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  • Binding a single array cell to a WPF control

    - by yomi
    Hi, I have a bool array of size 4 and I want to bind each cell to a different control. This bool array represents 4 statuses (false = failure, true = success). This bool array is a propery with a class: class foo : INotifyPropertyChanged { ... private bool[] _Statuses; public bool[] Statuses { get {return Statuses;} set { Statuses = value; OnPropertyChanged("Statuses"); } } In XAML there are 4 controls, each one bound to one cell of the array: ... Text="{Binding Path=Statuses[0]}" ... ... Text="{Binding Path=Statuses[1]}" ... ... Text="{Binding Path=Statuses[2]}" ... ... Text="{Binding Path=Statuses[3]}" ... The problem is that the notify event is raised only when I change the array itself and isn't raised when I change one value within the array, i.e, next code line raises the event: Statuses = new bool[4]; but next line does not raises the event: Statuses [0] = true; How can I raise the event each time one cell is changed?

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  • How to trigger the specific controller action using a button?

    - by Eugene
    I'm creating a simple training project. I've implemented a controller method, which deletes an item from the list. The method is looking like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/topic") public class TopicController { @Autowired private TopicService service; ... @RequestMapping(value = "/deleteComment/{commentId}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String deleteComment(@PathVariable int commentId, BindingResult result, Model model){ Comment deletedComment = commentService.findCommentByID(commentId); if (deletedComment != null) { commentService.deleteComment(deletedComment); } return "refresh:"; } } This method is called from the button-tag, which is looking in the following way: _form> _button formaction = "../deleteComment/1" formmethod = "post">delete_/button> _/form> Sorry, but in the form tag I've changed all the '<' characters with the '_', because the tag was invisible. In my project the form-tag is looking like a cliuckable button. But there is a serious problem: controller's method is never triggered. How can I trigger it, using a button-tag? P.S. the call is performed from the page with URI http://localhost:8080/simpleblog/topic/details/2 and controller's URI is the http://localhost:8080/simpleblog/topic/deleteComment/2

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  • Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

    - by isabsent
    I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

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  • Use LINQ, to Sort and Filter items in a List<ReturnItem> collection, based on the values within a Li

    - by Daniel McPherson
    This is tricky to explain. We have a DataTable that contains a user configurable selection of columns, which are not known at compile time. Every column in the DataTable is of type String. We need to convert this DataTable into a strongly typed Collection of "ReturnItem" objects so that we can then sort and filter using LINQ for use in our application. We have made some progress as follows: We started with the basic DataTable. We then process the DataTable, creating a new "ReturnItem" object for each row This "ReturnItem" object has just two properties: ID ( string ) and Columns( List(object) ). The properties collection contains one entry for each column, representing a single DataRow. Each property is made Strongly Typed (int, string, datetime, etc). For example it would add a new "DateTime" object to the "ReturnItem" Columns List containing the value of the "Created" Datatable Column. The result is a List(ReturnItem) that we would then like to be able to Sort and Filter using LINQ based on the value in one of the properties, for example, sort on "Created" date. We have been using the LINQ Dynamic Query Library, which gets us so far, but it doesn't look like the way forward because we are using it over a List Collection of objects. Basically, my question boils down to: How can I use LINQ, to Sort and Filter items in a List(ReturnItem) collection, based on the values within a List(object) property which is part of the ReturnItem class?

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  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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  • Not Understanding Basics Of Dynamic DataBinding (bindPropety) In Flex

    - by Joshua
    I need to dynamically bind properties of components created at runtime. In this particular case please assume I need to use bindProperty. I don't quite understand why the following simplistic test is failing (see code). When I click the button, the label text does not change. I realize that there are simpler ways to go about this particular example using traditional non-dynamic binding, but I need to understand it in terms of using bindProperty. Can someone please help me understand what I'm missing? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" xmlns:ns1="Tools.*" minWidth="684" minHeight="484" xmlns:ns2="*" creationComplete="Init();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.binding.utils.*; public var Available:ArrayCollection=new ArrayCollection(); public function get Value():String { return (Available.getItemAt(0).toString()); } public function Init():void { Available.addItemAt('Before', 0); BindingUtils.bindProperty(Lab, 'text', this, 'Value'); } public function Test():void { Available.setItemAt('After', 0); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Label x="142" y="51" id="Lab"/> <mx:Button x="142" y="157" label="Button" click="Test();"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> Thanks in advance.

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  • Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

    - by predhme
    I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

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  • Script (AJAX or JS) does not work properly in IE8

    - by Uno Mein Ame
    I have a js/ajax script at http://worldcitiesdatabase.info/test1/ I just received a complaint that it does not work properly in IE8. Onchange seems to work, but then the next menu is not populated. Can you please help me figure it out? Thanks Not sure what the problematic part of the code is. Here is my guess: if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } newList=""; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { newList = xmlhttp.responseText; m1.innerHTML=newList; m1.disabled=false; } if (menuname=="showCountry") { var c1=document.getElementById('showRegion'); if (c1.options.length==2) { if (c1.options[0].value=='NONE') { c1.remove(0); c1.value='0'; reloadmenu(c1); } } } } xmlhttp.open("GET",newFile+".php?q="+menuvalue,true); xmlhttp.send();

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  • MySQL Join/Comparison on a DATETIME column (<5.6.4 and > 5.6.4)

    - by Simon
    Suppose i have two tables like so: Events ID (PK int autoInc), Time (datetime), Caption (varchar) Position ID (PK int autoinc), Time (datetime), Easting (float), Northing (float) Is it safe to, for example, list all the events and their position if I am using the Time field as my joining criteria? I.e.: SELECT E.*,P.* FROM Events E JOIN Position P ON E.Time = P.Time OR, even just simply comparing a datetime value (taking into consideration that the parameterized value may contain the fractional seconds part - which MySQL has always accepted) e.g. SELECT E.* FROM Events E WHERE E.Time = @Time I understand MySQL (before version 5.6.4) only stores datetime fields WITHOUT milliseconds. So I would assume this query would function OK. However as of version 5.6.4, I have read MySQL can now store milliseconds with the datetime field. Assuming datetime values are inserted using functions such as NOW(), the milliseconds are truncated (<5.6.4) which I would assume allow the above query to work. However, with version 5.6.4 and later, this could potentially NOT work. I am, and only ever will be interested in second accuracy. If anyone could answer the following questions would be greatly appreciated: In General, how does MySQL compare datetime fields against one another (consider the above query). Is the above query fine, and does it make use of indexes on the time fields? (MySQL < 5.6.4) Is there any way to exclude milliseconds? I.e. when inserting and in conditional joins/selects etc? (MySQL 5.6.4) Will the join query above work? (MySQL 5.6.4) EDIT I know i can cast the datetimes, thanks for those that answered, but i'm trying to tackle the root of the problem here (the fact that the storage type/definition has been changed) and i DO NOT want to use functions in my queries. This negates all my work of optimizing queries applying indexes etc, not to mention having to rewrite all my queries. EDIT2 Can anyone out there suggest a reason NOT to join on a DATETIME field using second accuracy?

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  • Is it possible to access the SMIL timer from javascript?

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use SMIL to animate the typing of text into a field embedded in a SVG. I tried the following code in both Chrome and a SMIL-enable Firefox nightly, but it has no effect: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <foreignObject> <html:input type="text" value=""> <set attributeName="value" to="Hello World" begin="0" dur="10s" fill="freeze" /> </html:input> </foreignObject> </svg> The text field appears, but remains empty. So, I thought I would register for the beginEvent and do the substitution manually. To test the events, I added: <rect id="rect" x="0" y="0" width="10" height="10"> <animate id="dx" attributeName="x" attributeType="XML" begin="0s" dur="1s" fill="freeze" from="0" to="-10" /> </rect> As well as the javascript that made sense from the event model: window.addEventListener( 'load', function() { function listen( id ) { var elem = document.getElementById( id ) elem.addEventListener( 'beginEvent', function() { console.log( 'begin ' + id ) }, false ) elem.addEventListener( 'endEvent', function() { console.log( 'end ' + id ) }, false ) } listen( 'rect' ) listen( 'dx' ) }) But there's no events fired on either the rect or the animate in either browser. The next logical step seems to be to simulate the animation (ala. FakeSmile), but I want to use the browser's animation timer if at all possible.

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  • Selenium problem locating by DOM

    - by bartonlee
    Hi, I'm trying to use the DOM to locate a form element in Selenium but I can't get it to work. Even if I use the example in the Selenium documentation it still fails, for example with this html... <html> <body> <form id="loginForm"> <input name="username" type="text" /> <input name="password" type="password" /> <input name="continue" type="submit" value="Login" /> <input name="continue" type="button" value="Clear" /> </form> </body> <html> and this command in the Selenium IDE... verifyElementPresent with target... dom=document.forms['loginForm'] I get [error] false in the log. The 'getElementById' example in the documentation does work, but none of the others. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong here? Thanks.

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  • jquery select one class from many

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm trying to achieve the following functionality. Within a form I have multiple fields with the class name .inputField if one of these fields is selected then the div associated with that element should be shown on focus and hidden on blur. However, when I implement the code below on selecting the second element the class is applied to both. Not sure where I'm going wrong?!?!? html markup: <form class="friendlyForm" name="friendlyForm" id="friendlyForm"> <ul> <li> <label for="testField">Test field</label> <input name="testField" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> <li> <label for="testField">Test field2</label> <input name="testField2" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField2" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> </ul> </form> jQuery markup: $('.friendlyForm').find('.inputField').each(function(i) { $(this).blur(); $(this).focus(function() { //Add the focus class and fadeIn the helper div $(this).parent().addClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeIn(); }); $(this).blur(function () { //Remove the focus class and fadeOut helper div $(this).parent().removeClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeOut(); }); }); Any pointers here would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Parsing a string in c#

    - by Jay
    Hi, Suppose there is an xml file like below: <Instances> <Bits = "16" XCoord = "64" YCoord = "64" ZCoord = "64" FileType="jpeg" Location="C:\Series1\Image1.jpg" ImageNumber = "1"/> <Bits = "16" XCoord = "64" YCoord = "64" ZCoord = "64" FileType="jpeg" Location="C:\Series1\Image2.jpg" ImageNumber = "2"/> <Bits = "16" XCoord = "64" YCoord = "64" ZCoord = "64" FileType="jpeg" Location="C:\Series1\Image3.jpg" ImageNumber = "3"/> <Bits = "16" XCoord = "64" YCoord = "64" ZCoord = "64" FileType="jpeg" Location="C:\Series1\Image4.jpg" ImageNumber = "4"/> <Bits = "16" XCoord = "64" YCoord = "64" ZCoord = "64" FileType="jpeg" Location="C:\Series1\Image5.jpg" ImageNumber = "5"/> </Instances> This xml file is read as a string and passed on to a function. This xml file has information about a particular image file. I want to extract the location of all the image files from this string. So whatever is value of "location" filed i need to collect all those value. What is the best way to achieve this in C#. Thanks,

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  • Thread-Safe lazy instantiating using MEF

    - by Xaqron
    // Member Variable private static readonly object _syncLock = new object(); // Now inside a static method foreach (var lazyObject in plugins) { if ((string)lazyObject.Metadata["key"] = "something") { lock (_syncLock) { // It seems the `IsValueCreated` is not up-to-date if (!lazyObject.IsValueCreated) lazyObject.value.DoSomething(); } return lazyObject.value; } } Here I need synchronized access per loop. There are many threads iterating this loop and based on the key they are looking for, a lazy instance is created and returned. lazyObject should not be created more that one time. Although Lazy class is for doing so and despite of the used lock, under high threading I have more than one instance created (I track this with a Interlocked.Increment on a volatile static int and log it somewhere). The problem is I don't have access to definition of Lazy and MEF defines how the Lazy class create objects. I should notice the CompositionContainer has a thread-safe option in constructor which is already used. My questions: 1) Why the lock doesn't work ? 2) Should I use an array of locks instead of one lock for performance improvement ?

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  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

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  • get random password with puppet function

    - by ninja-2
    I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

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  • copy rows with special condition

    - by pooria_googooli
    I have a table with a lot of columns. For example I have a table with these columns : ID,Fname,Lname,Tel,Mob,Email,Job,Code,Company,...... ID column is auto number column. I want to copy all rows in this table to this table and change the company column value to 12 in this copied row. I don't want to write name all of the columns because I have a lot of table with a lot of columns. I tried this code but I had this error : declare @c int; declare @i int; select * into CmDet from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end error : Msg 2714, Level 16, State 6, Line 3 There is already an object named 'CmDet' in the database. I changed the code to this declare @c int declare @i int insert into CmDet select * from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end and I had this error : Msg 8101, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 An explicit value for the identity column in table 'CmDet' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. What should I do ?

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  • If either one of both equals

    - by user1620028
    I have start and end dates which are stored in a database in this format: start date= 20121004 //4th October 2012 end date= 20121004 //16th November 2012 so I can use date format: $date = date("Ymd"); // returns: 20121004 to determine when to display and not display to repopulate my update input boxes I use: $start=(str_split($stdate,4));// START DATE: splits stored date into 2x4 ie: 20121209 = 2012 1209 $syr = $start[0];// re first half ie: 2012 which is the year $start2 = $start[1];//re second half ie: 1209 $start3=(str_split($start2,2));// splits second half date into 2x2 ie: 1209 = 12 09 $smth = $start3[0]; // first half = month ie: 12 $sday = $start3[1]; // second half = day ie: 09 $expiry=(str_split($exdate,4)); ///SAME AGAIN FOR EXPIRY DATE ... $xyr = $expiry[0]; $expiry2 = $expiry[1]; $expiry3=(str_split($expiry2,2)); $xmth = $expiry3[0]; $xday = $expiry3[1]; which works fine but I need to repopulate the input boxes for the month showing the date in the database like this <option value="01">January</option`> using if ($smth==01):$month='January'; endif; if ($xmth==01):$month='January'; endif; // if the start and/or expiry month number = 01 display $month as January if ($smth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($xmth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($smth==03):$month='March'; endif; <select name="stmonth" class="input"> <option value="<?=$smth?>"><?=$month?></option> ... </select> is there an easier way to display IF EITHER ONE EQUALS rather than having to write the same line twice once for each $smth AND $xmth ? re: if ($smth **and or** $xmth ==01):$month='January'; endif;

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  • [iphone] method created in a seperate class returns "out of scope"

    - by Dror Sabbag
    Hey, I have created a Class (subclass of NSObject) which will hold all my SQLs/dbConnections etc.. in a seperate viewcontroller, i have instantiated the SQL's class and performed some actions, all went trough OK. but. one of my methods in the SQL's class is a method defined as follows: -(NSString *)queryTable:(NSUInteger *)fieldnum //query from db, and assign the field value into "fieldName" dbEntity = fieldName; [fieldName release]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } return dbEntity; } dbEntity is defined as NSString, and i have set it as a nonatoimc-retain property @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *dbEntity; when ever i call this method out from my viewController and debug step by step, i see that the method is running, it is quering from the db as expected, but when it passes the value into dbEntity the values in dbEntity are suddenly "out of scope" that is... if i browse this specific action: dbEntity = fieldName; i can see values inside fieldName, but see "out of scope" in dbEntity. Why is that?!? what is wrong with dbEntity definitions? Any help will be appriciated.

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  • How to select a single object using Linq in vb.net

    - by Hucker
    I have done a lot of searching to what appears to be a simple LINQ problem but I can't figure out how to do grab an object out of a collection that has a specified minimum (or max value) without resorting to a sort like this: > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Order By c.age Ascending).ToList.First This (untested code) structure works fine with the exception that the entire customer array must be sorted and placed into a list for the only purpose of extracting the first value. That can't be the best way to get the minimum! Note that I want the whole c record in this case, not the minumum age of a customer that can be done like this (a typical example): > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c.age).Min Or even > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c).Min(Function(x) x.age) I can't for the life of me figure out how to get the whole object (or even the index) without resorting to the sort...

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  • What makes my code DDD (domain-driven design) qualified?

    - by oykuo
    Hi All, I'm new to DDD and am thinking about using this design technique in my project. However, what strikes me about DDD is that how basic the idea is. Unlike other design techniques such as MVC and TDD, it doesn't seems to contain any ground breaking ideas. For example, I'm sure some of you will have the same feeling that the idea of root aggregates and repositories are nothing new because when you are was writing MVC web applications you have to have one single master object (i.e. the root aggregate) that contain other minor objects (i.e. value objects and entities) in the model layer in order to send data to a strongly typed view. To me, the only new idea in DDD is probably the "Smart" entities (i.e. you are supposed to have business rules on root aggregates) Separation between value object, root aggregate and entities. Can anyone tell me if I have missed out anything here? If that's all there is to DDD, if I update one of my existing MVC application with the above 2 new ideas, can I claim it's an TDD, MVC and DDD applcation?

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  • Change jQuery slider option dynamically based on window width

    - by Nathan
    I would like to change a jQuery option based on window width (on load as well as on resize). I've found solutions close to what I need, but I don't understand jQuery or javascript enough to customize them for my needs. Here's my jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript"> var tpj = jQuery; tpj.noConflict(); tpj(document).ready(function () { if (tpj.fn.cssOriginal != undefined) tpj.fn.css = tpj.fn.cssOriginal; tpj('#rev_slider_1_1').show().revolution({ delay: 5000, startwidth: 1920, startheight: 515, hideThumbs: 200, thumbWidth: 100, thumbHeight: 50, thumbAmount: 4, navigationType: "bullet", navigationArrows: "verticalcentered", navigationStyle: "navbar", touchenabled: "on", onHoverStop: "off", navOffsetHorizontal: 0, navOffsetVertical: 20, shadow: 0, fullWidth: "on" }); }); //ready </script> I want to change the startheight based on window width. If the window width is above 1280 I would like the value for the height to be 515, and if it is below 1280 I would like the height to be 615 and if the width is less than 480 make the height 715. With help from another post I am able to change the css I need using this script: $(window).on('load resize', function () { var w = $(window).width(); $("#rev_slider_1_1 #rev_slider_1_1_wrapper") .css('max-height', w > 1280 ? 515 : w > 480 ? 615 : 715); }); But I need to also change the jQuery startheight value on the fly. Can someone help? Thanks!

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  • iOS: Best Way to do This w/o Calling Method 32 Times?

    - by user1886754
    I'm currently retrieving the Top 100 Scores for one of my leaderboards the following way: - (void) retrieveTop100Scores { __block int totalScore = 0; GKLeaderboard *myLB = [[GKLeaderboard alloc] init]; myLB.identifier = [Team currentTeam]; myLB.timeScope = GKLeaderboardTimeScopeAllTime; myLB.playerScope = GKLeaderboardPlayerScopeGlobal; myLB.range = NSMakeRange(1, 100); [myLB loadScoresWithCompletionHandler:^(NSArray *scores, NSError *error) { if (error != nil) { NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); } if (scores != nil) { for (GKScore *score in scores) { NSLog(@"%lld", score.value); totalScore += score.value; } NSLog(@"Total Score: %d", totalScore); [self loadingDidEnd]; } }]; } The problem is I want to do this for 32 leaderboards. What's the best way of achieving this? Using a third party tool (Game Center Manager), I can get the following line to return a dictionary with leaderboard ID's as keys and the Top 1 highest score as values NSDictionary *highScores = [[GameCenterManager sharedManager] highScoreForLeaderboards:leaderboardIDs]; So my question is, how can I combine those 2 segments of code to pull in the 100 values for each leaderboard, resulting in a dictionary with all of the leaderboard names as keys, and the Total (of each 100 scores) of the leaderboards for values.

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  • Most effecient way to create a "slider" timeline in HTML, CSS, and JavaScript?

    - by ZapChance
    Alright, so here's my dilemma. I've got these two "slides" lined up, one ready to be passed into view. I have it working and all, but I can scroll over to the right to see the second slide! How could I have it you can only view the one slide? JavaScript used: function validate(form) { var user = form.username.value; var pass = form.password.value; if(user === "test") { if(pass === "pass") { var hideoptions = {"direction" : "left", "mode" : "hide"}; var showoptions = {"direction" : "left", "mode" : "show"}; /*$("#loginView").toggle("slide", hideoptions, 1000, function() { $("#loginView").css("margin-left", "100%"); }); $("#mainView").toggle("slide", showoptions, 1000, function() { $("#mainView").css("margin-left", 0); });*/ $("#loginView").animate({ marginLeft: "-100%" }, 1000); $("#mainView").animate({ marginLeft: "0" }, 1000); } else { alert("nope"); } } else { alert("nope 2"); } } As you can see here @ http://jsfiddle.net/D7Va3/1/ (JSFiddle), once you enter "test" and "pass", then click enter, the tiles slide. But. If you reload, you can see that you can scroll to the right of the screen and view the second slide prematurely, which is just not going to work for me. I still need to achieve the same seamless transition, but you must only be able to view one slide at a time. Also, I plan to expand with more slides, so if you're feeling lucky today, I'd really love to see an example of how I could support multiple frames. I'm very new to JavaScript (yet I know syntax rules, and general coding knowledge from other languages), so the better you explain, the more knowledgeable I can be, and I'd be very grateful for that. Thanks in advance!

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  • While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

    - by Mahn
    I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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