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• Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

  - by Andrey

  Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

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• Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

  - by zoul

  Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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• How do I run a command as a different user from a root cronjob?

  - by rob

  I seem to be stuck between an NFS limitation and a Cron limitation. So I've got root cron (on RHEL5) running a shell script that, among other things, needs to rsync some files over an NFS mount. And the files on the NFS mount are owned by the apache user with mode 700, so only the apache user can run the rsync command -- running as root yields a permission error (NFS being a rare case, apparently, where the root user is not all-powerful?) When I just want to run the rsync by hand, I can use "sudo -u apache rsync ..." But sudo no workie in cron -- it says "sudo: sorry, you must have a tty to run sudo". I don't want to run the whole script as apache (i.e. from apache's crontab) because other parts of the script do require root -- it's just that one command that needs to run as apache. And I would really prefer not to change the mode on the files, as that will involve significant changes to other applications. There's gotta be a way to accomplish "sudo -u apache" from cron?? thanks! rob

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• Reading a .dat file as "rb" read binary

  - by donpal

  I have a web-accessible php script that accesses a folder above the webroot (not web accessible) called \folder\. This is done via setting the path to \folder\ in .htaccess the usual way so that \folder\ becomes part of the project. \folder\ contains a .php script (communicates with the web-accessible script inside the webroot) some .inc files (used by the .php in the same folder, above the webroot) a dat file (used by the .inc in the same folder, above the webroot) All files are accessible to each other as needed: the web-accessible php inside the webroot can communicate with the php above the webroot the php above the webroot can communicate with the inc in the same folder But the inc above the webroot can't communicate with the dat in the same folder, and I have no idea why that's the case The inc myinc.inc is supposed to open the dat mydat.dat in the same folder like this fopen('mydat.dat', "rb"); but I get an error that no file called mydat.dat exists inside \folder\myinc.inc. Of course it does not, the .dat is sibling to .inc and is not supposed to be inside it. Why is php expecting to find the .dat file inside the .inc. The stranger thing is that if I move the .dat in the web-accessible folder, it becomes readable now. Any ideas why php is trying to find the .dat inside the .inc?

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• How to insert an Array/Objet into SQL (bestpractice)

  - by Jason

  I need to store three items as an array in a single column and be able to quickly/easily modify that data in later functions. [---YOU CAN SKIP THIS PART IF YOU TRUST ME--] To be clear, I love and use x_ref tables all the time but an x_ref doesn't work here because this is not a one-to-many relationship. I am making a project management tool that among other things, assigns a user to a project and assigns hours to that project on a weekly basis, per user, sometimes for weeks many weeks into the future. Of course there are many projects, a project can have many team members, a team member can be involved with many projects at one time BUT its not one-to-many because a team member can be working many weeks on the same project but have different hours for different weeks. In other words, each object really is unique. Also/finally, this data can be changed at any time by any team-member - hence it needs to be easily to manipulate. Basically, I need to handle three values (the team member, the week we're talking about, and how many hours) dropped into a project row in the projects table (under the column for project team members) and treated as one item - a team member - that will actually be part of a larger array of all the team members involved on the project. [--END SKIP, START READING HERE :) --] So assuming that the application's general schema and relation tables aren't total crap and that we are in fact up against a wall in this one case to use an array/object as a value for this column, is there a best practice for that? Like a particular SQL data-type? A particular object/array format? CSV? JSON? XML? Most of the app is in C# but (for very odd reasons that I won't explain) we could really use any environment if there is a particular one that handles this well. For the moment, I am thinking either (webservice + JS/JSON) or PHP unserialize/serialize (but I am bit sketched out by the PHP solution because it seems a bit cumbersome when using ajax?) Thoughts anyone?

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• PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

  - by Steven Schlansker

  I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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• Parsing basic math equations for children's educational software?

  - by Simucal

  Inspired by a recent TED talk, I want to write a small piece of educational software. The researcher created little miniature computers in the shape of blocks called "Siftables". [David Merril, inventor - with Siftables in the background.] There were many applications he used the blocks in but my favorite was when each block was a number or basic operation symbol. You could then re-arrange the blocks of numbers or operation symbols in a line, and it would display an answer on another siftable block. So, I've decided I wanted to implemented a software version of "Math Siftables" on a limited scale as my final project for a CS course I'm taking. What is the generally accepted way for parsing and interpreting a string of math expressions, and if they are valid, perform the operation? Is this a case where I should implement a full parser/lexer? I would imagine interpreting basic math expressions would be a semi-common problem in computer science so I'm looking for the right way to approach this. For example, if my Math Siftable blocks where arranged like: [1] [+] [2] This would be a valid sequence and I would perform the necessary operation to arrive at "3". However, if the child were to drag several operation blocks together such as: [2] [\] [\] [5] It would obviously be invalid. Ultimately, I want to be able to parse and interpret any number of chains of operations with the blocks that the user can drag together. Can anyone explain to me or point me to resources for parsing basic math expressions? I'd prefer as much of a language agnostic answer as possible.

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• Navigating to nodes using xpath in flat structure

  - by James Berry

  I have an xml file in a flat structure. We do not control the format of this xml file, just have to deal with it. I've renamed the fields because they are highly domain specific and don't really make any difference to the problem. <attribute name="Title">Book A</attribute> <attribute name="Code">1</attribute> <attribute name="Author"> <value>James Berry</value> <value>John Smith</value> </attribute> <attribute name="Title">Book B</attribute> <attribute name="Code">2</attribute> <attribute name="Title">Book C</attribute> <attribute name="Code">3</attribute> <attribute name="Author"> <value>James Berry</value> </attribute> Key things to note: the file is not particularly hierarchical. Books are delimited by an occurance of an attribute element with name='Title'. But the name='Author' attribute node is optional. Is there a simple xpath statement I can use to find the authors of book 'n'? It is easy to identify the title of book 'n', but the authors value is optional. And you can't just take the following author because in the case of book 2, this would give the author for book 3. I have written a state machine to parse this as a series of elements, but I can't help thinking there would have been a way to directly get the results that I want.

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• asp.net multiligual website culture settings

  - by Hemant Kothiyal

  Hi, In asp.net multilingual website in english Uk and swedish, i have three rsources file 1. en-GB.resx 2. sv-SE.resx 3. Culture neutral file. I have create one base class and all pages is inherited from that class. There i write following lines to set UICULTURE and culture 1. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture.Name; 2. Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.Name; Question: Suppose my browser language is Swedish(sv-SE) then this code will run because it find CurrentUICulture and CurrentCulture values as sv-SE. Now if suppose browser language is Swedish(sv) only, in that case values will be set as CurrentUICulture = sv; and CurrentCulture = sv-SE Now the problem is that user can able to view all text in Culture neutral resource file that i kept as english while all decimal saperators, currency and other will be appear in swedish. It looks confusing to usr. What would be right approach. I am thinking following solution. Please correct me? 1. i can create extra resource file for sv also. 2. I check value of CurrentUICulture in base class and if it is sv then replace it with sv-SE Please correct me which one is right approach or Is there any other good way of doing?

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• How to prevent Hibernate from nullifying relationship column during entity removal

  - by Grzegorz

  I have two entities, A and B. I need to easily retrieve entities A, joined with entities B on the condition of equal values of some column (some column from A equal to some column in B). Those columns are not primary or foreign keys, they contain same business data. I just need to have access from each instance of A to the collection of B's with the same value of this column. So I model it like this: class A { @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name="column_in_B", referencedColumnName="column_in_A") Collection<B> bs; This way, I can run queries like "select A join fetch a.bs b where b...." (Actually, the real relationship here is many-to-many. But when I use @ManyToMany, Hibernate forces me to use join table, which doesnt exist here. So I have to use @OneToMany as workaround). So far so good. The main problem is: whenever I delete an instance of A, hibernate calls "Update B set column_in_B = null", becuase it thinks the column_in_B is foreign key pointing at primary key in A (and because row in A is deleted, it tries to clean the foreign key in B). BUT the column_in_B IS NOT a foreign key, and can't be modified, because it causes data lost (and this column is NOT NULL anyway in my case, causing data integerity exception to be thrown). Plese help me with this. How to model such relationships with Hibernate? (I would call it "virtual relationships", or "secondary relationships" or so: as they are not based on foreign keys, they are just some shortcuts which allows for retrieving related objects and quering for them with HQL)

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• Converting non-delimited text into name/value pairs in Delphi

  - by robsoft

  I've got a text file that arrives at my application as many lines of the following form: <row amount="192.00" store="10" transaction_date="2009-10-22T12:08:49.640" comp_name="blah " comp_ref="C65551253E7A4589A54D7CCD468D8AFA" name="Accrington "/> and I'd like to turn this 'row' into a series of name/value pairs in a given TStringList (there could be dozens of these <row>s in the file, so eventually I will want to iterate through the file breaking each row into name/value pairs in turn). The problem I've got is that the data isn't obviously delimited (technically, I suppose it's space delimited). Now if it wasn't for the fact that some of the values contain leading or trailing spaces, I could probably make a few reasonable assumptions and code something to break a row up based on spaces. But as the values themselves may or may not contain spaces, I don't see an obvious way to do this. Delphi' TStringList.CommaText doesn't help, and I've tried playing around with Delimiter but I get caught-out by the spaces inside the values each time. Does anyone have a clever Delphi technique for turning the sample above into something resembling this? ; amount="192.00" store="10" transaction_date="2009-10-22T12:08:49.640" comp_name="blah " comp_ref="C65551253E7A4589A54D7CCD468D8AFA" name="Accrington " Unfortunately, as is usually the case with this kind of thing, I don't have any control over the format of the data to begin with - I can't go back and 'make' it comma delimited at source, for instance. Although I guess I could probably write some code to turn it into comma delimited - would rather find a nice way to work with what I have though. This would be in Delphi 2007, if it makes any difference.

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• Dispatch request to an Async Servlet from managed bean generate exception

  - by Thang Pham

  when a button click, I need to have stuff running in my background, so I have a async Servlet. From my managed bean, if I do redirect, it works great (meaning that it execute my run() method inside my class that extends Runnable correctly). Like this String url = externalContext.getRequestContextPath() + "/ReportExecutionServlet"; externalContext.redirect(url); But if I switch to dispatch, like this externalContext.redirect("/ReportExecutionServlet"); it fail when I try to obtain the AsyncContext AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); The error is below Caused By: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The async-support is disabled on this request: weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl Any idea how to fix this please? NOTE: This is how to execute my async servlet, just in case: AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); //delegate long running process to an "async" thread aCtx.addListener(new AsyncListener() { @Override public void onComplete(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onComplete"); } @Override public void onTimeout(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.WARNING, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onTimeout"); } @Override public void onError(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onError"); } @Override public void onStartAsync(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onStartAsync"); } }); // Start another service ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor executor = new ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor(10); executor.execute(new AsyncRequestReportProcessor(aCtx));

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• Problem with GWT behind a reverse proxy - either nginx or apache

  - by Don Branson

  I'm having this problem with GWT when it's behind a reverse proxy. The backend app is deployed within a context - let's call it /context. The GWT app works fine when I hit it directly: http://host:8080/context/ I can configure a reverse proxy in front it it. Here's my nginx example: upstream backend { server 127.0.0.1:8080; } ... location / { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } But, when I run through the reverse proxy, GWT gets confused, saying: 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy 'C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy '0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. In other words, GWT isn't getting the word that it needs to prepend /context/ hen look for C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc, but only when the request comes throught proxy. A workaround is to add the context to the url for the web site: location /context/ { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } but that means the context is now part of the url that the user sees, and that's ugly. Anybody know how to make GWT happy in this case? Software versions: GWT - 1.7.0 (same problem with 1.7.1) Jetty - 6.1.21 (but the same problem existed under tomcat) nginx - 0.7.62 (same problem under apache 2.x) I've looked at the traffic between the proxy and the backend using DonsProxy, but there's nothing noteworthy there.

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• EAGLContext, EAGLSharegroups, RenderBuffers, FrameBuffers, oh my!

  - by quixoto

  Hi all, I'm trying to wrap my head around the OpenGL object model on iPhone OS. I'm currently rendering into a few different UIViews (build on CAEAGLayers) on the screen. I currently have each of these as using separate EAGLContext, each of which has a color renderbuffer and a framebuffer. I'm rendering similar things in them, and I'd like to share textures between these instances to save memory overhead. My current understanding is that I could use the same setup (some number of contexts, each with a FBO/RBO) but if I spawn the later ones using the EAGLShareGroup of the first one, then I can simply use the texture names (GLuints) from the first one in the later ones. Is this accurate? If this is the case, I guess the followup question is: what's the benefit to having it be a "sharegroup"? Could I just reuse the same context, and attach multiple FBOs/RBOs to that context? I think I'm struggling with the abstraction layer of a sharegroup, which seems to share "objects" (textures and other named things) but not "state" (matrices, enabled/disabled states) which are owned by the context. What's the best way to think of this? Thanks for any enlightenment!

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• How to fix codesign when it says user cancelled the operation? (And I didn't)

  - by eipipuz

  I'm compiling an iPhone app meant to be Distributed. It's my first app so I followed the "iPhone Provisioning Profiles" instructions. Unfortunately it fails with this: CodeSign build/*_*_.app cd "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_" setenv IGNORE_CODESIGN_ALLOCATE_RADAR_7181968 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin/codesign_allocate setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: ******" "--resource-rules=/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app/ResourceRules.plist" --entitlements "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent" "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app" /Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app: The operation was cancelled by the user. Command /usr/bin/codesign failed with exit code 1 I thought Keychain wasn't allowing Codesign to work but as far as I can tell that isn't the case. I also attempted running these commands from a terminal and it failed with this message: Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent: cannot read entitlement data I have made the xcode setting from scratch three times. Googled it. No results. I don't have any idea what else to try. Any suggestions?

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• Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

  - by d.

  Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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• Reformat SQLGeography polygons to JSON

  - by James

  I am building a web service that serves geographic boundary data in JSON format. The geographic data is stored in an SQL Server 2008 R2 database using the geography type in a table. I use [ColumnName].ToString() method to return the polygon data as text. Example output: POLYGON ((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666)) MULTIPOLYGON (((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627 0 0, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666 0 0))) Geographic definitions can take the form of either an array of lat/long pairs defining a polygon or in the case of multiple definitions, an array or polygons (multipolygon). I have the following regex that converts the output to JSON objects contained in multi-dimensional arrays depending on the output. Regex latlngMatch = new Regex(@"(-?[0-9]{1}\.\d*)\s(\d{2}.\d*)(?:\s0\s0,?)?", RegexOptions.Compiled); private string ConvertPolysToJson(string polysIn) { return this.latlngMatch.Replace(polysIn.Remove(0, polysIn.IndexOf("(")) // remove POLYGON or MULTIPOLYGON .Replace("(", "[") // convert to JSON array syntax .Replace(")", "]"), // same as above "{lng:$1,lat:$2},"); // reformat lat/lng pairs to JSON objects } This is actually working pretty well and converts the DB output to JSON on the fly in response to an operation call. However I am no regex master and the calls to String.Replace() also seem inefficient to me. Does anyone have any suggestions/comments about performance of this?

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• Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

  - by Matt Davis

  I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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• How does browser know when to prompt user to save password?

  - by Eric

  This is related to the question I asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2382329/how-can-i-get-browser-to-prompt-to-save-password This is the problem: I CAN'T get my browser to prompt me to save the password for the site I'm developing. (I'm talking about the bar that appears sometimes when you submit a form on Firefox, that says "Remember the password for yoursite.com? Yes / Not now / Never") This is super frustrating because this feature of Firefox (and most other modern browsers, which I hope work in a similar fashion) seems to be a mystery. It's like a magic trick the browser does, where it looks at your code, or what you submit, or something, and if it "looks" like a login form with a username (or email address) field and a password field, it offers to save. Except in this case, where it's not offering my users that option after they use my login form, and it's making me nuts. :-) (I checked my Firefox settings-- I have NOT told the browser "never" for this site. It should be prompting.) My question: exactly what the heuristics are that Firefox (or any other modern browser) uses to know when it should prompt the user to save? This shouldn't be too difficult to answer, since it's right there in the Mozilla source (I don't know where to look or else I'd try to dig it out myself). You'd think there would be a blog post or some other similar developer note from the Mozilla developers about this but I can't find that either. (* Note that if your answer to me has anything to do with cookies, encryption or anything else that is about how I'm storing the user's passwords in the database, you've probably misread my question. :-)

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• RESTful design, how to name pages outside CRUD et al?

  - by sscirrus

  Hi all, I'm working on a site that has quite a few pages that fall outside my limited understanding of RESTful design, which is essentially: Create, Read, Update, Delete, Show, List Here's the question: what is a good system for labeling actions/routes when a page doesn't neatly fall into CRUD/show/list? Some of my pages have info about multiple tables at once. I am building a site that gives some customers a 'home base' after they log on. It does NOT give them any information about themselves so it shouldn't be, for example, /customers/show/1. It does have information about companies, but there are other pages on the site that do that differently. What do you do when you have these situations? This 'home-base' is shown to customers and it mainly has info about companies (but not uniquely so). Second case: I have a table called 'Matchings' in between customers and companies. These matchings are accessed in completely different ways on different parts of the site (different layouts, different CSS sheets, different types of users accessing them, etc. They can't ALL be matchings/show. What's the best way to label the others? Thanks very much. =)

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• Why does my call to Activator.CreateInstance intermittently fail?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I'm using the following code to access the Windows Explorer Shell's band site service: Guid GUID_TrayBandSiteService = new Guid(0xF60AD0A0, 0xE5E1, 0x45cb, 0xB5, 0x1A, 0xE1, 0x5B, 0x9F, 0x8B, 0x29, 0x34); Type shellTrayBandSiteService = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(GUID_TrayBandSiteService, true); site = Activator.CreateInstance(shellTrayBandSiteService) as IBandSite; Mostly, it works great. A very small percentage of the time (less than 1%), the call to Activator.CreateInstance throws the following exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80040154): Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {F60AD0A0-E5E1-45CB-B51A-E15B9F8B2934} failed due to the following error: 80040154. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandle& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean fillCache) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceImpl(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean fillCache) at System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) I've looked up the error code, and it appears to indicate that the service isn't registered. That's nonsense in my case, since I'm trying to access a service provided by the operating system (explorer.exe, to be specific). I'm stumped. What might cause Activator.CreateInstance fail, but only rarely?

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• Number of ways to place kings on chess board

  - by Rakesh

  You have an N x N chessboard and you wish to place N kings on it. Each row and column should contain exactly one king, and no two kings should attack each other (two kings attack each other if they are present in squares which share a corner). The kings in the first K rows of the board have already been placed. You are given the positions of these kings as an array pos[ ]. pos[i] is the column in which the king in the ith row has already been placed. All indices are 0-indexed. In how many ways can the remaining kings be placed? Input: The first line contains the number of test cases T. T test cases follow. Each test case contains N and K on the first line, followed by a line having K integers, denoting the array pos[ ] as described above. Output: Output the number of ways to place kings in the remaining rows satisfying the above conditions. Output all numbers modulo 1000000007. Constraints: 1 <= T <= 20 1 <= N <= 16 0 <= K <= N 0 <= pos_i < N The kings specified in the input will be in different columns and not attack each other. Sample Input: 5 4 1 2 3 0 5 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 0 2 6 1 2 Sample Output: 1 0 2 1 18 Explanation: For the first example, there is a king already placed at row 0 and column 2. The king in the second row must belong to column 0. The king in the third row must belong to column 3, and the last king must beong to column 1. Thus there is only 1 valid placement. For the second example, there is no valid placement. How should i approach this problem

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• DAL Layer : EF 4.0 or Normal Data access layer with Stored Procedure

  - by Harryboy

  Hello Experts, Application : I am working on one mid-large size application which will be used as a product, we need to decide on our DAL layer. Application UI is in Silverlight and DAL layer is going to be behind service layer. We are also moving ahead with domain model, so our DB tables and domain classes are not having same structure. So patterns like Data Mapper and Repository will definitely come into picture. I need to design DAL Layer considering below mentioned factors in priority manner Speed of Development with above average performance Maintenance Future support and stability of the technology Performance Limitation : 1) As we need to strictly go ahead with microsoft, we can not use NHibernate or any other ORM except EF 4.0 2) We can use any code generation tool (Should be Open source or very cheap) but it should only generate code in .Net, so there would not be any licensing issue on per copy basis. Questions I read so many articles about EF 4.0, on outset it looks like that it is still lacking in features from NHibernate but it is considerably better then EF 1.0 So, Do you people feel that we should go ahead with EF 4.0 or we should stick to ADO .Net and use any code geneartion tool like code smith or any other you feel best Also i need to answer questions like what time it will take to port application from EF 4.0 to ADO .Net if in future we stuck up with EF 4.0 for some features or we are having serious performance issue. In reverse case if we go ahead and choose ADO .Net then what time it will take to swith to EF 4.0 Lastly..as i was going through the article i found the code only approach (with POCO classes) seems to be best suited for our requirement as switching is really easy from one technology to other. Please share your thoughts on the same and please guide on the above questions

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• Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

  - by BS_C3

  Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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• Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

  - by user304361

  I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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