 objects) that returns from a remote server via HTTP. Currently the data is being presented in an NSCollectionView. One aspect of the data is a path pack to the server for a small image that represents the data (think thumbnail for simplicity). Bindings works fantastically for the data that is already returned, and binding the image via a valueurl binding is easy to do. However, the user interface is very sluggish when scrolling through the data set - which makes me think that the NSCollectionView is retrieving all the image data instead of just the image data used to display the currently viewable images. I was under the impression that Cocoa controls were smart enough to only retrieve data for the information that is actually being output to the user interface through lazy loading. This certainly seems to be the case with NSTableView - but I could be misguided on this thought. Should valueurl binding act lazily and, moreover, should it act lazily in an NSCollectionView? I could create a caching mechanism (in fact I already have such a thing in place for another application - see my post here if you are interested http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1740209/populating-nsimage-with-data-from-an-asynchronous-nsurlconnection) but I really don't want to go this route if I don't have to for this specific implementation as the user could potentially change data sets often and may only want small sub-sets of the data. Any suggested approaches? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

    Read the article

  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721  | Next Page >