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  • if statement inside array : codeigniter

    - by ahmad
    Hello , I have this function to edit all fields that come from the form and its works fine .. function editRow($tableName,$id) { $fieldsData = $this->db->field_data($tableName); $data = array(); foreach ($fieldsData as $key => $field) { $data[ $field->name ] = $this->input->post($field->name); } $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update($tableName, $data); } now I want to add a condition for Password field , if the field is empty keep the old password , I did some thing like that : function editRow($tableName,$id) { $fieldsData = $this->db->field_data($tableName); $data = array(); foreach ($fieldsData as $key => $field) { if ($data[ $field->name ] == 'password' && $this->input->post('password') == '' ) { $data[ 'password' ] => $this->input->post('hide_password'), //'password' => $this->input->post('hide_password'), } else { $data[ $field->name ] => $this->input->post($field->name) } } $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update($tableName, $data); } but I get error ( Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_DOUBLE_ARROW in ... ) Html , some thing like this : <input type="text" name="password" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="hide_password" value="$row->$password" /> umm , any help ? thanks ..

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  • What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

    - by int3
    I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

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  • How do I cast from int to generic type Integer?

    - by Rob Kent
    I'm relatively new to Java and am used to generics in C# so have struggled a bit with this code. Basically I want a generic method for getting a stored Android preference by key and this code, albeit ugly, works for a Boolean but not an Integer, when it blows up with a ClassCastException. Can anyone tell me why this is wrong and maybe help me improve the whole routine (using wildcards?)? public static <T> T getPreference(Class<T> argType, String prefKey, T defaultValue, SharedPreferences sharedPreferences) { ... try { if (argType == Boolean.class) { Boolean def = (Boolean) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getBoolean(prefKey, def)); } else if (argType == Integer.class) { Integer def = (Integer) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getInt(prefKey, def)); } else { AppGlobal.logWarning("getPreference: Unknown type '%s' for preference '%s'. Returning default value.", argType.getName(), prefKey); return defaultValue; } } catch (ClassCastException e) { AppGlobal.logError("Cast exception when reading pref %s. Using default value.", prefKey); return defaultValue; } } I've tried various ways - using the native int, casting to an Integer, but nothing works.

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  • How can I initialize an ActiveX control from a URL?

    - by Peter Ruderman
    I have an MFC ActiveX control embedded in a web page. Some of the parameters for this control are very large. I don't know what these values will be at compile time, but I do know that once retrieved, they will almost certainly never change. Currently, I embed the parameters like so: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="<%= GetData() %>" /> </object> I want to do something like this: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="content/data" valuetype="ref" /> </object> The idea is that the browser would retrieve the resource from the web server and pass it on to the control. The browser's own caching would then take care of the unneccesary downloads. Unfortunately, ref parameters don't work like this. The browser just passes the url along to the control (which strikes me as utterly useless, but I digress). So, is there some way I can make this work? Alternatively, is there an easy way in MFC to instruct the control's host container to retrieve a URI identified resource? Any better ideas?

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  • While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

    - by Mahn
    I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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  • Faster Javascript text replace

    - by Stacey
    Given the following javascript (jquery) $("#username").keyup(function () { selected.username = $("#username").val(); var url = selected.protocol + (selected.prepend == true ? selected.username : selected.url) + "/" + (selected.prepend == true ? selected.url : selected.username); $("#identifier").val(url); }); This code basically reads a textbox (username), and when it is typed into, it reconstructs the url that is being displayed in another textbox (identifier). This works fine - there are no problems with its functionality. However it feels 'slow' and 'sluggish'. Is there a cleaner/faster way to accomplish this task? Here is the HTML as requested. <fieldset class="identifier delta"> <form action="/authenticate/openid" method="post" target="_top" > <input type="text" class="openid" id="identifier" name="identifier" readonly="readonly" /> <input type='text' id='username' name='username' class="left" style='display: none;'/> <input type="submit" value="Login" style="height: 32px; padding-top: 1px; margin-right: 0px;" class="login right" /> </form> </fieldset> The identifier textbox just has a value set based on the hyperlink anchor of a button.

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  • If either one of both equals

    - by user1620028
    I have start and end dates which are stored in a database in this format: start date= 20121004 //4th October 2012 end date= 20121004 //16th November 2012 so I can use date format: $date = date("Ymd"); // returns: 20121004 to determine when to display and not display to repopulate my update input boxes I use: $start=(str_split($stdate,4));// START DATE: splits stored date into 2x4 ie: 20121209 = 2012 1209 $syr = $start[0];// re first half ie: 2012 which is the year $start2 = $start[1];//re second half ie: 1209 $start3=(str_split($start2,2));// splits second half date into 2x2 ie: 1209 = 12 09 $smth = $start3[0]; // first half = month ie: 12 $sday = $start3[1]; // second half = day ie: 09 $expiry=(str_split($exdate,4)); ///SAME AGAIN FOR EXPIRY DATE ... $xyr = $expiry[0]; $expiry2 = $expiry[1]; $expiry3=(str_split($expiry2,2)); $xmth = $expiry3[0]; $xday = $expiry3[1]; which works fine but I need to repopulate the input boxes for the month showing the date in the database like this <option value="01">January</option`> using if ($smth==01):$month='January'; endif; if ($xmth==01):$month='January'; endif; // if the start and/or expiry month number = 01 display $month as January if ($smth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($xmth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($smth==03):$month='March'; endif; <select name="stmonth" class="input"> <option value="<?=$smth?>"><?=$month?></option> ... </select> is there an easier way to display IF EITHER ONE EQUALS rather than having to write the same line twice once for each $smth AND $xmth ? re: if ($smth **and or** $xmth ==01):$month='January'; endif;

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  • Write out to text file using T-SQL

    - by sasfrog
    I am creating a basic data transfer task using TSQL where I am retrieving certain records from one database that are more recent than a given datetime value, and loading them into another database. This will happen periodically throughout the day. It's such a small task that SSIS seems like overkill - I want to just use a scheduled task which runs a .sql file. Where I need guidance is that I need to persist the datetime from the last run of this task, then use this to filter the records next time the task runs. My initial thought is to just store the datetime in a text file, and update (overwrite) it as part of the task each time it runs. I can read the file in without problems using T-SQL, but writing back out has got me stuck. I've seen plenty of examples which make use of a dynamically-built bcp command, which is then executed using xp_cmdshell. Trouble is, security on the server I'm deploying to precludes the use of xp_cmdshell. So, my question is, are there other ways to simply write a datetime value to a file using TSQL, or should I be thinking about a different approach? EDIT: happy to be corrected about SSIS being "overkill"...

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  • In Gtk#, why might VALID_ITER fail even after I check it with IterIsValid?

    - by Matthew
    I have a convenience function in my TreeView that looks something like this: Card GetCardFromPath (TreePath path) { TreeIter iter; if (path == null || !Model.GetIter (out iter, path)) return null; if ((Model as TreeModelSort).IterIsValid (iter)) return (Card) Model.GetValue (iter, 0); return null; } Most of the time this works without any errors. But when it is called directly after the Model is changed, line 8 gives me these Gtk runtime errors: [Fatal 16:53:02.448] [Gtk] gtk_list_store_get_value: assertion `VALID_ITER (iter, list_store)' failed [Fatal 16:53:02.449] [GLib-GObject] g_value_unset: assertion `G_IS_VALUE (value)' failed As far as I can tell, I shouldn't even need to check IterIsValid, because I'm already checking the return value of Model.GetIter. Even so, how can VALID_ITER fail in a function that only gets called if IterIsValid returns true? If it makes a difference, the Model is a TreeModelSort, which sorts a TreeModelFilter, which filters a ListStore. The error occurs when GetCardFromPath is called from HandleSelectionChanged when multiple rows have just been removed from the ListStore. It doesn't seem to prevent anything from working properly, but having a cascade of errors whenever I remove multiple rows isn't really ideal.

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  • Modify php shopping cart to support multiple drop down menus

    - by Thomas
    I have a shopping cart script that I am trying to modify to support multiple product selection. As it is now, the customer can select a product from a single drop down menu. Now, I would like to add multiple dropdown menus (all populated with the same options). Here is the php that outputs the dropdown menu: if($eshopoptions['options_num']>1){ $opt=$eshopoptions['options_num']; $replace.="\n".'<label for="eopt'.$theid.'"><select id="eopt'.$theid.'" name="option">'; for($i=1;$i<=$opt;$i++){ $option=$eshop_product['products'][$i]['option']; $price=$eshop_product['products'][$i]['price']; if($option!=''){ if($price!='0.00') $replace.='<option value="'.$i.'">'.stripslashes(esc_attr($option)).' @ '.sprintf( _c('%1$s%2$s|1-currency symbol 2-amount','eshop'), $currsymbol, number_format($price,2)).'</option>'."\n"; else $replace.='<option value="'.$i.'">'.stripslashes(esc_attr($option)).'</option>'."\n"; } } Is there some really simple way of getting the code to output the menu say 3 times instead of once?

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  • Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

    - by Rob
    Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

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  • help to reiterate through my jquery snippet

    - by s2xi
    Code in question: $("#alpha").click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $("#show").slideToggle(); }); I have a list of files and its being outputted with PHP in alphabetical. I use this method in PHP: foreach(range('A','Z') as $i) { if (array_key_exists ("$i", $alpha)) { echo '<div id="alpha"><a href="#" name="'.$i.'"><h2>'.$i.'</h2></a></div><div id="show">'; foreach ($$i as $key=>$value) echo '<p>'.$value.' '.$key.'</p>'; } echo '</div>'; } What I want to do is when the user clicks on the #alpha to toggle the div #show that has the names that belong to a letter up. I can do this with the first listing, but every listing after that isn't affected. how can i tell jquery that foreach letter apply the js code so it can toggle up/down the #show. I don't want to this 26 times (one time for each letter in the alphabet), I tried to use class instead of id but that causes all the #show to toggleup heh.

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  • Memory Management with returning char* function

    - by RageD
    Hello all, Today, without much thought, I wrote a simple function return to a char* based on a switch statement of given enum values. This, however, made me wonder how I could release that memory. What I did was something like this: char* func() { char* retval = new char; // Switch blah blah - will always return some value other than NULL since default: return retval; } I apologize if this is a naive question, but what is the best way to release the memory seeing as I cannot delete the memory after the return and, obviously, if I delete it before, I won't have a returned value. What I was thinking as a viable solution was something like this void func(char*& in) { // blah blah switch make it do something } int main() { char* val = new char; func(val); // Do whatever with func (normally func within a data structure with specific enum set so could run multiple times to change output) val = NULL; delete val; val = NULL; return 0; } Would anyone have anymore insight on this and/or explanation on which to use? Regards, Dennis M.

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  • How to select a single object using Linq in vb.net

    - by Hucker
    I have done a lot of searching to what appears to be a simple LINQ problem but I can't figure out how to do grab an object out of a collection that has a specified minimum (or max value) without resorting to a sort like this: > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Order By c.age Ascending).ToList.First This (untested code) structure works fine with the exception that the entire customer array must be sorted and placed into a list for the only purpose of extracting the first value. That can't be the best way to get the minimum! Note that I want the whole c record in this case, not the minumum age of a customer that can be done like this (a typical example): > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c.age).Min Or even > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c).Min(Function(x) x.age) I can't for the life of me figure out how to get the whole object (or even the index) without resorting to the sort...

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  • C++ STL question related to insert iterators and sets

    - by rshepherd
    #include #include #include #include using namespace std; class MyContainer { public: string value; MyContainer& operator=(const string& s) { this->value = s; return *this; } }; int main() { list<string> strings; strings.push_back("0"); strings.push_back("1"); strings.push_back("2"); set<MyContainer> containers; copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), inserter(containers, containers.end())); } The preceeding code does not compile. In typical STL style the error output is verbose and difficult to understand. The key part seems to be this... /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_algobase.h:313: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘__result.std::insert_iterator::operator* [with _Container = std::set, std::allocator ]() = __first.std::_List_iterator::operator* [with _Tp = std::basic_string, std::allocator ]()’ ...which I interpet to mean that the assignment operator needed is not defined. I took a look at the source code for insert_iterator and noted that it has overloaded the assignment operator. The copy algorithm must uses the insert iterators overloaded assignment operator to do its work(?). I guess that because my input iterator is on a container of strings and my output iterator is on a container of MyContainers that the overloaded insert_iterator assignment operator can no longer work. This is my best guess, but I am probably wrong. So, why exactly does this not work and how can I accomplish what I am trying to do?

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  • C++ STL question related to insert iterators and overloaded operators

    - by rshepherd
    #include <list> #include <set> #include <iterator> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; class MyContainer { public: string value; MyContainer& operator=(const string& s) { this->value = s; return *this; } }; int main() { list<string> strings; strings.push_back("0"); strings.push_back("1"); strings.push_back("2"); set<MyContainer> containers; copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), inserter(containers, containers.end())); } The preceeding code does not compile. In standard C++ fashion the error output is verbose and difficult to understand. The key part seems to be this... /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_algobase.h:313: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘__result.std::insert_iterator::operator* [with _Container = std::set, std::allocator ]() = __first.std::_List_iterator::operator* [with _Tp = std::basic_string, std::allocator ]()’ ...which I interpet to mean that the assignment operator needed is not defined. I took a look at the source code for insert_iterator and noted that it has overloaded the assignment operator. The copy algorithm must uses the insert iterators overloaded assignment operator to do its work(?). I guess that because my input iterator is on a container of strings and my output iterator is on a container of MyContainers that the overloaded insert_iterator assignment operator can no longer work. This is my best guess, but I am probably wrong. So, why exactly does this not work and how can I accomplish what I am trying to do?

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  • Get control in code from ControlTemplate By Name

    - by Polaris
    Hello. I have next control template in my WPF app. <Style TargetType="Label" x:Key="LabelStyle"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Label"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="40"/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBox x:Name="MyTextBlock" Text="{TemplateBinding Content}" Height="20" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <Label Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> TextBox "MyTextBlock" is invisible in C# code of window. How can I access to this textblock in code

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  • Passing the Class<T> in java of a generic list?

    - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett
    I have a method for reading JSON from a service, I'm using Gson to do my serialization and have written the following method using type parameters. public T getDeserializedJSON(Class<T> aClass,String url) { Reader r = getJSONDataAsReader(url); Gson gson = new Gson(); return gson.fromJson(r, aClass); } I'm consuming json which returns just an array of a type e.g. [ { "prop":"value" } { "prop":"value" } ] I have a java class which maps to this object let's call it MyClass. However to use my method I need to do this: RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>> restClient = new RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>>(); ArrayList<MyClass> results = restClient.getDeserializedJSON(ArrayList<MyClass>.class, url); However, I can't figure out the syntax to do it. Passing just ArrayList.class doesn't work. So is there a way I can get rid of the Class parameter or how do I get the class of the ArrayList of MyClass?

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  • Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

    - by user328543
    One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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  • Multiple forms + HAML + jQuery + Javascript submit

    - by Jay Godse
    Hi. I have a HAML page that lists some links to delete "things" that looks like this %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 1 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_1', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'1'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 22 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_22', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'22'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} The intention is to have a link "Delete XX" which will delete something specific. A page could have a number of these links, and each link is for a specific "thing". I also have a piece of (unobtrusive) jQuery javascript that adds a click handler to each form as follows: $('a.form_submit').click(function(event) { $('form').submit(); event.preventDefauilt(); }); This works when there is one form on a page. However, if I have more than one form on a page, how do I ensure that clicking "Delete Thing 1" will trigger a submit() event only on the form with id='comment_1'?

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  • A better solution than element.Elements("Whatever").First()?

    - by codeka
    I have an XML file like this: <SiteConfig> <Sites> <Site Identifier="a" /> <Site Identifier="b" /> <Site Identifier="c" /> </Sites> </SiteConfig> The file is user-editable, so I want to provide reasonable error message in case I can't properly parse it. I could probably write a .xsd for it, but that seems kind of overkill for a simple file. So anyway, when querying for the list of <Site> nodes, there's a couple of ways I could do it: var doc = XDocument.Load(...); var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Element("SiteConfig").Element("SiteUrls").Elements("Sites") select siteNode; But the problem with this is that if the user has not included the <SiteUrls> node (say) it'll just throw a NullReferenceException which doesn't really say much to the user about what actually went wrong. Another possibility is just to use Elements() everywhere instead of Element(), but that doesn't always work out when coupled with calls to Attribute(), for example, in the following situation: var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Elements("SiteConfig") .Elements("SiteUrls") .Elements("Sites") where siteNode.Attribute("Identifier").Value == "a" select siteNode; (That is, there's no equivalent to Attributes("xxx").Value) Is there something built-in to the framework to handle this situation a little better? What I would prefer is a version of Element() (and of Attribute() while we're at it) that throws a descriptive exception (e.g. "Looking for element <xyz> under <abc> but no such element was found") instead of returning null. I could write my own version of Element() and Attribute() but it just seems to me like this is such a common scenario that I must be missing something...

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  • Link my tag on other website search

    - by kresna kurdang
    This is my search code <div id="search"> <form method="get" action="http://www.other-website.com/search"> <input type="hidden" name="f" value=""> <input type="text" placeholder="Temukan informasi, komunitas & produk yang kamu cari disini" accesskey="s" name="q"> <input type="submit" value="Search"> </form> </div> This is the tag code (display only text "do not link") <?php $posttags = get_the_tags(); if ($posttags) { foreach($posttags as $tag) { echo $tag->name . ' '; } } ?> The code can apply well on the website, but I have to enter text to the search. I just want to place my tag on that search text so my question is How to make fixed word(my tag) automatically placed on search or where I must place the tag code, the search result is mytag linked on @www.other-website.com/search so user do not have to type? I want to search my tag on other website search

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  • Trouble with jQuery Form Validation

    - by Sennheiser
    I'm making a form that has the following validation rules: no fields are "required", but if you enter an email, it must be valid, and if you enter a password, it must be at least 6 characters and match the confirm password field value. The form works flawlessly with no validation so I know it's not a PHP or HTML problem. Here's the jQuery code handling the form: $('#success').hide(); $('#pwerror').hide(); $('#emailError').hide(); $('#subSet').live('click',function() { //if any of the fields have a value if($("#chfn").val() != "" || $("#chln").val() != "" || $("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "" || $("#chem").val() != "") { $ev = 1; $pv = 1; //validates an email if there is one, trips the valid variable flag if($("#chem").val() != "") { $("#profSet").validate({ rules: { chem: { email: true }, chpw: { required: false, minlength: 6 }, chpw2: { required: false, minlength: 6, equalTo: $("#chpw").val() } }, messages:{ chpw2: { equalTo: "Passwords must be the same." }, chpw: { minlength: "Password must be at least 6 characters." } } }); if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $ev = 0; } } //if either password field is filled, start trying to validate it if($("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "") { if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $pv = 0; } } //if those two were valid if($pv == 1 && $ev == 1) { $.post('php/profSet.php', $('#profSet').serialize(), function(){ $('#profSet').hide(); $('#success').show(); }); } //if either was invalid, the error was already tripped, and this code exits here } }); The problem I'm having now is that the "passwords must be the same" error keeps getting triggered even if both fields are blank, or if they actually are the same. Therefore, the form cannot submit. Any help?

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  • Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

    - by WesleyE
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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  • LINQ To SQL Dynamic Select

    - by mcass20
    Can someone show me how to indicate which columns I would like returned at run-time from a LINQ To SQL statement? I am allowing the user to select items in a checkboxlist representing the columns they would like displayed in a gridview that is bound to the results of a L2S query. I am able to dynamically generate the WHERE clause but am unable to do the same with the SELECT piece. Here is a sample: var query = from log in context.Logs select log; query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp > CustomReport.ReportDateStart); query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp < CustomReport.ReportDateEnd); query = query.Where(Log => Log.ProcessName == CustomReport.ProcessName); foreach (Pair filter in CustomReport.ExtColsToFilter) { sExtFilters = "<key>" + filter.First + "</key><value>" + filter.Second + "</value>"; query = query.Where(Log => Log.FormattedMessage.Contains(sExtFilters)); }

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