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• Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

  - by BS_C3

  Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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• Invert a string: Recursion vs iteration in javascript

  - by steweb

  Hi all, one month ago I've been interviewed by some google PTO members. One of the questions was: Invert a string recursively in js and explain the running time by big O notation this was my solution: function invert(s){ return (s.length > 1) ? s.charAt(s.length-1)+invert(s.substring(0,s.length-1)) : s; } Pretty simple, I think. And, about the big-o notation, I quickly answered O(n) as the running time depends linearly on the input. - Silence - and then, he asked me, what are the differences in terms of running time if you implement it by iteration? I replied that sometimes the compiler "translate" the recursion into iteration (some programming language course memories) so there are no differences about iteration and recursion in this case. Btw since I had no feedback about this particular question, and the interviewer didn't answer "ok" or "nope", I'd like to know if you maybe agree with me or if you can explain me whether there could be differences about the 2 kind of implementations. Thanks a lot and Regards!

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• PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

  - by Steven Schlansker

  I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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• How to open AsyncTask from a Thread

  - by Abhishek

  In my application I have created a SplashScreen that will b shown for 5 Seconds and after that it executes an if else case depending upon the values stored in the Preference file. If Preference file contains values then the AsyncTask code will run else the Login form will load. When i try to run my application. The thread is going to the Login form with the help of intent but when it comes to AsyncTask my application shows a force close error message. This is my SplashScreen code: public class SplashScreen extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.splashscreen); Thread timer = new Thread() { public void run() { try { sleep(5000); } catch(InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { if(GoGolfPref.getEmail(SplashScreen.this)!=null && GoGolfPref.getPass(SplashScreen.this)!=null) { new LoadingScreen(SplashScreen.this, SplashScreen.this).execute("login_page", Login.url+GoGolfPref.getEmail(SplashScreen.this)+"/"+GoGolfPref.getPass(SplashScreen.this)); } else { Intent in = new Intent(SplashScreen.this, Login.class); startActivity(in); finish(); } } } }; timer.start(); } } This is the error I am getting: 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): FATAL EXCEPTION: Thread-10 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): java.lang.RuntimeException: Can't create handler inside thread that has not called Looper.prepare() 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.os.Handler.<init>(Handler.java:121) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.Dialog.<init>(Dialog.java:101) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.AlertDialog.<init>(AlertDialog.java:63) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.ProgressDialog.<init>(ProgressDialog.java:80) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.ProgressDialog.<init>(ProgressDialog.java:76) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at com.pnf.gogolf.LoadingScreen.<init>(LoadingScreen.java:130) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at com.pnf.gogolf.SplashScreen$1.run(SplashScreen.java:32) How to get this working? Thanks in advance...

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• How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

  - by Paul Lalonde

  I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

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• OutOfMemoryException

  - by Andrew

  I have an application that is pretty memory hungry. It holds a large amount of data in some big arrays. I have recently been noticing the occasional OutOfMemoryException. These OutOfMemoryExceptions are occurring long before my application (ASP.Net) has used up the 800mb available to it. I have track the issue down to the area of code where the array is resized. The array contains a structure that is 74bytes in size. (I know that you shouldn't create struct's that are bigger than 16bytes), but this application is a port from a Vb6 application). I have tried changing the struct to a class and this appears to have fixed the problem for now. I think the reason that changing to a class solves the problem has to do with the fact that when using a struct and the array is resized, a segment of memory that is large enough to store the new array needs to be reserved (e.g. (currentArraySize + increaseBySize)*74) cannot be found. This leads to the OutOfMemoryException. This isn't the case with a class as each element of the array only needs 8bytes to store a pointer to the new object. Is my thinking correct here?

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• PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

  - by sunwukung

  Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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• SAP related testing

  - by mgj

  Dear all, One notion that has been prevalent mostly as rumours for many aspiring programmers is that the testing phase of the SDLC(Software Development Life Cycle) is not that challenging and interesting as one's job as a tester after a period of time becomes monotonous because a person does the same thing repeatedly over and over again. Thats why many have this complexion of looking for a developers job rather than that of testers. Don't testers have a space for themselves in software companies to grow..? Please feel free to express your views for or against this. How true is that, could you please give e.g.'s of instances( need not be practical, even theoretical would suffice) which actually contradict this statement wrt a tester's career specifically wrt the SAP domain. E.g.'s from other domains are also welcome. This question is not meant to hurt someone's feelings who is in the testing domain. Its just that for e.g. in my case I want to know what actually would be the challenge's a tester could also face in real life situations.Something that would make their job also interesting and fun-filled. I myself am pro-testing and also interested in pursuing testing as a profession in a sw co, just curious to know more about it so...:) Thanks..:)

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• Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

  - by Bear

  I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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• Replacement for deprecated SQL Server User Defined Type with a bound Rule and Default

  - by Adam Jones

  We have a User Defined Data Type of YesNo which has an which is an alias for char(1). The type has a bound Rule (must be Y or N) and a Default (N). The aim of this is that when any of the development team create a new field of type YesNo the rule and default are automatically bound to the new column. Rules and Defaults have been deprecated and won't be available in the next a future version of SQL Server, is there another way to achieve the same functionality? I should add that I'm aware that I could use CHECK and DEFAULT constraints to replicate the functionality of the bound Rule and Defalut objects, however these would have to be applied at each usage of the type, rather than getting the functionality 'for free' by using a UDT which has a bound Rule and Default. The post relates to a database that backs an existing application, rather than a new development, so I'm aware that our use of UDT's is less than optimal. I suspect the answer to the question is 'No', however normally when features are deprecated there's usually an alternative syntax that can be used as a drop in replacement so I wanted to pose the question in-case someone knew of an alternative.

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• DQL delete from multiple tables (doctrine)

  - by singer

  Need to perform DQL delete from multple related tables. In SQL it is something like this: DELETE r1,r2 FROM ComRealty_objects r1, com_realty_objects_phones r2 WHERE r1.id IN (10,20) AND r2.id_object IN (10,20) I need to perform this statement using DQL, but I'm stuck on this :( <?php $dql = Doctrine_Query::create() ->delete('phones, comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjects comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjectsPhones phones') ->whereIn("comrealtyobjects.id", $ids) ->whereIn("phones.id_object", $ids); echo($dql->getSqlQuery()); ?> But DQL parser gives me this result: DELETE FROM `com_realty_objects_phones`, `ComRealty_objects` WHERE (`id` IN (?) AND `id_object` IN (?)) Searching google and stack overflow I found this(useful) topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2247905/what-is-the-syntax-for-a-multi-table-delete-on-a-mysql-database-using-doctrine But this is not exactly my case - there was delete from single table. If there is a way to override dql parser behaviour? Or maybe some other way to delete records from multiple tables using doctrine. Note: If you are using doctrine behaviours(Doctrine_Record_Generator) you need first to initialize those tables using Doctrine_Core::initializeModels() to perform DQL operations on them.

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• database schema eligible for delta synchronization

  - by WilliamLou

  it's a question for discussion only. Right now, I need to re-design a mysql database table. Basically, this table contains all the contract records I synchronized from another database. The contract record can be modified, deleted or users can add new contract records via GUI interface. At this stage, the table structure is exactly the same as the Contract info (column: serial number, expiry date etc.). In that case, I can only synchronize the whole table (delete all old records, replace with new ones). If I want to delta(only synchronize with modified, new, deleted records) synchronize the table, how should I change the database schema? here is the method I come up with, but I need your suggestions because I think it's a common scenario in database applications. 1)introduce a sequence number concept/column: for each sequence, mark the new added records, modified records, deleted records with this sequence number. By recording the last synchronized sequence number, only pass those records with higher sequence number; 2) because deleted contracts can be added back, and the original table has primary key constraints, should I create another table for those deleted records? or add a flag column to indicate if this contract has been deleted? I hope I explain my question clearly. Anyway, if you know any articles or your own suggestions about this, please let me know. Thanks!

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• Convert UCS-2 characters to UTF-8 Using C#

  - by quanticle

  I'm pulling some internationalized text from a MS SQL Server 2005 database. As per the defaults for that DB, the characters are stored as UCS-2. However, I need to output the data in UTF-8 format, as I'm sending it out over the web. Currently, I have the following code to convert: SqlString dbString = resultReader.GetSqlString(0); byte[] dbBytes = dbString.GetUnicodeBytes(); byte[] utf8Bytes = System.Text.Encoding.Convert(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, dbBytes); System.Text.UTF8Encoding encoder = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(); string outputString = encoder.GetString(utf8Bytes); However, when I examine the output in the browser, it appears to be garbage, no matter what I set the encoding to. What am I missing? EDIT: In response to the answers below, the reason I thought I had to perform a conversion is because I can output literal multibyte strings just fine. For example: OutputControl.Text = "????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????"; works. Here, OutputControl is an ASP.Net Literal. However, OutputControl.Text = outputString; //Output from above snippet results in mangled output as described above. My hypothesis was that the database's output was somehow getting mangled by ASP.Net. If that's not the case, then what are some other possibilities?

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• Apache with JBOSS using AJP (mod_jk) giving spikes in thread count.

  - by Beginner

  We used Apache with JBOSS for hosting our Application, but we found some issues related to thread handling of mod_jk. Our website comes under low traffic websites and has maximum 200-300 concurrent users during our website's peak activity time. As the traffic grows (not in terms of concurrent users, but in terms of cumulative requests which came to our server), the server stopped serving requests for long, although it didn't crash but could not serve the request till 20 mins. The JBOSS server console showed that 350 thread were busy on both servers although there was enough free memory say, more than 1-1.5 GB (2 servers for JBOSS were used which were 64 bits, 4 GB RAM allocated for JBOSS) In order to check the problem we were using JBOSS and Apache Web Consoles, and we were seeing that the thread were showing in S state for as long as minutes although our pages take around 4-5 seconds to be served. We took the thread dump and found that the threads were mostly in WAITING state which means that they were waiting indefinitely. These threads were not of our Application Classes but of AJP 8009 port. Could somebody help me in this, as somebody else might also got this issue and solved it somehow. In case any more information is required then let me know. Also is mod_proxy better than using mod_jk, or there are some other problems with mod_proxy which can be fatal for me if I switch to mod__proxy? The versions I used are as follows: Apache 2.0.52 JBOSS: 4.2.2 MOD_JK: 1.2.20 JDK: 1.6 Operating System: RHEL 4 Thanks for the help.

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• How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

  - by Russ Hayward

  I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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• Prevent deferred creation of controls.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  Here is a test framework to show what I am doing, just create a new project add a tabbed control, on tab 1 put a button on tab 2 put a check box (default names) and paste this code for its code public partial class Form1 : Form { private List<bool> boolList = new List<bool>(); BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); boolList.Add(false); bs.DataSource = boolList; checkBox1.DataBindings.Add("Checked", bs, ""); } bool updating = false; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { updating = true; boolList[0] = true; bs.ResetBindings(false); Application.DoEvents(); updating = false; } private void checkBox1_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!updating) MessageBox.Show("CheckChanged fired outside of updating"); } } The issue is if you run the program and look at tab 2 then press the button on tab 1 the program works as expected, however if you press the button on tab 1 then look at tab 2 the event for the checkbox will not fire untill you look at tab 2. The reason for this is the controll on tab 2 is not in the "created" state, so its binding to change the checkbox from unchecked to checked does not happen until after the control has been "Created". checkbox1.CreateControl() does not do anything because according to MSDN CreateControl does not create a control handle if the control's Visible property is false. You can either call the CreateHandle method or access the Handle property to create the control's handle regardless of the control's visibility, but in this case, no window handles are created for the control's children. I tried getting the value of Handle(there is no CreateHandle for Button) but still the same result. Any suggestions other than have the program quickly flash all of my tabs that have data-bound check boxes when it first loads?

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• How to Store State in Silverlight WCF RIA Services

  - by peter

  Hi All, I am developing a silverlight 3 application using WCF RIA services. I am using the AuthenticationBase class to handle my authentication. As I understand it under the hood this uses the ASP .NET authentication libraries. When I log into the site the authentication service handles login state so that if I close the site and open it straight away I am still logged in according to the server. When the webpage is refreshed or closed and reloaded I can call the method, WebContextBase.Current.Authentication.LoadUser() And it goes back to the authentication service (running on the server) and figures out whether I am still logged into the site. If a timeout has occured the answer will be no. If that is the case I can show a login dialog. The problem I want to solve is that the authentication service consumes the password, and there is no way I can ever retrieve that password again. If the user logs into the site I want to store the password on the server, and return a token to the client side to match up with that password. I have some other services on the server side that need that password. So where should I store that password on the server? How can that be done? How does the WCF authentication store state?

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• What harm can javascript do?

  - by The King

  I just happen to read the joel's blog here... So for example if you have a web page that says “What is your name?” with an edit box and then submitting that page takes you to another page that says, Hello, Elmer! (assuming the user’s name is Elmer), well, that’s a security vulnerability, because the user could type in all kinds of weird HTML and JavaScript instead of “Elmer” and their weird JavaScript could do narsty things, and now those narsty things appear to come from you, so for example they can read cookies that you put there and forward them on to Dr. Evil’s evil site. Since javascript runs on client end. All it can access or do is only on the client end. It can read informations stored in hidden fields and change them. It can read, write or manipulate cookies... But I feel, these informations are anyway available to him. (if he is smart enough to pass javascript in a textbox. So we are not empowering him with new information or providing him undue access to our server... Just curious to know whether I miss something. Can you list the things that a malicious user can do with this security hole. Edit : Thanks to all for enlightening . As kizzx2 pointed out in one of the comments... I was overlooking the fact that a JavaScript written by User A may get executed in the browser of User B under numerous circumstances, in which case it becomes a great risk.

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• asp.net multiligual website culture settings

  - by Hemant Kothiyal

  Hi, In asp.net multilingual website in english Uk and swedish, i have three rsources file 1. en-GB.resx 2. sv-SE.resx 3. Culture neutral file. I have create one base class and all pages is inherited from that class. There i write following lines to set UICULTURE and culture 1. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture.Name; 2. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.Name; Question: Suppose my browser language is Swedish(sv-SE) then this code will run because it find CurrentUICulture and CurrentCulture values as sv-SE. Now if suppose browser language is Swedish(sv) only, in that case values will be set as CurrentUICulture = sv; and CurrentCulture = sv-SE Now the problem is that user can able to view all text in Culture neutral resource file that i kept as english while all decimal saperators, currency and other will be appear in swedish. It looks confusing to usr. What would be right approach. I am thinking following solution. Please correct me? 1. i can create extra resource file for sv also. 2. I check value of CurrentUICulture in base class and if it is sv then replace it with sv-SE Please correct me which one is right approach or Is there any other good way of doing?

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• Add double tap action (presentModalViewController) to UISCOLLVIEW

  - by R.J.

  I have been wrestling this issue for a while now and cannot seem to get the following "touchesEnded" method to execute within a UISCROLLVIEW. I have read on many of the forums that UISCROLLVIEW will take control of all touch events unless it is subclassed, but I cannot seem to get the code right (still new to the SDK). Basically I have a scrollview made uo with several UIIMAGEVIEW's and currenlty have scrolling with paging (much like the photo app). I have been studying the SCROLLING MADDNESS example without success. All I want to do is anywhere in the UISCROLLVIEW have the user double tap to presentModalViewController back to my info page (i.e.) (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSSet *allTouches = [event allTouches]; switch ([allTouches count]) { case 1: {// One finger touch UITouch *touch = [[allTouches allObjects] objectAtIndex:0]; if ([touch tapCount] == 2) {InfoButtonViewController *scroll = [[InfoButtonViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; scroll.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:scroll animated:YES]; [scroll release]; } } } } Any code assistance would be greatly appreciated. The UISCROLLVIEW is implemented as follows (let me know if I need to provide additional details). Thank you in advance... MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController { } @end

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• What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

  - by David M

  Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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• Trouble Shoot JavaScript Function in IE

  - by CreativeNotice

  So this function works fine in geko and webkit browsers, but not IE7. I've busted my brain trying to spot the issue. Anything stick out for you? Basic premise is you pass in a data object (in this case a response from jQuery's $.getJSON) we check for a response code, set the notification's class, append a layer and show it to the user. Then reverse the process after a time limit. function userNotice(data){ // change class based on error code returned var myClass = ''; if(data.code == 200){ myClass='success'; } else if(data.code == 400){ myClass='error'; } else{ myClass='notice'; } // create message html, add to DOM, FadeIn var myNotice = '<div id="notice" class="ajaxMsg '+myClass+'">'+data.msg+'</div>'; $("body").append(myNotice); $("#notice").fadeIn('fast'); // fadeout and remove from DOM after delay var t = setTimeout(function(){ $("#notice").fadeOut('slow',function(){ $(this).remove(); }); },5000); }

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• Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

  - by confused

  My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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• web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

  - by vdh_ant

  Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

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• How to use boost::bind with non-copyable params, for example boost::promise ?

  - by zhengxi

  Some C++ objects have no copy constructor, but have move constructor. For example, boost::promise. How can I bind those objects using their move constructors ? #include <boost/thread.hpp> void fullfil_1(boost::promise<int>& prom, int x) { prom.set_value(x); } boost::function<void()> get_functor() { // boost::promise is not copyable, but movable boost::promise<int> pi; // compilation error boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, pi, 1); // compilation error as well boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, std::move(pi), 1); // PS. I know, it is possible to bind a pointer to the object instead of // the object itself. But it is weird solution, in this case I will have // to take cake about lifetime of the object instead of delegating that to // boost::bind (by moving object into boost::function object) // // weird: pi will be destroyed on leaving the scope boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, boost::ref(pi), 1); return f_set_one; }

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